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All Textbook Solutions for Concepts of Biology
Figure 1.8 Which of the following statements is false? A. Tissues exist within organs which exist within organ systems. B. Communities exist within populations which exist within ecosystems. C. Organelles exist within cells which exist within tissues. D. Communities exist within ecosystems which exist in the biosphere.Figure 1.18 In the example below, the scientific method is used to solve an everyday problem. Which part in the example below is the hypothesis? Which is the prediction? Based on the results of the experiment, is the hypothesis supported? If it is not supported, propose some alternative hypotheses. 1. My toaster doesn’t toast my bread. 2. Why doesn’t my toaster work? 3. There is something wrong with the electrical outlet. 4. If something is wrong with the outlet, my coffeemaker also won’t work when plugged into it. 5. I plug my coffeemaker into the outlet. 6. My coffeemaker works.The smallest unit of biological structure that meets the functional requirements of “living” is the ______. a. organ b. organelle c. cell d. macromoleculeWhich of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most complex to the least complex level? a. organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population b. organ, organism, tissue, organelle, molecule c. organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ d. biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, organismsuggested and testable explanation for an event is called a _______. a. hypothesis b. variable c. theory d. controlThe type of logical thinking that uses related observations to arrive at a general conclusion is called_______. a. deductive reasoning b. the scientific method c. hypothesis-based science d. inductive reasoningUsing examples, explain how biology can be studied from a microscopic approach to a global approach.Give an example of how applied science has had a direct effect on your daily life.Figure 2.3 How many neutrons do (K) potassium-39 and potassium-40 have, respectively?Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. Which of the following statements is true of a neutral magnesium atom? a. It has 12 protons, 12 electrons, and 12 neutrons. b. It has 12 protons, 12 electrons, and six neutrons. c. It has six protons, six electrons, and no neutrons. d. It has six protons, six electrons, and six neutrons.Which type of bond represents a weak chemical bond? a. hydrogen bond b. ionic bond c. covalent bond d. polar covalent bondAn isotope of sodium (Na) has a mass number of 22. How many neutrons does it have? a. 11 b. 12 c. 22 d. 44Which of the following statements is not true? a. Water is polar. b. Water stabilizes temperature. c. Water is essential for life. d. Water is the most abundant atom in Earth’s atmosphere.Using a pH meter, you find the pH of an unknown solution to be 8.0. How would you describe this solution? a. weakly acidic b. strongly acidic c. weakly basic d. strongly basicThe pH of lemon juice is about 2.0, whereas tomato juice’s pH is about 4.0. Approximately how much of an increase in hydrogen ion concentration is there between tomato juice and lemon juice? a. 2 times b. 10 times c. 100 times d. 1000 timesAn example of a monosaccharide is ________. a. fructose b. glucose c. galactose d. all of the aboveCellulose and starch are examples of______. a. monosaccharides b. disaccharides c. lipids d. polysaccharidesPhospholipids are important components of_______. a. the plasma membrane of cells b. the ring structure of steroids c. the waxy covering on leaves d. the double bond in hydrocarbon chainsThe monomers that make up proteins are called_____. a. nucleotides b. disaccharides c. amino acids d. chaperonesWhy are hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions necessary for cells?Why can some insects walk on water?Explain why water is an excellent solvent.Explain at least three functions that lipids serve in plants and/or animals.Explain what happens if even one amino acid is substituted for another in a polypeptide chain. Provide a specific example.Figure 3.7 What structures does a plant cell have that an animal cell does not have? What structures does an animal cell have that a plant cell does not have? Figure 3.7 This figure shows (a) a typical animal cell and (b) a typical plant cell.Figure 3.13 Why does the cis face of the Golgi not face the plasma membrane?Figure 3.22 A doctor injects a patient with what he thinks is isotonic saline solution. The patient dies, and autopsy reveals that many red blood cells have been destroyed. Do you think the solution the doctor injected was really isotonic?When viewing a specimen through a light microscope, scientists use ______ to distinguish the individual components of cells. a. a beam of electrons b. radioactive isotopes c. special stains d. high temperaturesThe ____________ is the basic unit of life. a. organism b. cell c. tissue d. organWhich of these do all prokaryotes and eukaryotes share? a. nuclear envelope b. cell walls c. organelles d. plasma membraneA typical prokaryotic cell ________ compared to a eukaryotic cell. a. is smaller in size by a factor of 100 b. is similar in size c. is smaller in size by a factor of one million d. is larger in size by a factor of 10Which of the following is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. vacuole d. ribosomeWhich of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system? a. mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. endoplasmic reticulum d. IysosomeWhich plasma membrane component can be either found on its surface or embedded in the membrane structure? a. protein b. cholesterol c. carbohydrate d. phospholipidThe tails of the phospholipids of the plasma membrane are composed of _____ and are _____? a. phosphate groups; hydrophobic b. fatty acid groups; hydrophilic c. phosphate groups; hydrophilic d. fatty acid groups; hydrophobicWater moves via osmosis _______. a. throughout the cytoplasm b. from an area with a high concentration of other solutes to a lower one c. from an area with a low concentration of solutes to an area with a higher one d. from an area with a low concentration of water to one of