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All Textbook Solutions for Anatomy & Physiology

Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/fractures) to see how fractures of the distal radius bone can affect the wrist joint. Explain the problems that may occur if a fracture of the distal radius involves the joint surface of the radiocarpal joint of the wrist.Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/handbone) to explore the bones and joints of the hand. What are the three arches of the hand, and what is the importance of these during the gripping of an object?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/colles) to learn about a Colles fracture, a break of the distal radius, usually caused by falling onto an outstretched hand. When would surgery be required and how would the fracture be repaired in this case?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/3Dpelvis) for a 3-D view of the pelvis and its associated ligaments. What is the large opening in the bony pelvis, located between the ischium and pubic regions, and what two parts of the pubis contribute to the formation of this opening?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/midfemur) to view how a fracture of the mid-femur is surgically repaired. How are the two portions of the broken femur stabilized during surgical repair of a fractured femur?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/kneesurgery) to perform a virtual knee replacement surgery. The prosthetic knee components must be properly aligned to function properly. How is this alignment ensured?Use this tutorial (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/footbones) to review the bones of the foot. Which tarsal bones are in the proximal, intermediate, and distal groups?View this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/bunion) to learn about a bunion, a localized swelling on the medial side of the foot, next to the first metatarsophalangeal joint, at the base of the big toe. What is a bunion and what type of shoe is most likely to cause this to develop?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/limbbuds) to follow the development and growth of the upper and lower limb buds. On what days of embryonic development do these events occur: (a) first appearance of the upper limb bud (limb ridge); (b) the flattening of the distal limb to form the handplate or footplate; and (c) the beginning of limb rotation?Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium? shaft sternal end acromial end coracoid process A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________. glenohumeral joint costoclavicular joint acromioclavicular joint sternoclavicular joint Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula? suprascapular notch glenoid cavity superior angle supraspinous fossa What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula? acromion coracoid process supraglenoid tubercle glenoid cavity Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly. acromial process clavicle coracoid process glenoid fossa How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined? 20 30 40 60 Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus? greater tuberde trochlea lateral epicondyle lesser tubercle Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint? trochlea styloid process capitulum olecranon process Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row? trapezium hamate pisiform scaphoid The radius bone ________. is found on the medial side of the forearm has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna does not articulate with any of the carpal bones has die radial tuberosity located near its distal end How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone? 2 3 4 5 Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone? ilium pubis ischium sacrum Which of the following supports body weight when sitting? iliac crest ischial nibeiosity ischiopubic ramus pubic body The ischial spine is found between which of the following stnic titres? inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus pectineal line and arcuate line lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine The pelvis ________. has a subpubic angle that is larger in females consists of the two hip hones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis Which bony landmark of the femur selves as a site foi muscle attachments? fovea capitis lesser trochanter head medial condyle What structure contributes to the knee joint? lateral malleolus of the fibula tibial tuberosity medial condyle of the tibia lateral epicondyle of the femur Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula? calcaneus cuboid navicular talus What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes? 7 14 26 30 The tibia ________. has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus is not a weight-bearing bone is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends Which event takes place during the seventh week of development? appearance of the upper and lower limb buds flattening of the distal limb bud into a paddle shape the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones the rotation of the limbs During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ________. a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth The clavicle ________. develops via inhamembianous ossification develops via endochondral ossification is the last bone of the body to begin ossification is fully ossified at the time of birth Describe the shape and palpable line formed by the clavicle and scapula.Discuss two possible injuries of the pectoral girdle that may occur following a strong blow to tine shoulder or a hard fall onto an outstretched hand.Your friend runs out of gas and you have to help push his car. Discuss the sequence of bones and joints that convey the forces passing from your hand, through your upper limb and your pectoral girdle, and to your axial skeleton.Name the bones in the wrist and hand, and describe or sketch out their locations and articulations.Describe the articulations and ligaments that unite the four bones of the pelvis to each other.Discuss the ways in which the female pelvis is adapted for childbirth.Define the regions of the lower limb, name the bones found in each region, and describe the bony landmarks that articulate together to form the hip, knee, and ankle joints.The talus bone of the foot receives the weight of the body from the tibia. The talus bone then distributes this weight toward the ground in two directions: one-half of the body weight is passed in a posterior direction and one-half of the weight is passed in an anterior direction. Describe the arrangement of the tarsal and metatarsal bones that are involved in both the posterior and anterior distribution of body weight.How can a radiograph of a childs femur be used to determine the approximate age of that child?How does the development of the clavicle differ from the development of other appendicular skeleton bones?Go to this website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/childhand) to view a radiograph (X-ray image) of a childs hand and wrist. The growing bones of child have an epiphyseal plate that forms a synchondrosis between the shaft and end of a long bone. Being less dense than bone, the area of epiphyseal cartilage is seen on this radiograph as the dark epiphyseal gaps located near the ends of the long bones, including the radius, ulna, metacarpal, and phalanx bones. Which of the bones in this image do not show an epiphyseal plate (epiphyseal gap)?