
Concept explainers
To show : That the equation has exactly one solution in the interval.

Answer to Problem 49E
The possible explanation is given below.
Explanation of Solution
Given information :
The given equation is x+ln(x+1)=0, 0≤x≤3
Calculation :
Let f(x)=x+ln(x+1) .
Substitute x=0 and solve for f(x) :
f(0)=0+ln(0+1)f(0)=ln(1)f(0)=0
Since, it is known that f(x) has at least one solution on the interval [0, 3] .
To prove that f(x) has exactly one solution use proof by contradiction.
Since, f(x) is continuous on the interval [0, 3] and differentiable on the interval (0, 3) .
Suppose, that f(x) has one more solution for f(x)=0 on the interval [0, 3] , where x=0 is one solution and x=t, where t=0 is another.
Therefore, f(0)=f(a)=0 .
The slope between the two point is
f(a)−f(0)a−0=0a−0f(a)−f(0)a−0=0
Thus, by Mean Value Theorem, there must be a c in the interval (0, a) such that f'(c)=0 .
However, f'(x)=1+1x+1>0 in the interval in the interval [0, 3] , which means f'(c)≠0 for all c in (0, 3) . This contradicts the fact that f'(c)=0 for (0, a) .
Therefore ,
f(x) cannot have a second solution for f(x)=0 so x+ln(x+1)=0 has exactly one solution.
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