higher concentrationThe principal force driving movement in diffusion is______. a. temperature b. particle size c. concentration gradient d. membrane surface areaActive transport must function continuously because_______. a. plasma membranes wear out b. cells must be in constant motion c. facilitated transport opposes active transport d. diffusion is constantly moving the solutes in the other directionWhat are the advantages and disadvantages of light, transmission, and scanning electron microscopes?Describe the structures that are characteristic of a prokaryote cell.In the context of cell biology, what do we mean by form follows function? What are a least two examples of this concept?Why is it advantageous for the cell membrane to be fluid in nature?Why does osmosis occur?Where does the cell get energy for active transport processes?Figure 4.6 Look at each of the processes shown and decide if it is endergonic or exergonic.Figure 4.15 Cyanide inhibits cytochrome c oxidase, a component of the electron transport chain. If cyanide poisoning occurs, would you expect the pH of the intermembrane space to increase or decrease? What affect would cyanide have on ATP synthesis? Figure 4.15 (a) The electron transport chain is a set of molecules that supports a series of oxidation-reduction reactions. (b) ATP synthase is a complex, molecular machine that uses an H+ gradient to regenerate ATP from ADP. (c) Chemiosmosis relies on the potential energy provided by the H+ gradient across the membrane.Figure 4.16 Tremetol, a metabolic poison found in white snake root plant, prevents the metabolism of lactate. When cows eat this plant, Tremetol is concentrated in the milk. Humans who consume the milk become ill. Symptoms of this disease, which include vomiting, abdominal pain, and tremors, become worse after exercise. Why do you think this is the case?Which of the following is not an example of an energy transformation? a. Heating up dinner in a microwave b. Solar panels a work c. Formation of static electricity d. None of the aboveWhich of the following is not true about enzymes? a. They are consumed by the reactions they catalyze. b. They are usually made of amino acids. c. They lower the activation energy of chemical reactions. d. Each one is specific to the particular substrate(s) to which it binds.Energy is stored long-term in the bonds of _____ and used short-term to perform work from a(n)_____molecule. a. ATP : glucose b. an anabolic molecule : catabolic molecule c. glucose: ATP d. a catabolic molecule : anabolic moleculeThe energy currency used by cells is _____. a. ATP b. ADP c. AMP d. adenosineThe glucose that enters the glycolysis pathway is split into two molecules of _____. a. ATP b. phosphate c. NADH d. pyruvateWhat do the electrons added to NAD do? a. They become part of a fermentation pathway. b. They go to another pathway for ATP production. c. They energize the entry of the acetyl group into the citric acid cycle. d. They are converted into NADP.Chemiosmosis involves a. the movement of electrons across the cell membrane. b. the movement of hydrogen atoms across a mitochondrial membrane. c. the movement of hydrogen ions across a mitochondrial membrane. d. the movement of glucose through the cell membrane.Which of the following fermentation methods can occur in animal skeletal muscles? a. lactic acid fermentation b. alcohol fermentation c. mixed acid fermentation d. propionic fermentationThe cholesterol synthesized by cells uses which component of the glycolytic pathway as a starting point? a. glucose b. acetyl CoA c. pyruvate d. carbon dioxideBeta oxidation is ______. a. the breakdown of sugars b. the assembly of sugars c. the breakdown of fatty acids d. the removal of amino groups from amino acidsDoes physical exercise to increase muscle mass involve anabolic and/or catabolic processes? Give evidence for your answer.Explain in your own terms the difference between a spontaneous reaction and one that occurs instantaneously, and what causes this difference.With regard to enzymes, why are vitamins and minerals necessary for good health? Give examples.Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms carry out some form of glycolysis. How does ha fact support or not support the assertion that glycolysis is one of the oldest metabolic pathways?We inhale oxygen when we breathe and exhale carbon dioxide. What is the oxygen used for and where does the carbon dioxide come from?When muscle cells run out of oxygen, what happens to the potential for energy extraction from sugars and what pathways do the cell use?Would you describe metabolic pathways as inherently wasteful or inherently economical, and why?Figure 5.7 On a hot, dry day, plants close their stomata to conserve Water. What impact will this have on photosynthesis?What two products result from photosynthesis? a. water and carbon dioxide b. water and oxygen c. glucose and oxygen d. glucose and carbon dioxideWhich statement about thylakoids in eukaryotes is not correct? a. Thylakoids are assembled into stacks. b. Thylakoids exist as a maze of folded membranes. c. The space surrounding thylakoids is called stroma. d. Thylakoids contain chlorophyll.From where does a heterotroph directly obtain its energy? a. the sun b. the sun and eating other organisms c. eating other organisms d. simple chemicals in the environmentWhat is the energy of a photon first used to do in photosynthesis? a. split a water molecule b. energize an electron c. produce ATP d. synthesize glucoseWhich molecule absorbs the energy of a photon in photosynthesis? a. ATP b. glucose c. chlorophyll d. waterPlants produce oxygen when they photosynthesize. Where does the oxygen come from? a. splitting water molecules b. ATP synthesis c. the electron transport chain d. chlorophyllWhich color(s) of light does chlorophyll a reflect? a. red and blue b. green c. red d. blueWhere in plant cells does the Calvin cycle take place? a. thylakoid membrane b. thylakoid space c. stroma d. granumWhich statement correctly describes carbon fixation? a. the conversion of CO2 to an organic compound b. the use of RUBISCO to form 3-PGA c. the production of carbohydrate molecules from G3P d. the formation of RuBP from G3P molecules e. the use of ATP and NADPH to reduce CO2What is the molecule that leaves the Calvin cycle to be converted into glucose? a. ADP b. G3P c. RuBP d. 3-PGAWhat is the overall purpose of the light reactions in photosynthesis?Why are carnivores, such as lions, dependent on photosynthesis to survive?Describe the pathway of energy in light-dependent reactions.Which part of the Calvin cycle would be affected if a cell could not produce the enzyme RuBIsCO?Explain the reciprocal nature of the net chemical reactions for photosynthesis and respiration.Figure 6.4 Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis? a. