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All Textbook Solutions for Anatomy & Physiology

Why do we have natural antibodies? We dont know why. immunity to environmental bacteria immunity to transplants from clonal selection Which type of cancer is associated with HIV disease? Kaposis sarcoma melanoma lymphoma renal cell carcinoma How does cyclosporine A work? suppresses antibodies suppresses T cells suppresses macrophages suppresses neutrophils What disease is associated with bone marrow transplants? diabetes mellitus type 1 melanoma headache graft-versus-host disease Describe the flow of lymph from its origins in interstitial fluid to its emptying into the venous bloodstream.Describe the process of inflammation in an area that has been traumatized, but not infected.Describe two early induced responses and what pathogens they affect.Describe the processing and presentation of an intracellular antigen.Describe clonal selection and expansion.Describe how secondary B cell responses are developed.Describe the role of IgM in immunity.Describe how seroconversion works in HIV disease.Describe tuberculosis and the innocent bystander effect.Describe anaphylactic shock in someone sensitive to peanuts?Describe rheumatic fever and how Tolerance is broken.Describe how stress affects immune responses.Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/asthma) to learn more about what happens during an asthma attack. What are the three changes that occur inside the airways during an asthma attack?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/spirometers) to learn more about lung volumes and spirometers. Explain how spirometry test results can be used to diagnose respiratory diseases or determine the effectiveness of disease treatment.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/oxyblood) to see the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. Why is oxygenated blood bright red, whereas deoxygenated blood tends to be more of a purple color?Which of the following anatomical structures is not part of the conducting zone? pharynx nasal cavity alveoli bronchi What is the function of the conchae in the nasal cavity? increase surface area exchange gases maintain surface tension maintain air pressure The fauces connects which of the following structures to the oropharynx? nasopharynx laryngopharynx nasal cavity oral cavity Which of the following are structural features of the trachea? C-shaped cartilage smooth muscle fibers cilia all of the above Which of the following structures is not part of the bronchial tree? alveoli bronchi terminal bronchioles respiratory bronchioles What is the role of alveolar macrophages? to secrete pulmonaty surf actant to secrete antimicrobial proteins to remove pathogens and debris to facilitate gas exchange Which of the following structures separates the lung into lobes? mediastinum fissure root pleura A section of the lung that receives its own tertiary bronchus is called the ________. bronchopulmonary segment pulmonary lob tile interpulmonary segment respiratory segment The ________ circulation picks up oxygen for cellular use and drops off carbon dioxide for removal from the body. pulmonary interlobular respiratory bronchial The pleura that surrounds the lungs consists of two layers, the ________. visceral and parietal pleurae. mediastinum and parietal pleurae. visceral and mediastinum pleurae. none of the above Which of the following processes does atmospheric pressure play a role in? pulmonary ventilation production of pulmonaiy surfactant resistance surface tension A decrease in volume leads to a(n) ________ pressure. decrease in equalization of increase in zero The pressure difference between the intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressures is called ________. atmospheric pressure pulmonary pressure negative pressure trans pulmonary pressure Gas flow decreases as ________ increases. resistance pressure airway diameter friction Contraction of the external intercostal muscles causes which of the following to occur? The diaphragm moves downward. The rib cage is compressed. The thoracic cavity volume decreases. The ribs and sternum move upward.Which of the following prevents the alveoli from collapsing? residual volume tidal volume expiratory reserve volume inspiratory reserve volume Gas moves from an area of ________ partial pressure to an area of ________ partial pressure. low; high low; low high; high high; low When ventilation is not sufficient, which of the following occurs? The capillary constricts. The capillary dilates. The partial pressure of oxygen in the affected alveolus increases. The bronchioles dilate.Gas exchange that occurs at the level of the tissues is called ________. external respiration inteipulmonarv respiration internal respiiation pulmonary ventilation The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 45 mm Hg in the blood and 40 mm Hg in the alveoli. What happens to the carbon dioxide? It diffuses into the blood. It diffuses into the alveoli. The gradient is too small for carbon dioxide to diffuse. It decomposes into carbon and oxygen.Oxyhemoglobin forms by a chemical reaction between which of the following? hemoglobin and carbon dioxide carbonic