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/synjoints) to see an animation of synovial joints in action. Synovial joints are places where bones articulate with each other inside of a joint cavity. The different types of synovial joints are the ball-and-socket joint (shoulder joint), hinge joint (knee), pivot joint (atlantoaxial joint, between C1 and C2 vertebrae of the neck), condyloid joint (radiocarpal joint of the wrist), saddle joint (first carpometacarpal joint, between the trapezium carpal bone and the first metacarpal bone, at the base of the thumb), and plane joint (facet joints of vertebral column, between superior and inferior articular processes). Which type of synovial joint allows for the widest ranges of motion?Visit this website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/gout) to read about a patient who arrives at the hospital with joint pain and weakness in his legs. What caused this patients weakness?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/hipreplace) to observe hip replacement surgery (total hip arthroplasty), which can be used to alleviate the pain and loss of joint mobility associated with osteoarthritis of the hip joint. What is the most common cause of hip disability?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/rheuarthritis) to learn about the symptoms and treatments for rheumatoid arthritis. Which system of the body malfunctions in rheumatoid arthritis and what does this cause?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/anatomical) to learn about anatomical motions. What motions involve increasing or decreasing the angle of the foot at the ankle?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/TMJ) to learn about TMJ. Opening of the mouth requires the combination of two motions at the temporomandibular joint, an anterior gliding motion of the articular disc and mandible and the downward hinging of the mandible. What is the initial movement of the mandible during opening and how much mouth opening does this produce?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/shoulderjoint1) for a tutorial on the anatomy of the shoulder joint. What movements are available at the shoulder joint?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/shoulderjoint2) to learn about the anatomy of the shoulder joint, including bones, joints, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. What is the shape of the glenoid labrum in crosssection, and what is the importance of this shape?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/elbowjoint1) to learn more about the anatomy of the elbow joint. What structures provide the main stability for the elbow?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/elbowjoint2) to learn more about the anatomy of the elbow joint, including bones, joints, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. What are the functions of the articular cartilage?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/hipjoint1) for a tutorial on the anatomy of the hip joint. What is a possible consequence following a fracture of the femoral neck within the capsule of the hip joint?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/hipjoint2) to learn more about the anatomy of the hip joint, including bones, joints, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. Where is the articular cartilage thickest within the hip joint?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/flexext) to learn more about the flexion and extension of the knee, as the femur both rolls and glides on the tibia to maintain stable contact between the bones in all knee positions. The patella glides along a groove on the anterior side of the distal femur. The collateral ligaments on the sides of the knee become tight in the fully extended position to help stabilize the knee. The posterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when flexed and the anterior cruciate ligament becomes tight when the knee comes into full extension to resist hyperextension. What are the ligaments that support the knee joint?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/kneejoint1) to learn more about the anatomy of the knee joint, including bones, joints, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. Which ligament of the knee keeps the tibia from sliding too far forward in relation to the femur and which ligament keeps the tibia from sliding too far backward?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/kneeinjury) to learn more about different knee injuries and diagnostic testing of the knee. What are the most causes of anterior cruciate ligament injury?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/anklejoint1) for a tutorial on the anatomy of the ankle joint. What are the three ligaments found on the lateral side of the ankle joint?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/anklejoint2) to learn more about the anatomy of the ankle joint, including bones, joints, muscles, nerves, and blood vessels. The ankle joint resembles what type of joint used in woodworking?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/anklejoint3) to learn about the ligaments of the ankle joint, ankle sprains, and treatment. During an inversion ankle sprain injury, all three ligaments that resist excessive inversion of the foot may be injured. What is the sequence in which these three ligaments are injured?The joint between adjacent vertebrae that in chides an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint? diarthrosis multiaxial amphiarthrosis synarthrosis Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis? the pubic symphysis the manubriosternal joint an invertebral disc the shoulder joint Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis? the metacaipophalangeal joint the hip joint the elbow joint the pubic symphysis Synovial joints ________. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage may be functionally classified as a amphiarthtosis are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula? syndesmosis symphysis suture gomphosis An example of a wide fibrous joint is ________. the interosseous membrane of the forearm a gomphosis a suture joint a synostosis A gomphosis ________. is formed by an interosseous membrane connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg contains a joint cavity anchors a tooth to the jaw A syndesmosis is ________. a narrow fibrous joint the type of joint that unites bones of the skull a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws A cartilaginous joint ________. has a joint cavity is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage anchors the teeth to the jaws is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue A synchondrosis is ________. found at the pubic symphysis where bones are connected together with fibro cartilage a type of fibrous joint found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage Which of the following are joined by a symphysis? adjacent vertebrae the fir st rib and the sternum the end and shaft of a long bone the radius and ulna bones The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________. synchondrosis synostosis symphysis syndesmosis Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion? ball-and-socket hinge condyloid plane Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement? saddle joint hinge joint condyloid joint ball-and-socket joint Which of the following is a type of synovial