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore becomes attached to the initotic spindle. The nucleus re-forms and the cell divides. The sister chromatids separate. b. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. The sister chromatids separate. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The nucleus re-forms and the cell divides. c. The kinetochore becomes attached to metaphase plate. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore breaks down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus re-forms and the cell divides. d. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore breaks apart and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus re-forms and the cell divides.A diploid cell has _ ____ the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell. a. one-fourth b. one-half c. twice d. four timesAn organism’s traits are determined by the specific combination of inherited ______. a. cells b. genes c. proteins d. chromatidsChromosomes are duplicated during what portion of the cell cycle? a. G 1 phase b. S phase c. prophase d. prometaphaseSeparation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis? a. prometaphase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophaseThe individual chromosomes become visible with a light microscope during which stage of mitosis? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphaseWhat is necessary for a cell to pass the G2 checkpoint? a. cell has reached a sufficient size b. an adequate stockpile of nucleotides c. accurate and complete DNA replication d. proper attachment of mitotic spindle fibers to kinetochores________ are changes to the nucleotides in a segment of DNA that codes for a protein. a. Proto-oncogenes b. Tumor suppressor genes c. Gene mutations d. Negative regulatorsA gene that codes for a positive cell cycle regulator is called a(n) _______. a. kinase inhibitor b. tumor suppressor gene c. proto-oncogene d. oncogeneWhich eukaryotic cell-cycle event is missing in binary fission? a. cell growth b. DNA duplication c. mitosis d. cytokinesisFtsZ proteins direct the formation of a ________ that will eventually form the new cell walls of the daughter cells. a. contractile ring b. cell plate c. cytoskeleton d. septumCompare and contrast a human somatic cell to a human gamete.Describe the similarities and differences between the cytokinesis mechanisms found in animal cells versus those in plant cells.Outline the steps that lead to a cell becoming cancerous.Explain the difference between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene.Name the common components of eukaryotic cell division and binary fission.Figure 7.2 If a mutation occurs so that a fungus is no longer able to produce a minus mating type, will it still be able to reproduce? Figure 7.2 (a) In animals, sexually reproducing adults form haploid gametes from diploid germ cells. (b) Fungi, such as black bread mold (Rhizopus nigricans), have haploid-dominant life cycles. (c) Plants have a life cycle that alternates between a multicellular haploid organism and a multicellular diploid organism. (credit c fern: modification of work by Cory Zanker; credit c gametophyte: modification of work by Vlmastra/Wikimedia Commons)What is a likely evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction? a. sexual reproduction involves fewer steps b. less chance of using up the resources in a given environment c. sexual reproduction results in greater variation in the offspring d. sexual reproduction is more cost-effectiveWhich type of life cycle has both a haploid and diploid multicellular stage? a. an asexual life cycle b. diploid-dominant c. haploid-dominant d. alternation of generationsWhich event leads to a diploid cell in a life cycle? a. meiosis b. fertilization c. alternation of generations d. mutationMeiosis produces daughter cells. a. two haploid b. two diploid c. four haploid d. four diploidAt which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other? a. prophase I b. prophase ll c. anaphase I d. anaphase llThe part of meiosis that is similar to mitosis is_______. a. meiosis I b. anaphase I c. meiosis II d. interkinesisIf a muscle cell of a typical organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in a gamete of that same organism? a.8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64The genotype XXY corresponds to: a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Tripto-X d. Jacob syndromeAbnormalities in the number of X chromosomes tend to be milder than the same abnormalities in autosomes because of _______. a. deletions b. nonbomologous recombinat ion c. synapsis d. X inactivationAneuploidies are deleterious for the individual because of what phenomenon? a. nondisjunction b. gene dosage c. meiotic errors d. X inactivationExplain the advantage that populations of sexually reproducing organisms have over asexually reproducing organisms?Describe the two events that are common to all sexually reproducing organisms and how they fit into the different life cycles of those organisms.Explain how the random alignment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I contributes to variation in gametes produced by meiosis.In what ways is meiosis II similar to and different from mitosis of a diploid cell?Individuals with trisomy 21 are more likely to survive to adulthood than individuals with trisomy 18. Based on what you know about aneuploidies from this module, what can you hypothesize about chromosomes 21 and 18?Figure 8.9 In pea plants, round peas (R) are dominant to wrinkled peas (r). You do a test cross between a pea plant with wrinkled peas (genotype rr) and a plant