anhydrase and carbon dioxide hemoglobin and oxygen carbonic anhydrase and oxygen Which of the following factors play a role in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation, dissociation curve? temperature pH BPG all of the above Which of the following occurs during the chloride shift? Chloride is removed from the erythrocyte. Chlor ide is exchanged for bicarbonate. Bicarbonate is removed from the erythrocyte. Bicarbonate is removed fr om the blood.A low partial pressure of oxygen promotes hemoglobin binding to carbon dioxide. This is an example of the ________. Haldane effect Bohr effect Daltons law Henrys law Increased ventilation that results in an increase in blood pH is called ________. hyperventilation hyperpnea acclimatization apnea Exercise can trigger symptoms of AMS due to which of the following? low partial pressure of oxygen low atmospheric pressure abnormal neural signals small venous reserve of oxygen Which of the following stimulates the production of erythrocytes? AMS high blood levels of carbon dioxide low atmospheric pressure erythropoietin The olfactory pits form from which of the following? mesoderm cartilage ectoderm endoderm A full complement of mature alveoli are present by ________. early childhood, around 8 years of age birth 37 weeks 16 weeks If a baby is bom prematurely before type II cells produce sufficient pulmonary surfactant, which of the following might you expect? difficulty expressing fluid difficulty inflating the lungs difficulty with pulmonary capillary flow no difficulty as type I cells can provide enough surfactant for normal breathing When do fetal breathing movements begin? around week 20 around week 37 around week 16 after birth What happens to the fluid that remains in the lungs after birth? It reduces the surface tension of the alveoli. It is expelled shortly after birth. It is absorbed shortly after birth. It lubricates the pleurae.Describe the three regions of the pharynx and their functions.If a person sustains an injury to the epiglottis, what would be the physiological result?Compare and contrast the conducting and respiratory zones.Compare and contrast the right and left lungs.Why are the pleurae not damaged during normal breathing?Describe what is meant by the term lung compliance.Outline the steps involved in quiet breathing.What is respiratory rate and how is it controlled?Compare and contrast Daltons law and Henrys law.A smoker develops damage to several alveoli that then can no longer function. How does this affect gas exchange?Compare and contrast adult hemoglobin and fetal hemoglobin.Describe the relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.Describe three ways in which carbon dioxide can be transported.Describe the neural factors involved in increasing ventilation during exercise.What is the major mechanism that results in acclimatization?Dining what timeframe does a fetus have enough mature structures to breathe on its own if born prematurely? Describe the other structures that develop during this phase.Describe fetal breathing movements and their purpose.By clicking on this link (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/fooddigestion) , you can watch a short video of what happens to the food you eat as it passes from your mouth to your intestine. Along the way, note how the food changes consistency and form. How does this change in consistency facilitate your gaining nutrients from food?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/fooddigestion2) for an overview of digestion of food in different regions of the digestive tract. Note the route of non-fat nutrients from the small intestine to their release as nutrients to the body.Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/swallowing) to see how swallowing is a complex process that involves the nervous system to coordinate the actions of upper respiratory and digestive activities. During which stage of swallowing is there a risk of food entering respiratory pathways and how is this risk blocked?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/stomach1) that depicts the structure of the stomach and how this structure functions in the initiation of protein digestion. This view of the stomach shows the characteristic rugae. What is the function of these rugae?Watch this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/sintestine) that depicts the structure of the small intestine, and, in particular, the villi. Epithelial cells continue the digestion and absorption of nutrients and transport these nutrients to the lymphatic and circulatory systems. In the small intestine, the products of food digestion are absorbed by different structures in the villi. Which structure absorbs and transports fats?By watching this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/foodgroups) , you will see that for the various food groups—proteins, fats, and carbohydrates—digestion begins in different parts of the digestion system, though all end in the same place. Of the three major food classes (carbohydrates, fats, and proteins), which is digested in the mouth, the stomach, and the small intestine?