joint? a synostosis a suture a plane joint a synchondrosis A bursa ________. surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint At synovial joints, ________. the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue the ends of the bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________. forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones forms the intracapsular ligaments secretes the lubricating synovial fluid Condyloid joints ________. are a type of ball-and-socket joint include the radiocarpal joint are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint are found at the proximal radioulnar joint A meniscus is ________. a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones a fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone the articular caililage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement? lateral flexion circumduction dorsiflexion abduction Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body? elevation dorsiflexion eversion plantai flexion Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion? rotation elevation abduction circumduction Supination is the motion that moves the ________. hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the mid line of the body hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position scapula in an upward direction Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________. elevation eversion abduction lateral rotation The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the ________. coracohumeral ligament glenoid labium rotator cuff muscles subacromial bursa The proximal radioulnar joint ________. is supported by the annular Ligament contains an articular disc that strongly unites the bones is supported by the ulnar collateral ligament is a hinge joint that allows for flexion/extension of the forearm Which statement is tine concerning the knee joint? The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint. Hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing. The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament.The ankle joint ________. is also called the subtalar joint allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot is a uniaxial hinge joint is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation? cervical thoracic lumbar sacral Intramembranous ossification ________. gives rise to the bones of the limbs produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull produces the bones of the face and base of the skull involves the conversion of a hyaline cartilage model into bone Synovial joints ________. are derived from fontanelles are produced by intramembranous ossification develop at an interzone site are produced by endochondral ossification Endochondral ossification is ________. the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue the process by which mesenchyme differentiates directly into bone tissue completed before birth the process that gives rise to the joint interzone and future joint cavity Define how joints are classified based on function. Describe and give an example for each functional type of joint.Explain the reasons for why joints differ in their degree of mobility.Distinguish between a narrow and wide fibrous joint and give an example of each.The periodontal ligaments are made of collagen fibers and are responsible for connecting the roots of the teeth to the jaws. Describe how scurvy, a disease that inhibits collagen production, can affect the teeth.Describe the two types of cartilaginous joints and give examples of each.Both functional and structural classifications can be used to describe an individual joint. Define the first sternocostal joint and the pubic symphysis using both functional and structural characteristics.Describe the characteristic structures found at all synovial joints.Describe the structures that provide direct and indirect support for a synovial joint.Briefly define the types of joint movements available at a ball-and-socket joint.Discuss tlie joints involved and movements required for you to cross your arms together in front of your chest.Discuss the structures that contribute to support of the shoulder joint.Describe the sequence of injuries that may occur if the extended, weight-bearing knee receives a very strong blow to the lateral side of the knee.Describe how synovial joints develop within the embryonic limb.Differentiate between endochondral and intrameinbranous ossification.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/micromacro) to learn more about macro- and microstructures of skeletal muscles. (a) What are the names of the junction points between sarcomeres? (b) What are the names of the subunits within the myofibrils that run the length of skeletal muscle fibers? (c) What is the â€œdouble strand of pearlsâ€� described in the video? (d) What gives a skeletal muscle fiber its striated appearance?Every skeletal muscle fiber is supplied by a motor neuron at the NMJ. Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/skelmuscfiber) to learn more about what happens at the neuromuscular junction. (a) What is the definition of a motor unit? (b) What is the structural and functional difference between a large motor unit and a small motor unit? Can you give an example of each? (c) Why is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine degraded after binding to its receptor?The release of calcium ions initiates muscle contractions. Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/calciumrole) to learn more about the role of calcium. (a) What are â€œT-tubulesâ€� and what is their role? (b) Please also describe how actin-binding sites are made available for cross-bridging with myosin heads during contraction.Muscle that has a striped appearance is described as being ________. elastic nonstriated excitable striated Which element is important in directly Triggering contraction? sodium (Na+) calcium (Ca++) potassium (K+) chloride (Cl- )Which of the following properties is not common to all three muscle tissues? excitability the need for ATP at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin binding sites elasticity The correct order for the smallest to the largest unit of organization in muscle tissue is ________. fascicle, filament, muscle fiber, myofibril filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle muscle fiber, fascicle, filament, myofibril myofibril, muscle fiber, filament, fascicle Depolarization of the sarcolemma means ________. the inside of the membrane has become Less negative as sodium ions accumulate the outside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate the inside of the membrane has become more negative as sodium ions accumulate the sarcolemma has completely lost any electrical charge In relaxed muscle, the myosin-binding site on actin is blocked by ________. titin troponin myoglobin tropomyosin According to the sliding filament model, binding sites on actin open when ________. creatine phosphate levels rise ATP levels rise acetylcholine levels rise calcium ion levels rise The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called ________. myofibril sarcolemma sarcoplasm myofilament Muscle relaxation occurs when ________. calcium ions are actively transported out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ions diffuse out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum During muscle contraction, the cross-bridge detaches when ________. the myosin head binds to an xADP molecule the myosin head binds to an ATP molecule calcium ions bind to troponin calcium ions bind to actin Thin and thick filaments are organized into functional units called ________. myofibrils myofilaments T-tubules sarcomeres During which phase of a twitch in a muscle fiber is tension the greatest? resting phase repolarization phase contraction phase relaxation phase Muscle fatigue is caused by ________. buildup of ATP and Lactic acid levels exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels buildup of ATP and pyruvic acid levels exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of pyruvic acid levels A sprinter would experience muscle fatigue sooner than a marathon runner due to ________. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the splinter anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the marathon runner aerobic metabolism in die muscles of the sprinter glycolysis in the muscles of the marathon runner What aspect of creatine phosphate allows it to supply energy to muscles? ATPase activity phosphate bonds carbon bonds hydrogen bonds Dmg X blocks ATP regeneration from ADP and phosphate. How will muscle cells respond to this ding? by absorbing ATP from the bloodstream by using ADP as an energy source by using glycogen as an energy source none of the above The muscles of a professional sprinter are most likely to have ________. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers The muscles of a professional marathon runner are most likely to have ________. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers Which of the following statements is true? Fast fibers have a small diameter. Fast fibers contain loosely packed myofibrils. Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves. Fast fibers have many mitochondria.Which of the following statements is false? Slow fibers have a small network of capillar ies. Slow fibers contain the pigment myoglobin. Slow fibers contain a large number of mitochondria. Slow fibers contract for extended periods.Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________. are striated utilize aerobic metabolism contain myofibrils contain intercalated discs If cardiac muscle cells were prevented from undergoing aerobic metabolism, they ultimately would ________. undergo glycolysis synthesize ATP stop contracting start contracting Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they ________. lack myofibrils are under voluntary control lack myosin lack actin Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells? They are resistant to fatigue. They have a rapid onset of contractions. They cannot exhibit tetanus. They primarily use anaerobic metabolism.From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop? ganglion cells myotube cells myoblast cells satellite cells Which cell type helps to repair injured muscle fibers? ganglion cells myotube cells myoblast cells satellite cells Why is elasticity an important quality of muscle tissue?What would happen to skeletal muscle if the epimysium were destroyed?Describe how tendons facilitate body movement.What are the five primary functions of skeletal muscle?What are the opposite roles of voltage-gated sodium channels and voltage-gated potassium channels?How would muscle contractions be affected if skeletal muscle fibers did not have T-tubules?What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle tissue?How would muscle contractions be affected if ATP was completely depleted in a muscle fiber?Why does a motor unit of the eye have few muscle fibers compared to a motor unit of the leg?What factors contribute to the amount of tension produced in an individual muscle fiber?Why do muscle cells use creatine phosphate instead of glycolysis to supply ATP for the first few seconds of muscle contraction?Is aerobic respiration more or less efficient than glycolysis? Explain your answer.What changes occur at the cellular level in response to endurance training?What changes occur at the cellular level in response to resistance training?What would be the drawback of cardiac contractions being the same duration as skeletal muscle contractions?How are cardiac muscle cells similar to and different from skeletal muscle cells?Why can smooth muscles conn act over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal and cardiac muscle?Describe the differences between single-unit smooth muscle and multiunit smooth muscle.Why is muscle that has sustained significant damage unable to produce the same amount of power as it could before being damaged?Which muscle type(s) (skeletal, smooth, or cardiac) can regenerate new muscle cells/fibers? Explain your answer.Which of the following is unique to the muscles of facial expression? They all originate from the scalp musculature. They insert onto the cartilage found around the face. They only insert onto the facial bones. They insert into the skin.Which of the following helps an agonist work? a synergist a fixator an insertion an antagonist Which of the following statements is correct about what happens during flexion? The angle between bones is increased. The angle between bones is decreased. The bone moves away from the body. The bone moves toward the center of the body.Which is moved the least during muscle contraction? the origin the insertion the ligaments the joints Which muscle has a convergent pattern of fascicles? biceps brachii gluteus maximus pectoralis major rectus femoris A muscle that has a pattern of fascicles running along the long axis of the muscle has which of the following fascicle arrangements? circular pennate parallel rectus Which arrangement best describes a bipennate muscle? The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon from both sides. The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon horn all directions. The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon horn one side. The muscle fibers on one side of a tendon feed into it at a certain angle and muscle fibers on the other side of the tendon feed into it at the opposite angle.The location of a muscles insertion and origin can determine ________. action the force of contraction muscle name the load a muscle can carry Where is the temporalis muscle located? on the forehead in the neck on the side of the head on the chin Which muscle name does not make sense? extensor digitorum gluteus minimus biceps femoris extensor minimus longus Which of the following terms would be used in the name of a muscle that moves the leg away from the body? flexor adductor extensor abductor Which of the following is a prime mover in head flexion? occipitofrontalis corrugator supercilii sternocleidomastoid masseter Where is the inferior oblique muscle located? in the abdomen in the eye socket in the anterior neck in the face What is the action of the masseter? swallowing chewing moving the lips closing the eye The names of the extrinsic tongue muscles commonly end in ________. -glottis -glossus -gluteus -hyoid What is the function of the erector spinae? movement of the arms stabilization of the pelvic girdle postural support rotating of the vertebral column Which of the following abdominal muscles is not a part of the anterior abdominal wall? quadratus lumborum rectus abdominis interior oblique exterior oblique Which muscle pair plays a role in respiration? intertransversarii, interspinales semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis trapezius, rhomboids diaphragm, scalene What is the linea alba? a small muscle that helps with compression of the abdominal organs a long tendon