of unknown genotype that has round peas. You end up with three plants, all which have round peas. From this data, can you tell if the parent plant is homozygous dominant or heterozygous?Figure 8.10 In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white (p), and yellow peas (Y) are dominant to green (y). What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes for a cross between PpYY and ppYy pea plants? How many squares would you need to complete a Punnett square analysis of this cross?Figure 8.16 What ratio of offspring would result from a cross between a white-eyed male and a female that is heterozygous for red eye color?Imagine that you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What traits would you expect to observe in the F1 offspring if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green. a. only yellow-green seeds b. only yellow seeds c. 1:1 yellow seeds:green seeds d. 1:3 green seeds:yellow seedsImagine that you are performing a cross involving seed texture in garden pea plants. You cross true-breeding round and wrinkled parents to obtain F1 offspring. Which of the following experimental results in terms of numbers of plants are closest to what you expect in the F2 progeny? a. 8lOroundseeds b. 8lOwrinkledseeds c. 405:395 round seeds:wrinkled seeds d. 610:190 round seeds:wrinkled seedsThe observable traits expressed by an organism are described as its _______. a. phenotype b. genotype c. alleles d. zygoteA recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are ________ for that trait. a. heterozygous b. homozygous or heterozygous c. homozygous d. diploidWhat are the types of gametes that can be produced by an individual with the genotype AaBb? a. Aa,Bb b. AA, aa, BB. bb c. AB, Ab, aB, ab d. AB,abWhat is the reason for doing a test cross? a. to identify heterozygous individuals with the dominant phenotype b. to determine which allele is dominant and which is recessive c. to identify homozygous recessive individuals in the F2 d. to determine if two genes assort independentlyIf black and white true-breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of? a. dominance b. codominance c. multiple alleles d. incomplete dominanceThe ABO blood groups in humans are expressed as the IA,IB and i alleles. The IAallele encodes the A blood group antigen, IB encodes B, and i encodes O. Both A and B are dominant to 0. If a heterozygous blood type A parent (IAi) and a heterozygous blood type B parent (IBi) mate, one quarter of their offspring are expected to have the AB blood type IAIBin which both arnigens are expressed equally. Therefore, ABO blood groups are an example of: a. multiple alleles and incomplete dominance b. codominance and incomplete dominance c. incomplete dominance only d. multiple alleles and codominanceIn a cross between a homozygous red-eyed female fruit fly and a white-eyed male fruit fly, what is the expected outcome? a. all white-eyed male offspring b. all white-eyed female offspring c. all red-eyed offspring d. half white-eyed make offspringWhen a population has a gene with four alleles circulating, how many possible genotypes are there? a.3 b.6 c. 10 d. 16Describe one of the reasons that made the garden pea an excellent choice of model system for studying inheritance.Use a Punnett square to predict the offspring in a cross between a dwarf pea plant (homozygous recessive) and a tall pea plant (heterozygous). What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?Use a Punnett square to predict the offspring in a cross between a tall pea plant (heterozygous) and a tall pea plant (heterozygous). What is the genoypic ratio of the offspring?Can a male be a carrier of red-green color blindness?Could an individual with blood type O (genotype ii) be a legitimate child of parents in which one parent had blood type A and the other parent had blood type B?Figure 9.10 You isolate a cell strain in which the joining together of Okazaki fragments is impaired and suspect that a mutation has occurred in an enzyme found at the replication fork. Which enzyme is most likely to be mutated?Which of the following does cytosine pair with? a. guanine b. thymine c. adenine d. a pyrimidineProkaryotes contain a ______ chromosome, and eukaryotes contain ________ chromosomes. a. single-stranded circular; single-stranded linear b. single-stranded linear: single-stranded circular c. double-stranded circular; double-stranded linear d. double-stranded linear; double-stranded circularDNA replicates by which of the following models? a. conservative b. semiconservative c. dispersive d. none of the aboveThe initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA is _____. a. mismatch repair b. DNA polymerase proofreading c. nucleotide excision repair d. thymine dimersA promoter is ______. a. a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides b. a specific sequence of RNA nucleotides c. a protein that binds to DNA d. an enzyme that synthesizes RNAPortions of eukaryotic mRNA sequence that are removed during RNA processing are . a. exons b. caps c. poly-A tails d. intronsThe RNA components of ribosomes are synthesized in the _____. a. cytoplasm b. nucleus c. nucleolus d. endoplasmic reticulumHow long would the peptide be that is translated from this MILNA sequence: 5-AUGGGCUACCGA-3? a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4Control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells occurs at which level(s)? a. only the transcriptional level b. epigenetic and transcriptional levels c. epigenetic, transcriptional, and translational levels d. epigenetic, transcriptional, post-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational levelsPost-translational control refers to: a. regulation of gene expression after transcription b. regulation of gene expression after translation c. control of epigenetic activation d. period between transcription and translationDescribe the organization of the eukaryotic chromosome.Describe the structure and complementary base pairing of DNA.How do the linear chromosomes in eukaryotes ensure that its ends are replicated completely?Transcribe and translate the following DNA sequence (nontemplate strand): 5’-ATGGCCGGTTATTAAGCA-3’Describe how controlling gene expression will