2. If a selection assay be made to identify cells that have incorporated the recombinant DNA, what type of medium will be used? How will it work?
Q: 3. Describe the Fehling's test. What does the Fehling's test detect?
A: Fehling's test is done with the help of Fehling's solution. Fehling's solution consists of copper…
Q: ) Is Immunoelectrophoresis one of the current analytical methods in detecting porcine…
A: This question is about immunoelectrophoresis.
Q: 1. To produce a specialized-transducing mycobacteriophage construct, a cosmid bearing the allelic…
A: Cosmids :- These are the vectors, which are constructed by using hybrids of lambda…
Q: Animal Cell DNA Bacterial cell Plasmid Bacterial 1 3 5 chromosome Questions: 1. Why are plasmids…
A: Introduction The technique of combining DNA molecules from two separate sources and putting them…
Q: Abands). Please, àdestity he 10. Samples were tested for sickle cell disease by PCR. The results…
A: HbA is the normal adult hemoglobin and HbS is the mutated one causing sickle-cell anemia. The…
Q: 24. Arrange the correct sequence in southern blotting. I. DNA extracted from white cells and are…
A: The technique of transfer of gel to a membrane from the gel for the detection of sample on the…
Q: 5. Patients with palmoplantar keratoderma (PPK) have yellowish thickening of the skin on their hands…
A: Introduction :- A pedigree is a genetic representation of the inheritance of a trait or disease…
Q: 6. Insulin injected into patient What is a plasmid? Make a diagram of bacterial cell containing a…
A: Production of a unique DNA molecule by joining together two or more DNA fragments (which are not…
Q: BONUS: Which tests would be faster to perform? PCR or an ELISA test? O both would take the same…
A: Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) and Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) are the diagnostic…
Q: Explain why phenol:chloroform is used in the isolation of genomic DNA ( What is the end result and…
A: Extraction of genomic DNA is of main importance to study the genetic reasons behind diseases and for…
Q: 4) If 20% of a culture of human cells have a DNA content somewhere between 1&2xs (S-phase= 8 hours)…
A: S phase is synthesis phase during which DNA is replicated when the cell is undergoing mitosis.
Q: Describe the benedict's test. What does the benedict's test detect?
A: • Benedict 's test is used as the test to detect the Reducing sugars • Benedict reagents is the…
Q: ) What is the advantage of cryo-sectioning for antibody staining methods? 5) When preparing…
A: Immunohistochemistry can be done in frozen sections or in paraffin-embedded sections. Both frozen…
Q: 26. Western blotting is more sensitive and more accurate thatSDS PAGE
A: Western blotting is a technique applied in molecular biology. The process of western blotting is…
Q: What are the advantages of using a phage for cloning? Group of answer choices They allow for the…
A: Cloning is defined as a process where the scientists produce genetically identical copy of various…
Q: What is the difference between an antigen test and a PCR test? a. What are the benefits…
A: PCR- PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction. Antigen test- Antigen tests are immuno-assays which…
Q: 26. Which of the following are TRUE for plasmid? It is a ring of single stranded DNA. It is found in…
A: Natural selection is the phenomenon in which an organism having heritable variation are selected and…
Q: DNA nicking assay
A: The DNA nicking assay is a powerful tool that can be used to measure the antioxidant and prooxidant…
Q: Why are the following reagents used? Neutralizing solution (Plasmid isolation) Isopropanol…
A: 1. DNA Neutralizing Solution can be utilised in separating of plasmid DNA by alkaline lysis…
Q: . Give 4 examples of transcription factors / non-structural proteins ? 2. Identify the…
A: Answers of the five questions are below
Q: 5- What’s the purpose of the DNA extraction? a- Force the cell to make more DNA b- Kill the cells.…
A:
Q: 1)What is plasmid?
A: The deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the double-stranded molecule that is the genetic material in most…
Q: 14) Which antibiotic plasmid has been used? (kanamycin, ampicillin or tetracycline?) 15) Which of…
A: 14 ) tetracycline is the antibiotic plamid.
Q: 1. A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer. What patient education should…
A: Cisplatin is non cell cycle specific anti-cancer drug.