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/liver) to see the structure of the liver and how this structure supports the functions of the liver, including the processing of nutrients, toxins, and wastes. At rest, about 1500 mL of blood per minute flow through the liver. What percentage of this blood flow comes from the hepatic portal system?Which of these organs is not considered an accessory digestive structure? mouth salivary glands pancreas liver Which of the following organs is supported by a layer of adventitia rather than serosa? esophagus stomach small intestine large intestine Which of the following membranes covers the stomach? falcifoim ligament mesocolon parietal peritoneum visceral peritoneum Which of these processes occurs in the mouth? ingestion mechanical digestion chemical digestion all of the above Which of these processes occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal? ingestion propulsion segmentation absorption Which of the following stimuli activates sensors in the walls of digestive organs? breakdown products of digestion distension pH of chyme all of the above Which of these statements about reflexes in the GI tract is false? Short reflexes are provoked by nerves near the GI tract. Short reflexes are mediated by the enteric nervous system. Food that distends the stomach initiates long reflexes. Long reflexes can be provoked by stimuli originating outside the GI tract.Which of these ingredients in saliva is responsible for activating salivary amylase? mucus phosphate ions chloride ions urea Which of these statements about the pharynx is tine? It extends horn the nasal and oral cavities superiorly to the esophagus anteriorly. The oropharynx is continuous superiorly with the nasopharynx. The nasopharynx is involved in digestion. The laryngopharynx is composed partially of cartilage.Which structure is located where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm? esophageal hiatus cardiac orifice upper esophageal sphincter lower esophageal sphincter Which phase of deglutition involves contraction of the longitudinal muscle layer of the muscularis? voluntary phase buccal phase pharyngeal phase esophageal phase Which of these cells secrete hormones? parietal cells mucous neck cells enteroendocrine cells chief cells Where does the majority of chemical digestion in the stomach occur? fundus and body cardia and fundus body and pyloins body During gastric emptying, chyme is released into the duodenum through the ________. esophageal hiatus pyloric antrum pyloric canal pyloric sphincter Parietal cells secrete ________. gastrin hydrochloric acid pepsin pepsinogen In which pail of the alimentary canal does most digestion occur? stomach proximal small intestine distal small intestine ascending colon Which of these is most associated with villi? haustra lacteals bacterial flora intestinal glands What is the roLe of the small intestines MALT? secreting mucus buffering acidic chyme activating pepsin preventing bacteria from entering the bloodstream Which part of the large intestine attaches to the appendix? cecum ascending colon transverse colon descending colon Which of these statements about bile is true? About 500 mL is secreted daily. Its main function is the denaturation of proteins. It is synthesized in the gallbladder. Bile salts are recycled.Pancreatic juice ________. deactivates bile. is secreted by pancreatic islet cells buffers chyme. is released into the cystic duct.Where does the chemical digestion of starch begin? mouth esophagus stomach small intestine Which of these is involved in the chemical digestion of protein? pancreatic amylase trypsin sucrase pancreatic nuclease Where are most fat-digesting enzymes produced? small intestine gallbladder liver pancreas Which of these nutrients is absorbed mainly in the duodenum? glucose iron sodium water Explain how the enteric nervous system supports the digestive system. What might occur that could result in the autonomic nervous system having a negative impact on digestion?What layer of the alimentary canal tissue is capable of helping to protect the body against disease, and through what mechanism?Offer a theory to explain why segmentation occurs and peristalsis slows in the small intestine.It has been several hours since you last ate. Walking past a bakery, you catch a whiff of freshly baked bread. What type of reflex is triggered, and what is the result?The composition of saliva varies from gland to gland. Discuss how saliva produced by the parotid gland differs in action from saliva produced by the sublingual gland.During a hockey game, the puck hits a player in the mouth, knocking out all eight of his most anterior teeth. Which teeth did the player lose and how does this loss affect food ingestion?What prevents swallowed food from entering the airways?Explain the mechanism responsible for gastroesophageal reflux.Describe the three processes involved in the esophageal phase of deglutition.Explain how the stomach is protected from self digestion and why this is necessary.Describe unique anatomical features that enable the stomach to perform digestive functions.Explain how nutrients absorbed in the small intestine pass into the general circulation.Why is it important that chyme from the stomach is delivered to the small intestine slowly and in small