alter the overall protein levels in the cell.Figure 10.7 Why was Dolly a Finn-Dorset and not a Scottish Blackface sheep?n gel electrophoresis of DNA, the different bands in the final gel form because the DNA molecules _______. a. are from different organisms b. have different lengths c. have different nucleotide compositions d. have different genesIn the reproductive cloning of an animal, the genome of the cloned individual comes from ________ a. a sperm cell b. an egg cell c. any gamete cell d. a body cellWhat carries a gene from one organism into a bacteria cell? a. a plasmid b. an electrophoresis gel c. a restriction enzyme d. polymerase chain reactionWhat is a genetically modified organism (GMO)? a. a plant with certain genes removed b. an organism with an artificially altered genome c. a hybrid organism d. any agricultural organism produced by breeding or biotechnologyWhat is the role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in the production of transgenic plants? a. Genes from A. fume fociens are inserted into plant DNA to give the plant different traits. b. Transgenic plants have been given resistance to the pest A. tumefacaens. c. A. wmefaciens is used as a vector to move genes into plant cells. d. Plant genes are incorporated into the genome of Agrobacterium tumefaciens.What is the most challenging issue facing genome sequencing? a. the inability to develop fast and accurate sequencing techniques b. the ethics of using information from genomes at the individual level c. the availability and stability of DNA d. all of the aboveGenomics can be used in agriculture to: a. generate new hybrid strains b. improve disease resistance c. improve yield d. all of the aboveWhat kind of diseases are studied using genome-wide association studies? a. viral diseases b. single-gene inherited diseases c. diseases caused by multiple genes d. diseases caused by environmental factorsWhat is the purpose and benefit of the polymerase chain reaction?Today, it is possible for a diabetic patient to purchase human insulin from a pharmacist. What technology makes this possible and why is it a benefit over how things used to be?Describe two of the applications for genome mapping.Identify a possible advantage and a possible disadvantage of a genetic test that would identify genes in individuals that increase their probability of having Alzheimer’s disease later in life.Figure 11.7 Do you think genetic drift would happen more quickly on an island or on the mainland?Which scientific concept did Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace independently discover? a. mutation b. natural selection c. overbreeding d. sexual reproductionWhich of the following situations will lead to natural selection? a. The seeds of two plants land near each other and one grows larger than the other. b. Two types of fish eat the same kind of food, and one is better able to gather food than the other. c. Male lions compete for the right to mate with females, with only one possible winner. d. all of the aboveWhat is the difference between micro- and macroevolution? a. Microevolution describes the evolution of small organisms, such as insects, while macroevolution describes the evolution of large organisms, like people and elephants. b. Microevolution describes the evolution of microscopic entities, such as molecules and proteins, while macroevolution describes the evolution of whole organisms. c. Microevolution describes the evolution of populations, while macroevolution describes the emergence of new species over long periods of time. d. Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms over their lifetimes, while macroevolution describes the evolution of organisms over multiple generations.Population genetics is the study of ________. a. how allele frequencies in a population change over time b. populations of cells in an individual c. the rate of population growth d. how genes affect embryological developmentGalapagos medium ground finches are found on Santa Cruz and San Cristóbal islands, which are separated by about 100 km of ocean. Occasionally, individuals from either island fly to the other island to stay. This can alter the allele frequencies of the population through which of the following mechanisms? a. natural selection b. genetic drift c. gene flow d. mutationIn which of the following pairs do both evolutionary processes introduce new genetic variation into a population? a. natural selection and genetic drift b. mutation and gene flow c. natural selection and gene flow d. gene flow and genetic driftThe wing of a bird and the arm of a human are examples of ______. a. vestigial structures b. molecular structures c. homologous structures d. analogous structuresThe fact that DNA sequences are more similar in more closely related organisms is evidence of what? a. optimal design in organisms b. adaptation c. mutation d. descent with modificationWhich situation would most likely lead to allopatric speciation? a. A flood causes the formation of a new lake. b. A storm causes several large trees to fall down. c. A mutation causes a new trait to develop. d. An injury causes an organism to seek out a new food source.What is the main difference between dispersal and vicariance? a. One leads to allopatric speciation, whereas the other leads to sympatric speciation. b. One involves the movement of the organism, whereas the other involves a change in the environment. c. One depends on a genetic mutation occurring, whereas the other does not. d. One involves closely related organisms, whereas the other involves only individuals of the same species.Which variable increases the likelihood of allopatric speciation taking place more quickly? a. lower rate of mutation b. longer distance between divided groups c. increased instances of hybrid formation d. equivalent numbers of individuals in each populationThe word “theory” in theory of evolution is best replaced by______. a. fact b. hypothesis c. idea d. alternate explanationWhy are alternative scientific theories to evolution not taught in public school? a. more theories would confuse students b. there are no viable scientific alternatives c. it is against the law d. alternative scientific theories are suppressed by the