that inns down the middle of the rectus abdominis a long band of collagen fibers that connects the hip to the knee another name for the tendinous inscription The rhomboid major and minor muscles are deep to the ________. rectus abdominis scalene muscles trapezius ligamentum nuchae Which muscle extends the forearm? biceps brachii triceps brachii brachialis deltoid What is the origin of the wrist flexors? the lateral epicondyle of the humerus the medial epicondyle of die humerus the carpal bones of the wrist the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus Which muscles stabilize the pectoral girdle? axial and scapular axial appendicular axial and appendicular The large muscle group that attaches the leg to the pelvic girdle and produces extension of the hip joint is the ________ group. gluteal obturator adductor abductor Which muscle produces movement that allows you to cross your legs? the gluteus maximus the piriformis the gracilis the sartorius What is the largest muscle in the lower leg? soleus gastrocnemius tibialis anterior tibialis posterior The vastus intermedius muscle is deep to which of the following muscles? biceps femoris rectus femoris vastus medialis vastus lateralis What effect does fascicle arrangement have on a muscles action?Movements of the body occur at joints. Describe how muscles are arranged around the joints of the body.Explain how a synergist assists an agonist by being a fixator.Describe the different criteria that contribute to how skeletal muscles are named.Explain the difference between axial and appendicular muscles.Describe the muscles of the anterior neck.Why are the muscles of the face different from typical skeletal muscle?Describe the fascicle arrangement in the muscles of the abdominal wall. How do they relate to each other?What are some similarities and differences between the diaphragm and the pelvic diaphragm?The tendons of which muscles form the rotator cuff? Why is the rotator cuff important?List the general muscle groups of the shoulders and upper limbs as well as their sub groups.Which muscles form the hamstrings? How do they function together?Which muscles form the quadriceps? How do they function together?In 2003, the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded to Paul C. Lauterbur and Sir Peter Mansfield for discoveries related to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). This is a tool to see the structures of the body (not just the nervous system) that depends on magnetic fields associated with certain atomic nuclei. The utility of this technique in the nervous system is that fat tissue and water appear as different shades between black and white. Because white matter is fatty (from myelin) and gray matter is not, they can be easily distinguished in MRI images. Visit the Nobel Prize website (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/nobel_2) to play an interactive game that demonstrates the use of this technology and compares it with other types of imaging technologies. Also, the results from an MRI session are compared with images obtained from x-ray or computed tomography. How do the imaging techniques shown in this game indicate the separation of white and gray matter compared with the freshly dissected tissue shown earlier?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/troublewstairs) to read about a woman that notices that her daughter is having trouble walking up the stairs. This leads to the discovery of a hereditary condition that affects the brain and spinal cord. The electromyography and MRI tests indicated deficiencies in the spinal cord and cerebellum, both of which are responsible for controlling coordinated movements. To what functional division of the nervous system would these structures belong?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/nervetissue3) to learn about how nervous tissue is composed of neurons and glial cells. The neurons are dynamic cells with the ability to make a vast number of connections and to respond incredibly quickly to stimuli and to initiate movements based on those stimuli. They are the focus of intense research as failures in physiology can lead to devastating illnesses. Why are neurons only found in animals? Based on what this article says about neuron function, why wouldnt they be helpful for plants or microorganisms?View the University of Michigan Webscope (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/nervefiber) to see an electron micrograph of a cross-section of a myelinated nerve fiber. The axon contains microtubules and neurofilaments, bounded by a plasma membrane known as the axolemma. Outside the plasma membrane of the axon is the myelin sheath, which is composed of the tightly wrapped plasma membrane of a Schwann cell. What aspects of the cells in this image react with the stain that makes them the deep, dark, black color, such as the multiple layers that are the myelin sheath?What happens across the membrane of an electrically active cell is a dynamic process that is hard to visualize with static images or through text descriptions. View this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/dynamic1) to really understand the process. What is the difference between the driving force for Na+ and K+? And what is similar about the movement of these two ions?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/neurolab) to see a virtual neurophysiology lab, and to observe electrophysiological processes in the nervous system, where scientists directly measure the electrical signals produced by neurons. Often, the action potentials occur so rapidly that watching a screen to see them occur is not helpful. A speaker is powered by the signals recorded from a neuron and it pops each time the neuron fires an action potential. These action potentials are firing so fast that it sounds like static on the radio. Electrophysiologists can recognize the patterns within that static to understand what is happening. Why is the leech model used for measuring the electrical activity of neurons instead of using humans?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/summation) to learn about summation. The process of converting electrical signals to chemical signals and back requires subtle changes that can result in transient increases or decreases in membrane voltage. To cause a lasting change in the target cell, multiple signals are usually added together, or summated. Does spatial summation have to happen all at once, or can the separate signals arrive on the postsynaptic neuron at slightly different times? Explain your answer.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/neurotrans) to learn about the release of a neurotransmitter. The action potential reaches the end of the axon, called the axon terminal, and a chemical signal is released to tell the target cell to do something, either initiate a new action potential, or to suppress that activity. In a very short space, the electrical signal of the action potential is changed into the chemical signal of a neurotransmitter, and then back to electrical changes in the target cell membrane. What is the importance of voltage-gated calcium channels in the release of neurotransmitters?Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system? abdominal pelvic cranial thoracic Which structure predominates in the white matter of the brain? myelinated axons neuronal cell bodies ganglia of the parasympathetic neives bundles of dendrites from the enteric nervous system Which part of a neuron transmits an electrical signal to a target cell? dendrites soma cell body axon Which term describes a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system? nucleus b. ganglion tract nerve Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (e.g., increased heart rate and sweating)? somatic autonomic enteric central What type of glial cell provides myelin for the axons in a tract? oligodendrocyte astrocyte Schwann cell satellite cell Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus? dendrite soma axon synaptic end bulb Which of the following substances is least able to cross the blood-brain barrier? water sodium ions glucose white blood cells What type of glial cell is the resident macrophage behind the blood-brain barrier? microglia astrocyte Schwann cell satellite cell What two types of macromolecules are the main components of myelin? carbohydrates and lipids proteins and nucleic acids lipids and proteins carbohydrates and nucleic acids If a thermoreceptor is sensitive to temperature sensations, what would a chemoreceptor be sensitive to? light sound molecules vibration Which of these locations is where the greatest level of integration is taking place in the example of testing the temperature of the shower? skeletal muscle spinal cord thalamus cerebral cortex How long does all the signaling through the sensory pathway within the central nervous system, and through the motor command pathway take? 1 to 2 minutes 1 to 2 seconds fraction of a second varies with graded potential What is the target of an upper motor neuron? cerebral cortex lower motor neuron skeletal muscle thalamus What ion enters a neuron causing depolarization of the cell membrane? sodium chloride potassium phosphate Voltage-gated Na+ channels open upon leaching what state? resting potential threshold repolaiization overshoot What does a ligand-gated channel require in order to open? increase in concentration of Na+ ions binding of a neuro transmitter increase in concentration of K+ ions depolarization of the membrane What does a mechanically gated channel respond to? physical stimulus chemical stimulus increase in resistance decrease in resistance Which of the following voltages would most likely be measured during the relative refractory period? +30 mV 0 mV -45 mV -80 mv Which of the following is probably going to propagate an action potential fastest? a thin, unmyelinated axon a thin, myelinated axon a thick, unmyelinated axon a thick, myelinated axon How much of a change in the membrane potential is necessary for the summation of postsynaptic potentials to result in an action potential being generated? +30 mV +15 mV +10 mV -15 mV A channel opens on a postsynaptic membrane that causes a negative ion to enter the cell. What type of graded potential is this? depolarizing repolarizing hypeipolai izing non-polarizing What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? norepinephrine serotonin dopamine acetylcholine What type of receptor requires an effector protein to initiate a signal? biogenic amine ionotropic receptor cholinergic system metabotropic receptor Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with inhibition exclusively? GABA acetylcholine glutamate norepinephrine What responses are generated by the nervous system when you run on a treadmill? Include an example of each type of tissue that is under nervous system control.When eating food, what anatomical and functional divisions of the nervous system are involved in the perceptual experience?Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease affecting die central nervous system. What type of cell would be the most likely target of this disease? Why?Which type of neuron, based on its shape, is best suited for relaying information directly from one neuron to another? Explain why.Sensory fibers, or pathways, are referred to as afferent. Motor fibers, or pathways, are referred to as efferent. What can you infer about the meaning of these two terms (afferent and efferent) in a structural or anatomical context?If a person has a motor disorder and cannot move their aim voluntarily, but their muscles have tone, which motor neuron—upper or lower—is probably affected? Explain why.What does it mean for an action potential to be an all or none event?The conscious perception of pain is often delayed because of the time it takes for the sensations to reach the cerebral coitex. Why would this be the case based on propagation of the axon potential?If a postsynaptic cell has synapses from five different cells, and three cause EPSPs and two of them cause IPSPs, give an example of a series of depolarizations and hyperpolarizations that would result in the neuron reaching threshold.Why is the receptor the important element determining the effect a neurotransmitter has on a target cell?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/braindevel) to examine the development of the brain, starting with the neural tube. As the anterior end of the neural tube develops, it enlarges into the primary vesicles that establish the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. Those structures continue to develop throughout the rest of embryonic development and into adolescence. They are the basis of the structure of the fully developed adult brain. How would you describe the difference in the relative sizes of the three regions of the brain when comparing the early (25th embryonic day) brain and the adult brain?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/whitematter) to learn about the white matter in the cerebrum that develops during childhood and adolescence. This is a composite of MRI images taken of the brains of people from 5 years of age through 20 years of age, demonstrating how the cerebrum changes. As the color changes to blue, the ratio of gray matter to white matter changes. The caption for the video describes it as less gray matter, which is another way of saying more white matter. If the brain does not finish developing until approximately 20 years of age, can teenagers be held responsible for behaving badly?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/basalnuclei1) to learn about the basal nuclei (also known as the basal ganglia), which have two pathways that process information within the cerebrum. As shown in this video, the direct pathway is the shorter pathway through the system that results in increased activity in the cerebral cortex and increased motor activity. The direct pathway is described as resulting in disinhibition of the thalamus. What does disinhibition mean? What are the two neurons doing individually to cause this?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/basalnuclei2) to learn about the basal nuclei (also known as the basal ganglia), which have two pathways that process information within the cerebrum. As shown in this video, the indirect pathway is the longer pathway through the system that results in decreased activity in the cerebral cortex, and therefore less motor activity. The indirect pathway has an extra couple of connections in it, including disinhibition of the subthalamic nucleus. What is the end result on the thalamus, and therefore on movement initiated by the cerebral cortex?