amounts?Describe three of the differences between the walls of the large and small intestines.Why does the pancreas secrete some enzymes in their inactive forms, and where are these enzymes activated?Describe the location of hepatocytes in the liver and how this arrangement enhances their function.Explain the role of bile salts and lecithin in the emulsification of lipids (fats).How is vitamin B12 absorbed?A monosaccharide is formed from a polysaccharide in what kind of reaction? oxidation-reduction reaction anabolic reaction catabolic reaction biosynthetic reaction If anabolic reactions exceed catabolic reactions, the result will be ________. weight loss weight gain metabolic rate change development of disease When NAD becomes NADH, the coenzyme has been ________. reduced oxidized metabolized hydrolyzed Anabolic reactions use energy by ________. turning ADP into ATP removing a phosphate group from ATP producing heat breaking down molecules into smaller parts Glycolysis results in the production of two ________ molecules from a single molecule of glucose. In the absence of ________, the end product of glycolysis is ________. acetyl CoA, pyruvate, lactate ATP, carbon, pyruvate pyruvate, oxygen, lactate pyruvate, carbon, acetyl CoA The Krebs cycle converts ________ through a cycle of reactions. In the process, ATP, ________, and ________ are produced. acetyl CoA; FAD, NAD acetyl CoA; FADH2; NADH pyruvate; NAD; FADH2 pyruvate; oxygen; oxaloacetate Which pathway produces the most ATP molecules? lactic acid fermentation the Krebs cycle the electron transport chain glycolysis Aerobic cellular respiration results in the production of these two products. NADH and FADH2? ATP and pyruvate ATP and glucose ATP and H2O When NAD+ becomes NADH, the coenzyme has been ________. reduced oxidized metabolized hydrolyzed Lipids in the diet can be ________. broken down into energy for the body stored as triglycerides for later use converted into acetyl CoA all of the above The gallbladder provides ________ that aid(s) in transport of lipids across the intestinal membrane. lipases cholesterol proteins bile salts Triglycerides are transported by chylomicrons because ________. they cannot move easily in the bLood stream because they are fat based, while the blood is water based they are too small to move by themselves the chylomicrons contain enzymes they need for anabolism they cannot fit across the intestinal membrane Which molecule produces the most ATP? carbohydrates FADH2 triglycerides NADH Which molecules can enter the Krebs cycle? chylomicrons acetyl CoA mono glycerides ketone bodies Acetyl CoA can be converted to all of the following except ________. ketone bodies fatty acids polysaccharides triglycerides Digestion of proteins begins in the ________ where ________ and ________ mix with food to break down protein into ________. stomach; amylase; HCl; amino acids mouth; pepsin; HCl; fatty acids stomach; lipase; HCl; amino acids stomach; pepsin; HCl; amino acids Amino acids are needed to ________. build new proteins seive as fat stores supply energy for the cell create red blood cells If an amino acid is not used to create new proteins, it can be ________. converted to acetyl CoA converted to glucose or ketones converted to nitrogen stored to be used later During the absorptive state, glucose levels are ________, insulin levels are ________, and glucagon levels ________. a. high; low; stay the same b. low; low; stay the same c. high; high; are high d. high; high; are low Staivation sets in after 3 to 4 days without food. Which hormones change in response to low glucose levels? glucagon and insulin ketones and glucagon insulin, glucose, and glucagon insulin and ketones The postabsorptive state relies on stores of ________ in the ________. insulin; pancreas glue ago n; p ancre as glycogen; liver glucose; liver The bodys temperature is controlled by the ________. This temperature is always kept between ________. pituitary; 36.5-37.5°C hypothalamus; 97.7-99.5°F hypothalamus; 36.5-37.5°F pituitary; 97.7-99.5°F Fever increases the body temperature and can induce chills to help cool the temperature back down. What other mechanisms are in place to regulate the body temperature? shivering sweating erection of the hairs on the arms and legs all of the above The heat you feel on your chair when you stand up was transferred from your skin via ________. conduction convection radiation evaporation A crowded room warms up through the mechanism of ________. a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. evaporation A deficiency in vitamin A can result in ________. improper bone development scurvy improper eye development or sight all of the above Rickets results in improper bone development in children that arises from the malabsorption of calcium and a deficiency in ________. vitamin D vitamin C vitamin B12 niacin Consuming which type of food will help the most with weight loss? fats vegetables lean meats fruits Which of the following is stored in the body? thiamine phosphorous folic acid vitamin C Describe how metabolism can be altered.Describe how Addisons disease can be treated.Explain how glucose is metabolized to yield ATP.Insulin is released when food is ingested