science establishmentIf a person scatters a handful of plant seeds from one species in an area, how would natural selection work in this situation?Explain the Hardy-Weinberg principle of equilibrium.Describe natural selection and give an example of natural selection at work in a population.Why do scientists consider vestigial structures evidence for evolution?Why do island chains provide ideal conditions for adaptive radiation to occur?Two species of fish had recently undergone sympatric speciation. The males of each species had a different coloring through which females could identify and choose a partner from her own species. After some time, pollution made the lake so cloudy it was hard for females to distinguish colors. What might take place in this situation?How does the scientific meaning of “theory” differ from the common, everyday meaning of the word?Explain why the statement that a monkey is more evolved than a mouse is incorrect.Figure 12.3 In what levels are cats and dogs considered to be part of the same group?Figure 12.8 Which animals in this figure belong to a clade that includes animals with hair? Which evolved first: hair or the amniotic egg?What is a phylogeny a description of? a. mutations b. DNA c. evolutionary history d. organisms on EarthWhat do scientists in the field of systematics accomplish? a. discover new fossil sites b. organize and classify organisms c. name new species d. communicate between field biologistsWhich statement about the taxonomic classification system is correct? a. There are more domains than kingdoms. b. Kingdoms are the top category of classification. c. A phylum may be represented in more than one kingdom. d. Species are the most specific category of classification.Which best describes the relationship between chimpanzees and humans? a. chimpanzees evolved from humans b. humans evolved from chimpanzees c. chimpanzees and humans evolved from a common ancestor d. chimpanzees and humans belong to the same speciesWhich best describes a branch point in a phylogenetic tree? a. a hypothesis b. new lineage c. hybridization d. a matingWhich statement about analogies is correct? a. They occur only as errors. b. They are synonymous with homologous traits. c. They are derived by response to similar environmental pressures. d. They are a form of mutation.What kind of trait is important to cladistics? a. shared derived traits b. shared ancestral traits c. analogous traits d. parsimonious traitsWhat is true about organisms that are a part of the same clade? a. They all share the same basic characteristics. b. They evolved from a shared ancestor. c. They all are on the same tree. d. They have identical phylogenies.Which assumption of cladistics is stated incorrectly? a. Living things are related by descent from a common ancestor. b. Speciation can produce one, two, or three new species. c. Traits change from one state to another. d. The polarity of a character state change can be determined.A monophyletic group is a ______. a. phylogenetic tree b. shared derived trait c. character state d. cladeHow does a phylogenetic tree indicate major evolutionary events within a lineage?List the different levels of the taxonomic classification system.Dolphins and fish have similar body shapes. Is this feature more likely a homologous or analogous trait?Describe maximum parsimony.How does a biologist determine the polarity of a character change?Figure 13.6 Which of the following statements is true? a. Gram-positive bacteria have a single cell wall formed from peptidoglycan. b. Gram-positive bacteria have an outer membrane. c. The cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is thick, and the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is thin. d. Gram-negative bacteria have a cell wall made of peptidoglycan, while Gram-positive bacteria have a cell wall made of phospholipids.The first forms of life on Earth were thought to be_____. a. single-celled plants b. prokaryotes c. insects d. large animals such as dinosaursThe first organisms that oxygenated the atmosphere were ______. a. cyanobacteria b. phootrophic organisms c. anaerobic organisms d. allof the aboveWhich of the following consist of prokaryotic cells? a. bacteria and fungi b. archaea and fungi c. protists and animals d. bacteria and archaeaProkaryotes stain as Gram-positive or Gram-negative because of differences in the_______. a. cell wall b. cytoplasm c. nucleus d. chromosomeProkaryotes that obtain their energy from chemical compounds are called _____. a. photorophs b. auxotrophs c. chemorophs d. lithotrophsBioremediation includes _____. a. the use of prokaryotes that can fix nitrogen b. the use of prokaryotes to clean up pollutants c. the use of prokaryotes as natural fertilizers d. All of the aboveWhat event is thought to have contributed to the evolution of eukaryotes? a. global warming b. glaciation c. volcanic activity d. oxygenation of the atmosphereMitochondria most likely evolved from_______. a. a photosynthetic cyanobacterium b. cytoskeletal elements c. aerobic bacteria d. membrane proliferationProtists with the capabilities to absorb nutrients from dead organisms are called ______. a. photoautotrophs b. autotrophs c. saprobes d. heterotrophsWhich parasitic protist evades the host immune system by altering its surface proteins with each generation? a. Paramecium caudatum b. Trypanosoma brucci c. Plasmodium falciparum d. Phytophthora infrstansWhich polysaccharide is usually found in the cell walls of fungi? a. starch b. glycogen c. chitin d. celluloseWhat term describes the close association of a fungus with the root of a tree? a. arhizoid b. a lichen c. a mycorrhiza d. anendophyteExplain the reason why the imprudent and excessive use of antibiotics has resulted in a major global problem.Your friend believes that prokaryotes are always detrimental and pathogenic. How would you explain to them that they are wrong?Describe the hypothesized steps in the origin of eukaryote cells.How does killing Anopheles mosquitoes affect the Plasmadium protists?Without treatment, why does African sleeping sickness invariably lead to death?Why can superficial mycoses in humans lead to bacterial infections?Figure 14.19 At what stage does the diploid zygote