Q: 1. If a negative control produces a band, what does this indicate? 2. In an experiment, a…
A: 1) if negative control produces a band it means there was some sort of contamination. Sometimes…
Q: 35. Transsignalling is very important for the cell having thecytokine receptor False True
A: Cytokines play a variety of roles in the body that are crucial for the development of the body and…
Q: 1) Follow the steps involved in DNA or gene cloning
A: DNA( deoxyribonucleic acid) is the double-stranded molecule that is the genetic material in most…
Q: name or briefly describe some ways to introduce plasma DNA into bacterial cells
A: Horizontal gene transfer (HGT) is the movement of genetic material between organisms. It plays a key…
Q: Describe the importance of nucleotide metabolism for cells. B. Explain the main features of de novo…
A: Introduction Genes are the main regulatory sequence of nucleotides found in the nucleus which…
Q: Based on your understanding of plasmids’ answer the following questions. 1. Why is a daughter cell…
A: A inclusion may be a small, extrachromosomal DNA molecule inside a cell that's physically separated…
Q: 1. Follow the steps involved in DNA or gene cloning. 2. In what process do bacteria take up the…
A: Genetic engineering is the introduction of foreign DNA into the host genome. It is also employed to…
Q: 3) Predict your results on LB/amp plate and the LB/amp/ara plate in the absence of PGLO plasmid and…
A: pGLO plasmid comprises the gene for Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) and a gene for resistance to the…
Q: State the principle underlying the latex agglutination (LA) and gelatin particle agglutination test…
A: When the specific antibodies (agglutinins) bind to surface antigens of bacteria/virus or any…
Q: 9. Explain why DNA fragments move through a gel at different rates. (A2)
A: A technique called gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments (or other macromolecules,…
Q: Another common electrophoresis buffer is TBE. How does this buffer differ from TAE? (plasmid…
A: A buffer is a solution made of a combination of a weak acid and its conjugate base. It is used to…
Q: 7. How could genetic engineering be of use to humans? Describe at least 2 different uses.
A: Science is humanity's greatest blessing. It has altered human existence; nothing finer could have…
Q: _P 24/7 help Suppose you were provided with a culture of 10,000 cells of coli, to which…
A: DNA replication is "bidirectional", which means that replication begins at a location known as the…
Q: Explain 2 possible consequences of accidentally puncturing one of the wells in the agarose gel in an…
A: The chromosomes in our cell cores comprise of huge strands of DNA. These strands are awkward when…
Q: What is the enzyme that eventually joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of the Okazaki fragments and…
A: DNA recombination technology is a technique in which foreign DNA is joined with host DNA to form…
Q: 23. What is a chief target for many of the vaccines under development (ie. what protein)? B U TI- X2…
A: Since there are multiple questions in this particular question, I'll answer the first one for you.…
Q: 14. Why denaturation stage is important in PCR? To answer the question, please explain: 11.…
A: The laboratory method that is used for the formation of multiple copies of DNA is quick succession…
Q: Give 5 advantages and disadvantages of GMOs ( genetically modified organism ).
A: Genetically modified organisms or GMOs are organisms whose genetic material is altered either by…
Q: 1. Give any (two) biotechnological products/process that was patented or coDvrighted in the…
A: The use of biology to make use of the living system and organisms to form products is called…
Q: Homogenize cells Centrifuge Heat-kill Recover IIIS filtrate IIIS cells spun to bottom of tube…
A: Transformation is the process by which microbes uptake genetic material from the surroundings and…
Q: 7. Based on this Kirby-Bauer assay, answer the following questions. a. Which antibiotic is the…
A: The susceptibility and resistance of the organism to antibiotics can be identified using the Kirby…
Q: Explain why the 16S rRNA gene sequencing is suitable for bacterial identification in general and why…
A: 16S rRNA (16S ribosomal RNA), is a component of the prokaryotic ribosome 30S subunit.
Q: 2. If a selection assay be made to identify cells that have incorporated the recombinant DNA, what…
A:
Q: Describe the critical steps required to make a recombinant bacterial cell for production of…
A: Recombinant DNA technology is the process in which genetic material from two different species are…
Pls Help me.
2. If a selection assay be made to identify cells that have incorporated the recombinant DNA, what type of medium will be used? How will it work?