and stimulates the uptake of glucose into the cell. Discuss tine mechanism cells employ to create a concentration gradient to ensure continual uptake of glucose from the bloodstream.Discuss how carbohydrates can be stored as fat.If a diabetics breath smeLls like alcohol, what could this mean?Amino acids are not stored in the body. Describe how excess amino acids are processed in the cell.Release of trypsin and chymotrypsin in their active form can result in the digestion of the pancreas or small intestine itself. What mechanism does the body employ to prevent its self-destruction?In type II diabetes, insulin is produced but is nonfunctional. These patients are described as starving in a sea of plenty, because their blood glucose levels are high, but none of die glucose is transported into the cells. Describe how this leads to malnutrition.Ketone bodies are used as an alternative source of fuel during starvation. Describe how ketones are synthesized.How does vasoconstriction help increase the core temperature of the body?How can the ingestion of food increase the body temperature?Weight loss and weight gain are complex processes. What are some of the main factors that influence weight gain in people?Some low-fat or non-fat foods contain a large amount of sugar to replace the fat content of the food. Discuss how this leads to increased fat in the body (and weight gain) even though the item is non-fat.Diabetes insipidus or diabetes mellitus would most likely be indicated by ________. anuria polyuria oliguria none of the above The color of urine is determined mainly by ________. diet filtration rate byproducts of red blood cell breakdown filtration efficiency Production of less than 50 mL/day of urine is called ________. normal polyuria oliguria anuria Peristaltic contractions occur in the ________. urethra bladder ureters urethra, bladder and ureters Somatic motor neurons must be ________ to relax the external urethral sphincter to allow urination. stimulated inhibited Which pan of the urinaiy system is not completely retroperitoneal? kidneys ureters bladder nephrons The renal pyramids are separated from each other by extensions of the renal cortex called ________. renal medulla minor calyces medullary coitices renal columns The primary structure found within the medulla is the ________. loop of Henle minor calyces portal system ureter The right kidney is slightly lower because ________. it is displaced by the liver it is displace by the heart it is slightly smaller it needs protection of the lower ribs Blood filtrate is captured in the lumen of the ________. glomerulus Bowmans capsule calyces renal papillae What are the names of the capillaries following the efferent arteriole? arcuate and medullary interlobar and interlobular peritubular and vasa recta peritubular and medullary The functional unit of the kidney is called ________. the renal hilus the renal corpuscle the nephron Bowmans capsule ________ pressure must be greater on the capillary side of the filtration membrane to achieve filtration. Osmotic Hydrostatic Production of urine to modify plasma makeup is the result of ________. filtration absorption secretion filtration, absorption, and secretion Systemic blood pressure must stay above 60 so that the proper amount of filtration occurs. true false Aquaporin channels are only found in the collecting duct. true false Most absorption and secretion occurs in this part of the nephron. proximal convoluted tubule descending loop of Henle ascending loop of Henle distal convoluted tubule collecting ducts The fine tuning of water recovery or disposal occurs in ________. a. the proximal convoluted tubule b. the collecting ducts c. the ascending loop of Henle d. the distal convoluted tubule Vasodilation of blood vessels to the kidneys is due to ________. more frequent action potentials less frequent action potentials When blood pressure increases, blood vessels supplying the kidney will ________ to mount a steady rate of filtration. contract relax Which of these three paracrine chemicals cause vasodilation? ATP adenosine nitric oxide What hormone directly opposes the actions of natriuretic hormones? renin nitric oxide dopamine aldosterone Which of these is a vasoconstrictor? nitric oxide natriuretic hormone brady kinin angiotensin II What signal causes the heart to secrete atrial natriuretic hormone? increased blood pressure decreased blood pressure increased Na+ levels decreased Na+levels Which of these beverages does not have a diuretic effect? tea coffee alcohol milk Progesterone can bind to receptors for which hormone that, when released, activates water retention? aldosterone ADH PTH ANH Renin is released in response to ________. increased blood pressure decreased blood pressure ACE diuretics Which step in vitamin D production does the kidney perform? converts cholecalciferol into calcidiol converts calcidiol into calcitriol stores vitamin D none of these Which hormone does the kidney produce that stimulates red blood cell production? thrombopoeitin vitamin D EPO renin If there were no aquaporin channels in the collecting duct, ________. you would develop systemic edema you would retain excess Na+ you would lose vitamins and electrolytes you would