form? a. When the female cone begins to bud from the tree b. When the sperm nucleus and the egg nucleus fuse c. When the seeds drop from the tree d. When the pollen tube begins to growFigure 14.26 If a flower lacked a megasporangium, what type of gamete would it not be able to form? If it lacked a microsporangium, what type of gamete would not form?The land plants are probably descendants of which of these groups? a. green algae b. red algae c. brown algae d. angiospermsThe event that leads from the haploid stage to the diploid stage in alternation of generations is _______. a. meiosis b. mitosis c. fertilization d. germinationMoss is an example of which type of plant? a. haplontic plant b. vascular plant c. diplontic plant d. seed plantWhy do mosses grow well in the Arctic tundra? a. They grow better at cold temperatures. b. They do not require moisture. c. They do not have true roots and can grow on hard surfaces. d. There are no herbivores in the tundra.Which is the most diverse group of seedless vascular plants? a. the liverworts b. the horsetails c. the club mosses d. the fernsWhich group are vascular plants? a. liverworts b. mosses c. hornworts d. fernsWhich of the following traits characterizes gymnosperms? a. The plants carry exposed seeds on modified leaves. b. Reproductive structures are located in a flower. c. After fertilization, the ovary thickens and forms a fruit. d. The gametophyte is longest phase of the life cycle.What adaptation do seed plants have in addition to the seed that is not found in seedless plants? a. gametophytes b. vascular tissue c. pollen d. chlorophyllPollen grains develop in which structure? a. the anther b. the stigma c. the filament d. the carpelCorn develops from a seedling with a single cotyledon, displays parallel veins on its leaves, and produces monosulcate pollen. It is most likely: a. a gymnosperm b. a monocot c. a eudicot d. a basal angiospermWhat adaptations do plants have that allow them to survive on land?What are the three classes of bryophytes?How did the development of a vascular system contribute to the increase in size of plants?What are the four modern-day groups of gymnosperms?Cycads are considered endangered species and their trade is severely restricted. Customs officials stop suspected smugglers, who claim that the plants in their possession are palm trees and not cycads. I-low would a botanist distinguish between the two types of plants?What are the two structures that allow angiosperms to be the dominant form of plant life in most terrestrial ecosystems?Figure 15.3 Which of the following statements is false? a. Eumetazoa have specialized tissues and Parazoa do not. b. Both acoelomates and pseudocoelomates have a body cavity. c. Chordates are more closely related to echinoderms than to rotifers according to the figure. d. Some animals have radial symmetry, and some animals have bilateral symmetry.Figure 15.24 Which of the following statements about the anatomy of a mollusk is false? a. Mollusks have a radula for scraping food. b. Mollusks have ventral nerve cords. c. The tissue beneath the shell is called the mantle. d. The mantle cavity contains hemolymph.Figure 15.33 Which of the following statements about common features of chordates is true? a. The dorsal hollow nerve cord is part of the chordate central nervous system. b. In vertebrate fishes, the pharyngeal slits become the gills. c. Humans are not chordates because humans do not have a tail. d. Vertebrates do not have a notochord at any point in their development; instead, they have a vertebral column.Which of the following is not a feature common to most animals? a. development into a fixed body plan b. asexual reproduction c. specialized tissues d. heterotrophic nutrient sourcingWhich of the following does not occur? a. radially symmetrical diploblast b. diploblastic eucoelomate c. protostomic coelomate d. bilaterally symmetrical deuterostomeThe large central opening in the poriferan body is called the ______. a. emmule b. picule c. stia d. osculumCnidocytes are found in _____. a. phylum Porifera b. phylum Nemertea c. phylum Nematoda d. phylum CnidanaCubozoans are______. a. polyps b. medusoids c. polymorphs d. spongesWhich group of flatworms are primarily external parasites of fish? a. monogeneans b. trematodes c. cestodes d. turbellariansCrustaceans are _____. a. ecdysozoans b. nematodes c. arachnids d. parazoansA mantle and mantle cavity are present in _____. a. class Oligochaeta b. class Bivalvia c. class Polychaeta d. class HirudineaAnnelids have a ______. a. pseudocoelom b. a true coelom c. no coelom d. noneoftheaboveEchinoderms in their larval state have ______. a. triangular symmetry b. radial symmetry c. hexagonal symmetry d. bilateral symmetryThe circulatory fluid in echinoderms is _____. a. blood b. mesohyl c. water d. salineWhich of the following is not a member of the phylum Chordata? a. Cephalochordata b. Echinodermata c. Urochordata d. VertebrataMembers of Chondrichthyes differ from members of Osteichthyes by having a _______. a. jaw b. bony skeleton c. cartilaginous skeleton d. two sets of paired finsSquamata includes _____. a. crocodiles and alligators b. turtles c. tuataras d. lizards and snakesSudoriferous glands produce______. a. sweat b. lipids c. sebum d. milkWhich of the following is a Monotreme? a. kangaroo b. koala c. bandicoot d. platypusHow are specialized tissues important for animal function and complexity?Using the following terms, explain what classifications and groups humans fall into, from the most general to the most specific: symmetry, germ layers, coelom, embryological development.Describe the feeding mechanism of sponges and identify how it is different from other animals.Compare the structural differences between Porifera and Cnidaria.Speculate as to what advantage(s) a complete digestive system has over an incomplete digestive system?Describe a potential advantage and disadvantage of the cuticle of ecdysozoans.Describe the morphology and anatomy of mollusks.Sessile adult tunicates lose the notochord; what does this suggest about one function of this structure?During embryonic development, what features do we share with tunicates or lancelets?What can be inferred about the evolution of the