Step by step
Solved in 2 steps
- 2. How does the P-tube differ from the P+ tube? X P-has a control plasmid added to it that does not contain the 2 Tips gene for ampicillin resistance, while P+ contains a plasmid with the gene for ampicillin resistance. Feedback: Was a plasmid added to the P- tube during the experiment? P- contains the recombinant plasmid but no competent cells, while P+ contains both. Feedback: Was a plasmid added to the P- tube during the experiment? C. P- contains the competent cells but no recombinant plasmid, Next section6. Explain why a positive test for COVID19 would appear sooner than a negative result when using real- time PCR to test if someone is infected. 7. Explain why the same primers (GMM) could detect several types of genetic modifications to common crop plants, rather than one specific gene or genetic modification. 8. Explain the general procedure for using the NanoDrop machine in analyzing DNA samples. Be sure to explain the purposes of the blanks (pure water), and of the importance of the 260/280 ratio. Identify an ideal 260/280 ratio of purified DNA.Which of the following is not correct for bacterial conjugation? a. Both Hfr and F+ bacteria have the ability to code for a sex pilus. b. After an F- cell has conjugated with an F+, its plasmid holds the F+ factor. c. The recipient cell is Hfr following conjugation. d. In an HfrF- conjugation, DNA of the main chromosomemoves to a recipient cell. e. Genes on the F factor encode proteins of the sex pilus.
- 3A. Following transformation with the CRISPR plasmid, the yeast will be plated on SD-URA plates. Why is SD-URA media used? Name the relevant marker gene in the pCRCT CRISPR plasmid. 3B. What would you expect to see if you plated on YED accidentally? Will most of the yeast be red or white? Why? 3C. The complete genotype of the host yeast strain is MATa ade2 his3 leu2 met15 ura3. Name one advantage of using a yeast strain with auxotrophies for several genes (i.e. his3, leu2 and ura3). 3D. After successful CRIPSR editing, the yeast can later be “cured” of the recombinant CRISPR plasmid – that is, the plasmid is lost but the CRISPR edit is stably inherited. Write the new genotype of the yeast-based on the ADE6 gene.What is the correct order for the steps of transformation given inthe following list?1. Recombination with the bacterial chromosome2. Binding of a large DNA fragment to the surface of a bacterialcell3. Cutting a large DNA fragment into smaller pieces4. Uptake of DNA into the cytoplasm5. Degradation of one of the DNA strandsa. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1d. 2, 5, 4, 3, 1First picture: 1. What must be added in a minimal media for the recombinants to grow? 2. What must be excluded in a minimal media for the non recombinants to be killed? Second picture: 1. How is the recipient cell different at time D than it was at time A? Choice 1:It has a greater number of genes Choice 2: It has a greater mass of DNA. Choice 3:It contains different genes Choice 4: It contains bacteriophage DNA. 2. At which time can the recipient cell first be described as "recombinant"? A,B,C, or D 3. Which of the following processes is responsible for the shape of the curve at time B? Choice 1:transduction Choice 2:another choice Choice 3:entry of Hfr DNA into the recipient cell Choice 4:entry of DNA from the recipient cell into the Hfr cell
- 4. Explain the mechanisms of SYBR green and TaqMan in real-time PCR. 5. Explain what Ct mean and what it tells us about our samples in real-time PCR. 6. Explain why a positive test for COVID19 would appear sooner than a negative result when using real- time PCR to test if someone is infected.2. Please design a kit to replicate plasmid DNAS in the test tube. DNA9. During nucleic acid hybridization, the probe is labelled for DNA stability to increase probe-test DNA binding to identify the location of probe and the test DNA binding for amplification 11. What is not true for Sequence tagged site (STS) markers: cannot be mapped by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) subset of STS markers are known as expressed sequence tag (EST) markers can readily be screened by a PCR assay short DNA sequences that occur at a unique location in the genome
- 4. You can carry out matings between an Hfr and F−strain by mixing the two cell types in a small patch ona plate and then replica plating to selective medium.This methodology was used to screen hundreds of different cells for a recombination-deficient recA− mutant. Why is this an assay for RecA function? Wouldyou be screening for a recA− mutation in the F− or Hfrstrain using this protocol? Explain.1-What are the requirements to carry PCR? 2-How amplification will be specific for each step1. Labels are used in biosensors to amplify a biorecognition event. Which is frequently used in lateral flow assays? C-13 or P-32 nanoparticles fluorophores labeled enzymes 2. Why is it a good idea to use filters? Because of the mains interference All of these Because of the parasitic Because the signal is mixed with other unwanted signals