suffer severe dehydration What is suggested by the presence of white blood cells found in the urine?Both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus produce large urine volumes, but how would other characteristics of the urine differ between the two diseases?Why are females more likely to contract bladder infections than males?Describe how forceful urination is accomplished.What anatomical structures provide protection to the kidney?How does the renal poital system differ from the hypothalamo-hypophyseal and digestive poital systems?Name the structures found in the renal hilum.Which structures make up the renal corpuscle?What are the major structures comprising the filtration membrane?Give the formula for net filtration pressure.Name at least five symptoms of kidney failure.Which vessels and what pail of the nephron are involved in countercurrent multiplication?Give the approximate osmolarity of fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule, deepest part of the loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and the collecting ducts.Explain what happens to Na+ concentration in the nephron when GFR increases.If you want the kidney to excrete more Na+ in the urine, what do you want the blood flow to do?What organs produce which hormones or enzymes in the renin-angiotensin system?PTH affects absorption and reabsorption of what?Why is ADH also called vasopressin?How can glucose be a diuretic?How does lack of protein in the blood cause edema?Which three electrolytes are most closely regulated by the kidney?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/bodyfluids) to learn more about body fluids, fluid compartments, and electrolytes. When blood volume decreases due to sweating, from what source is water taken in by the blood?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/dynamicfluid) to see an explanation of the dynamics of fluid in the bodys compartments. What happens in tissues when capillary blood pressure is less than osmotic pressure?Read this article (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/saltwater) for an explanation of the effect of seawater on humans. What effect does drinking seawater have on the body?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/altitude) to see a demonstration of the effect altitude has on blood pH. What effect does high altitude have on blood pH, and why?Solute contributes to the movement of water between cells and the surrounding medium by ________. osmotic pressure hydrostatic pressure Brownian movement random motion A cation has a(n) ________ charge. neutral positive alternating negative Interstitial fluid (IF) is ________. the fluid in the cytosol of the cells the fluid component of blood the fluid that bathes all of the bodys cells except for blood cells the intracellular fluids found between membranes The largest amount of water comes into the body via ________. a. metabolism b. foods c. liquids d. humidified air The largest amount of water leaves the body via ________. a. the GI tract b. the skin as sweat c. expiration d. urine Insensible water loss is water lost via ________. skin evaporation and in air from the lungs urine excessive sweating vomiting or diarrhea How soon after drinking a large glass of water will a person start increasing their urine output? 5 minutes 30 minutes 1 hour 3 hours Bone serves as a mineral reserve for which two ions? sodium and potassium calcium and phosphate chloride and bicarbonate calcium and bicarbonate Electrolytes are lost mostly through ________. renal function sweating feces respiration The major cation in extracellular fluid is ________. sodium potassium chloride bicarbonate The major cation in intracellular fluid is ________. sodium potassium chloride bicarbonate The major anion in extracellular fluid is ________. sodium potassium chloride bicarbonate Most of the bodys calcium is found in ________. teeth bone plasma extracellular fluids Abnormally increased blood levels of sodium are termed ________. hyperkalemia hyperchloremia hypernatremia hypercalcemia The ion with the lowest blood level is ________. sodium potassium chloride bicarbonate Which two ions are most affected by aldosterone? sodium and potassium chloride and bicarbonate calcium and phosphate sodium and phosphate Which of the following is the most important buffer inside red blood cells? plasma proteins hemoglobin phosphate buffers bicarbonate: carbonic acid buffer Which explanation best describes why plasma proteins can function as buffers? Plasma proteins combine with bicarbonate to make a stronger buffer. Plasma proteins are immune to damage horn acids. Proteins have both positive and negative charges on their surface. Proteins are alkaline.The buffer that is adjusted to control acid-base balance is ________. plasma protein hemoglobin phosphate buffer bicarbonate: carbonic acid buffer Carbonic acid levels are controlled through the ________. a. respiratory system b. renal system c. digestive system d. metabolic rate of cells Bicarbonate ion concentrations in the blood are controlled through the ________. respiratory system renal system digestive system metabolic rate of cells Which reaction is catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase? a. HPO42+H+H2PO4 