cranium and the vertebral column from examining hagfishes and lampreys?Explain why frogs are restricted to a moist environment.Describe three adaptations that allow for flight in birds.Figure 16.2 When bacteria are destroyed by leukocytes, pyrogens are released into the blood. Pyrogens reset the body’s thermostat to a higher temperature, resulting in fever. How might pyrogens cause the body temperature to rise?Figure 16.7 Which of the following statements about the digestive system is false? a. Chyme is a mixture of food and digestive juices that is produced in the stomach. b. Food enters the large intestine before the small intestine. c. In the small intestine, chyme mixes with bile, which emulsifies fats. d. The stomach is separated from the small intestine by the pyloric sphincter.Figure 16.9 Which of the following statements about the human respiratory system is false? a. When we breathe in, air travels from the pharynx to the trachea. b. The bronchioles branch into bronchi. c. Alveolar ducts connect to alveolar sacs. d. Gas exchange between the lungs and blood takes place in the alveolus.Figure 16.10 Which of the following statements about the circulatory system is false? a. Blood in the pulmonary vein is deoxygenated. b. Blood in the inferior vena cava is deoxygenated. c. Blood in the pulmonary artery is deoxygenated. d. Blood in the aorta is oxygenated.Figure 16.14 Goiter, a disease caused by iodine deficiency, results in the inability of the thyroid gland to form T3 and T4 . The body typically attempts to compensate by producing greater amounts of TSH. Which of the following symptoms would you expect goiter to cause? a. Hypothyroidism, resulting in weight gain, cold sensitivity, and reduced mental activity. b. Hyperthyroidism, resulting in weight loss, profuse sweating and increased heart rate. C. Hyperthyroidism, resulting in weight gain, cold sensitivity, and reduced mental activity. d. Hypothyroidism, resulting in weight loss, profuse sweating and increased heart rate.When faced with a sudden drop in environmental temperature, an endothermic animal will _______. a. experience a drop in its body temperature b. wait to see if it goes lower c. increase muscle activity to generate heat d. add fur or fat to increase insulationHow are wastes carried to the kidney for removal? a. in cells b. in the urine c. in blood d. in interstitial fluidWhat is the cause of a fever of 38.3C(101F) ? a. too much heat produced by the body b. upward adjustment of the body temperature set point c. inadequate cooling mechanisms in the body d. the heat caused by a viral or bacterial infectionWhere does the majority of fat digestion take place? a. mouth b. stomach c. small intestine d. large intestineThe bile from the liver is delivered to the _______. a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. colonWhich of the following statements is not true? a. Essential nutrients can be synthesized by the body. b. Vitamins are required in small quantities for bodily function. c. Some amino acids can be synthesized by the body, while others need to be obtained from diet. d. Vitamins come in two categories: fat-soluble and water-soluble.The respiratory system_______. a. provides body tissues with oxygen b. provides body tissues with oxygen and carbon dioxide c. establishes how many breaths are taken per minute d. provides the body with carbon dioxideWhich is the order of airflow during inhalation? a. nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli b. nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli c. nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli d. nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoliWhere does the right ventricle send blood? a. the head b. the upper body c. the lungs d. the lower bodyDuring the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle, the bean is _______. a. contracting b. relaxing c. contracting and relaxing d. filling with bloodHow do arteries differ from veins? a. Arteries have thicker wall layers to accommodate the changes in pressure from the baa b. Arteries carry blood. c. Arteries have thinner wall layers and valves and move blood by the action of skeletal muscla d. Arteries are thin wafted and are used for gas exchange.Most of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary perform what function? a. regulate growth b. regulate the sleep cycle c. regulate production of other hormones d. regulate blood volume and blood pressureWhat is the function of the hormone erythropoietin? a. stimulates production of red blood cells b. stimulates muscle growth c. causes the fight-or-flight response d. causes testosterone productionWhich endocrine glands are associated with the kidneys? a. thyroid glands b. pituitary glands c. adrenal glands d. gonadsAmong other bones, the axial skeleton includes the_____. a. thoracic cage and vertebral column b. thoracic cage and pectoral girdle c. skull and pelvic girdle d. pectoral and pelvic girdlesThe pectoral girdle supports the_______. a. arms b. legs c. skull d. thoracic cageWhich component is responsible for initially stimulating a muscle contraction? a. proteins b. electrochemical signals c. plasma membranes d. striationsWhat kind of muscle tissue is found surrounding the urinary bladder? a. cardiac b. skeletal c. striated d. smoothNeurons contain ________, which can receive signals from other neurons. a. axons b. mitochondria c. dendrites d. GolgibodiesThe part of the brain that is responsible for coordination during movement is the ______. a. limbic system b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. parietal lobeWhich part of the nervous system directly controls the digestive system? a. parasympathetic nervous system b. central nervous system c. spinal cord d. sensory-somatic nervous systemDescribe how the body’s mechanisms maintain homeostasis?Why is excretion important in order to achieve osmotic balance?What is the role of the accessory organs in digestion?What is the role of minerals in maintaining good health?Discuss why obesity is a growing epidemic.Describe the function of these terms and describe where they are located: main bronchus, trachea, alveoli.How does the structure of alveoli maximize gas exchange?Describe the cardiac cycle.