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/graymatter) to learn about the gray matter of the spinal cord that receives input from fibers of the dorsal (posterior) root and sends information out through the fibers of the ventral (anterior) root. As discussed in this video, these connections represent the interactions of the CNS with peripheral structures for both sensory and motor functions. The cervical and lumbar spinal cords have enlargements as a result of larger populations of neurons. What are these enlargements responsible for?Compared with the nearest evolutionary relative, the chimpanzee, the human has a brain that is huge. At a point in the past, a common ancestor gave rise to the two species of humans and chimpanzees. That evolutionary history is long and is still an area of intense study. But something happened to increase the size of the human brain relative to the chimpanzee. Read this article (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/hugebrain) in which the author explores the current understanding of why this happened. According to one hypothesis about the expansion of brain size, what tissue might have been sacrificed so energy was available to grow our larger brain? Based on what you know about that tissue and nervous tissue, why would there be a trade-off between them in terms of energy use?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/bloodflow1) to see how blood flows to the brain and passes through the circle ofWillis before being distributed through the cerebrum. The circle of Willis is a specialized arrangement of arteries that ensure constant perfusion of the cerebrum even in the event of a blockage of one of the arteries in the circle. The animation shows the normal direction of flow through the circle of Willis to the middle cerebral artery. Where would the blood come from if there were a blockage just posterior to the middle cerebral artery on the left?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/lumbarpuncture) that describes the procedure known as the lumbar puncture, a medical procedure used to sample the CSF. Because of the anatomy of the CNS, it is a relative safe location to insert a needle. Why is the lumbar puncture performed in the lower lumbar area of the vertebral column?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/CSFflow) that shows the flow of CSF through the brain and spinal cord, and how it originates from the ventricles and then spreads into the space within the meninges, where the fluids then move into the venous sinuses to return to the cardiovascular circulation. What are the structures that produce CSF and where are they found? How are the structures indicated in this animation?Figure 13.20 If you zoom in on the DRG, you can see smaller satellite glial cells surrounding the large cell bodies of the sensory neurons. From what structure do satellite cells derive during embryologic development? Figure 14.9 Cochlea and Organ of Corti LM Ă— 412. (Micrograph provided by the Regents of University of Michigan Medical School Â© 2012)Figure 13.22 To what structures in a skeletal muscle are the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium comparable? Figure 13.22 Close-Up of Nerve Trunk Zoom in on this slide of a nerve trunk to examine the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium in greater detail (tissue source: simian). LM Ă— 1600. (Micrograph provided by the Regents of University of Michigan Medical School Â© 2012)Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/NYTmeningitis) to read about a man who wakes with a headache and a loss of vision. His regular doctor sent him to an ophthalmologist to address the vision loss. The ophthalmologist recognizes a greater problem and immediately sends him to the emergency room. Once there, the patient undergoes a large battery of tests, but a definite cause cannot be found. A specialist recognizes the problem as meningitis, but the question is what caused it originally. How can that be cured? The loss of vision comes from swelling around the optic nerve, which probably presented as a bulge on the inside of the eye. Why is swelling related to meningitis going to push on the optic nerve?Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm? digestive respiratory integumentary urinary Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage? prosencephalon mesencephalon diencephalon rhombencephalon Which adult structure(s) arises from the diencephalon? thalamus, hypothalamus, retina midbrain, pons, medulla pons and cerebellum cerebmm Which non-nervous tissue develops from the neuroectoderm? respiratory mucosa vertebral bone digestive lining craniofacial bone Which structure is associated with the embryologic development of the peripheral nervous system? neural crest neuraxis rhombencephalon neural tube Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for generating motor commands? temporal parietal occipital frontal What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis? thalamus epithalamus hypothalamus subthalamus What level of the brain stem is the major input to the cerebellum? midbrain pons medulla spinal cord What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles? anterior hom posterior horn lateral horn alar plate Brodmanns areas map different regions of the ________ to particular functions. cerebellum cerebral cortex basal forebrain corpus callosum What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood? common carotid artery jugular vein internal carotid artery aorta Which layer of the meninges surrounds and supports tine sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS? dura mater arachnoid mater subarachnoid pia mater What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus? ependymal cell astrocyte oligodendrocyte Schwann cell Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon? lateral ventricles third ventricle cerebral aqueduct fourth ventricle What condition causes a stroke? inflammation of meninges lumbar puncture infection of cerebral spinal fluid disruption of blood to the brain What type of ganglion contains neurons that control homeostatic mechanisms of the body? sensory ganglion dorsal root ganglion autonomic ganglion cranial nerve ganglion Which ganglion is responsible for cutaneous sensations of the face? otic ganglion vestibuiai ganglion geniculate ganglion trigeminal ganglion What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve? fascicle tract nerve root epineuiinm Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck? olfactory trochlear glossopharyngeal vagus Which of these structures is not under direct control of the peripheral nervous system? trigeminal ganglion gastric plexus sympathetic chain ganglia cervical plexus Studying the embryonic development of the nervous system makes it easier to understand the complexity of the adult nervous system. Give one example of how development in the embryonic nervous system explains a more complex structure in the adult nervous system.What happens in development that suggests that there is a special relationship between the skeletal structure of the head and the nervous system?Damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses of function. What functions would likely be lost by a stroke in the temporal lobe?Why do the anatomical inputs to the cerebellum suggest that it can compare motor commands and sensory feedback?Why can the circle of Willis maintain perfusion of the brain even if there is a blockage in one part of the structure?Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges that can have severe effects on neurological function. Why is infection of this structure potentially so dangerous?Why are ganglia and nerves not surrounded by protective structures like the meninges of the CNS?Testing for neurological function involves a series of tests of functions associated with the cranial nerves. What functions, and therefore which nerves, are being tested by asking a patient to follow the tip of a pen with their eyes?