b. CO2+H2OH2CO3 c. H2PO4+OHPHO42+H2O d. H2CO3HCO3+H+Which of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis? excessive HCl loss increased aldosterone diarrhea prolonged use of diuretics Which of the following is a cause of respiratory acidosis? emphysema low blood K+ increased aldosterone increased blood ketones At a pH of 7.40, the carbonic acid ratio is ________. a. 35:1 b. 4:1 c. 20:1 d. 3:1 Which of the following is characterized as metabolic alkalosis? a. increased pH, decreased pCO2, decreased HCO3 b. increased pH, increased pCO2, increased HCO3 c. decreased pH, decreased pCO2, decreased HCO3 d. decreased pH, increased pCO2, increased HCO3 Plasma contains more sodium than chloride. How can this be if individual ions of sodium and chloride exactly balance each other out, and plasma is electrically neutral?How is fluid moved from compartment to compartment?Describe the effect of ADH on renal collecting tubules.Why is it important for the amount of water intake to equal the amount of water output?Explain how the CO2 generated by cells and exhaled in the lungs is carried as bicarbonate in the blood.How can one have an imbalance in a substance, but not actually have elevated or deficient levels of that substance in the body?Describe the conservation of bicarbonate ions in the renal system.Describe the control of blood carbonic acid levels through the respiratory system.Case Study: Bob is a 64-year-old male admitted to the emergency room for asthma. His laboratory results are as follows: pH 7.31, pCO2 ? higher than normal, and total HCO3 also higher than normal. Classify his acid-base balance as acidosis or alkalosis, and as metabolic or respiratory. Is there evidence of compensation? Propose the mechanism by which asthma contributed to the lab results seen.Case Study: Kim is a 38-year-old women admitted to the hospital for bulimia. Her laboratory results are as follows: pH 7.48, pCO2 in the normal range, and total HCO3 higher than normal. Classify her acid-base balance as acidosis or alkalosis, and as metabolic or respiratory. Is there evidence of compensation? Propose the mechanism by which bulimia contributed to the lab results seen.Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/vasectomy) to learn about vasectomy. As described in this video, a vasectomy is a procedure in which a small section of the ductus (vas) deferens is removed from the scrotum. This interrupts the path taken by sperm through the ductus deferens. If sperm do not exit through the vas, either because the man has had a vasectomy or has not ejaculated, in what region of the testis do they remain?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/spermpath) to explore the structures of the male reproductive system and the path of sperm that starts in the testes and ends as the sperm leave the penis through the urethra. Where are sperm deposited after they leave the ejaculatory duct?Watch this video (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/ovulation) to observe ovulation and its initiation in response to the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland. What specialized structures help guide the oocyte from the ovary into the uterine tube?Watch this series of videos (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/oocyte) to look at the movement of the oocyte through the ovary. The cilia in the uterine tube promote movement of the oocyte. What would likely occur if the cilia were paralyzed at the time of ovulation?A babys gender is determined at conception, and the different genitalia of male and female fetuses develop from the same tissues in the embryo. View this animation (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/fetus) that compares the development of structures of the female and male reproductive systems in a growing fetus. Where are the testes located for most of gestational time?What are male gametes called? ova sperm testes testosterone Leydig cells ________. secrete testosterone activate the sperm flagellum support spermatogenesis secrete seminal fluid Which hypothalamic hormone contributes to the regulation of the male reproductive system? luteinizing hormone gonadotropin-releasing hormone follicle-stimulating hormone androgens What is the function of the epididymis? sperm maturation and storage produces the bulk of seminal fluid provides nitric oxide needed for erections spermatogenesis Spermatogenesis takes place in the ________. prostate gland glans penis seminiferous tubules ejaculatory duct What are the female gonads called? oocytes ova oviducts ovaries When do the oogonia undergo mitosis? before birth. at puberty at the beginning of each menstrual cycle during fertilization From what structure does the corpus luteum originate? uterine corpus dominant follicle fallopian tube corpus albicans Where does fertilization of the egg by the sperm typically occur? vagina uterus uterine tube ovary Why do estrogen levels fall after menopause? The ovaries degrade. There are no follicles left to produce estrogen. The pituitary secretes a menopause-specific hormone. The cells of the endometrium degenerate.The vulva includes the ____________. lactiferous duct, rugae, and hymen lactiferous