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/DanielleReed) to learn about Dr. Danielle Reed of the Monell Chemical Senses Center in Philadelphia, PA, who became interested in science at an early age because of her sensory experiences. She recognized that her sense of taste was unique compared with other people she knew. Now, she studies the genetic differences between people and their sensitivities to taste stimuli. In the video, there is a brief image of a person sticking out their tongue, which has been covered with a colored dye. This is how Dr. Reed is able to visualize and count papillae on the surface of the tongue. People fall into two large groups known as tasters and non-tasters on the basis of the density of papillae on their tongue, which also indicates the number of taste buds. Non-tasters can taste food, but they are not as sensitive to certain tastes, such as bitterness. Dr. Reed discovered that she is a non-taster, which explains why she perceived bitterness differently than other people she knew. Are you very sensitive to tastes? Can you see any similarities among the members of your family?Figure 14.9 The basilar membrane is the thin membrane that extends from the central core of the cochlea to the edge. What is anchored to this membrane so that they can be activated by movement of the fluids within the cochlea? Figure 14.9 Cochlea and Organ of Corti LM Ă— 412. (Micrograph provided by the Regents of University of Michigan Medical School Â© 2012)Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/ear1) to learn more about how the structures of the ear convert sound waves into a neural signal by moving the hairs, or stereocilia, of the cochlear duct. Specific locations along the length of the duct encode specific frequencies, or pitches. The brain interprets the meaning of the sounds we hear as music, speech, noise, etc. Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/ear2) to learn more about the inner ear and to see the cochlea unroll, with the base at the back of the image and the apex at the front. Specific wavelengths of sound cause specific regions of the basilar membrane to vibrate, much like the keys of a piano produce sound at different frequencies. Based on the animation, where do frequencies–from high to low pitches–cause activity in the hair cells within the cochlear duct?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/occipital) to learn more about a transverse section through the brain that depicts the visual pathway from the eye to the occipital cortex. The first half of the pathway is the projection from the RGCs through the optic nerve to the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus on either side. This first fiber in the pathway synapses on a thalamic cell that then projects to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe where seeing, or visual perception, takes place. This video gives an abbreviated overview of the visual system by concentrating on the pathway from the eyes to the occipital lobe. The video makes the statement (at 0:45) that specialized cells in the retina called ganglion cells convert the light rays into electrical signals. What aspect of retinal processing is simplified by that statement? Explain your answer.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/l_3-D1) to learn more about how the brain perceives 3-D motion. Similar to how retinal disparity offers 3-D moviegoers a way to extract 3-D information from the two-dimensional visual field projected onto the retina, the brain can extract information about movement in space by comparing what the two eyes see. If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. If both eyes see an object moving in the same direction, but at different rates, what would that mean for spatial movement?The inability to recognize people by their faces is a troublesome problem. It can be caused by trauma, or it may be inborn. Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/faces) to learn more about a person who lost the ability to recognize faces as the result of an injury. She cannot recognize the faces of close family members or herself. What other information can a person suffering from prosopagnosia use to figure out whom they are seeing?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/motorpathway) to learn more about the descending motor pathway for the somatic nervous system. The autonomic connections are mentioned, which are covered in another chapter. From this brief video, only some of the descending motor pathway of the somatic nervous system is described. Which division of the pathway is described and which division is left out?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/NYTmotor) to read about an elderly woman who starts to lose the ability to control fine movements, such as speech and the movement of limbs. Many of the usual causes were ruled out. It was not a stroke, Parkinsons disease, diabetes, or thyroid dysfunction. The next most obvious cause was medication, so her pharmacist had to be consulted. The side effect of a drug meant to help her sleep had resulted in changes in motor control. What regions of the nervous system are likely to be the focus of haloperidol side effects?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/reflexarc) to learn more about the reflex arc of the corneal reflex. When the right cornea senses a tactile stimulus, what happens to the left eye? Explain your answer.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/newreflex) to learn more about newborn reflexes. Newborns have a set of reflexes that are expected to have been crucial to survival before the modern age. These reflexes disappear as the baby grows, as some of them may be unnecessary as they age. The video demonstrates a reflex called the Babinski reflex, in which the foot flexes dorsally and the toes splay out when the sole of the foot is lightly scratched. This is normal for newborns, but it is a sign of reduced myelination of the spinal tract in adults. Why would this reflex be a problem for an adult?What type of receptor cell is responsible for transducing pain stimuli? mechanoreceptor nociceptor osmoreceptor photoreceptor Which of these cranial nerves is part of the gustatory system? olfactory trochlear trigeminal d. facial Which submodality of taste is sensitive to the pH of saliva? umami sour bitter sweet Axons from which neuron in the retina make up the optic nerve? amacrine cells photoreceptors bipolar cells retinal ganglion cells What type of receptor cell is involved in the sensations of sound and balance? photoreceptor chemo re cep tor mechanoreceptor nociceptor Which of these sensory modalities does not pass through the ventral posterior thalamus? gustatoiy proprioception audition nociception Which nucleus in the medulla is connected to the inferior colliculus? solitary nucleus vestibular nucleus chief sensory nucleus cochlear nucleus Visual stimuli in the upper-left visual field will be processed in what region of the primary visual cortex? inferior right inferior left superior right superior left Which location on the body has the largest region of somatosensory cortex representing it, according to the sensory homunculus? lips thigh elbow neck

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