duct, endometrium, and bulbourethral glands mons pubis, endometrium, and hymen mons pubis, labia majora, and Bartholins glands What controls whether an embryo will develop testes or ovaries? pituitary gland hypothalamus Y chromosome presence or absence of estrogen Without SRY expression, an embryo will develop ________. male reproductive structures female reproductive structures no reproductive structures male reproductive structures 50 percent of the time and female reproductive structures 50 percent of the time The timing of puberty can be influenced by which of the following? genes stress amount of body fat all of the above Briefly explain why mature gametes carry only one set of chromosomes.What special features are evident in sperm cells but not in somatic cells, and how do these specializations function?What do each of the three male accessory glands contribute to the semen?Describe how penile erection occurs.While anabolic steroids (synthetic testosterone) bulk up muscles, they can also affect testosterone production in the testis. Using what you know about negative feedback, describe what would happen to testosterone production in the testis if a male takes large amounts of synthetic testosterone.Follow the path of ejaculated sperm from the vagina to the oocyte. Include all structures of the female reproductive tract that the sperm must swim through to reach the egg.Identify some differences between meiosis in men and women.Explain the hormonal regulation of the phases of the menstrual cycle.Endometriosis is a disorder in which endometrial cells implant and proliferate outside of the uterus—in the uterine tubes, on the ovaries, or even in the pelvic cavity. Offer a theory as to why endometriosis increases a woman’s risk of infertility.Identify the changes in sensitivity that occur in the hypothalamus, pituitary, and gonads as a boy or girl approaches puberty. Explain how these changes lead to the increases of sex steroid hormone secretions that drive many pubertal changes.Explain how the internal female and male reproductive structures develop from two different duct systems.Explain what would occur during fetal development to an XY individual with a mutation causing a nonfunctional SRY gene.View this time-lapse movie (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/conceptus) of a conceptus starting at day 3. What is the first structure you see? At what point in the movie does the blastocoel first appear? What event occurs at the end of the movie?Visit this site (http://openstaxcollege.org/l/pregstages) for a summary of the stages of pregnancy, as experienced by the mother, and view the stages of development of the fetus throughout gestation. At what point in fetal development can a regular heartbeat be detected?Sperm and ova are similar in terms of ________. size quantity produced per year chromosome number flagellar motility Although the male ejaculate contains hundreds of millions of sperm, ________. most do not reach the oocyte most are destroyed by the alkaline environment of the uterus it takes millions to penetrate the outer layers of the oocyte most are destroyed by cap a citation As sperm first reach the oocyte, they will contact the ________. acrosome corona radiata sperm-binding receptors zona pellucida Fusion of pronuclei occurs during ________. spermatogenesis ovulation fertilization capacitation Sperm must first complete ________ to enable the fertilization of an oocyte. capacitation the aerosomal reaction the cortical reaction the fast block Cleavage produces daughter cells called ________. trophoblasts blastocysts morulae blastomeres The conceptus, upon reaching the uterus, first ________. implants divides disintegrates hatches The inner cell mass of the blastocyst is destined to become the ________. embryo trophoblast chorionic villi placenta Which primary germ layer gave rise to the cells that eventually became the central nervous system? endoderm ectoderm acrosome mesoderm What would happen if the trophoblast did not secrete hCG upon implantation of the blastocyst? Tire cells would not continue to divide. Tire corpus luteum would continue to produce progesterone and estrogen. Menses would flush the blastocyst out of the uterus. Tire uterine mucosa would not envelop the blastocyst.During what process does the amnion envelop the embryo? embryonic folding gastrulation implantation organogenesis The placenta is formed from ________. the embryos mesenchymal cells the mothers endometrium only the mothers endometrium and the embryos chorionic membrane the mothers endometrium and the embryos umbilical cord The foramen ovale causes the fetal circulatory system to bypass the ________. liver lungs kidneys gonads What happens to the urine excreted by the fetus when the kidneys begin to function? The umbilical cord caiiies it to the placenta for removal. The endometrium absorbs it. It adds to the amniotic fluid. It is turned into meconium.During weeks 9â€“12 of fetal development, ________. bone manow begins to assume erythrocyte production meconium begins to accumulate in the intestines surfactant production begins in the fetal lungs the spinal cord begins to be myelinated

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