Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Mechanics
8th Edition
ISBN: 9780073398273
Author: Frank M. White
Publisher: McGraw-Hill Education
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Chapter 6, Problem 6.113P
To determine

(a)

The flow rate in each pipe.

Expert Solution
Check Mark

Answer to Problem 6.113P

Q1=0.023m3/sQ2=0.013m/s

Explanation of Solution

Given information:

Fluid Mechanics, Chapter 6, Problem 6.113P , additional homework tip  1

The total flow rate is equal to 0.036m3/s

The loss of co-efficient is equal to K=1.5

The volumetric flow rate Q can be defined as below,

Q=VA

In the above equation,

V - Velocity of the flow

A -Area

The energy equation is defined as,

p1ρg+V122g+z1=p2ρg+V222g+z2+hf+hm

Where the head loss hf is equal to,

hf=fLD(V22g)

The friction factor can be determined by,

1f1/21.8log(6.9Re+( /d 3.7 )1.11)

The Reynolds’s number is defined as,

ReD=(ρVD)μ

μ - Dynamic viscosity

For parallel pipe flow,

QTotal=Q1+Q2

Assume, the water at 20°C will have,

ρ=998kg/m3

μ=0.001kg/ms

Calculation:

For parallel pipe flow, we can say

QTotal=Q1+Q2

Substitute for known values,

π4(0.05m)2V1+π4(0.04m)2V2=0.036m3/s(1)

For pipe 1, the energy equation can be defined as,

Δz=h1

Head loss can be written as,

h1=fL1D1(V122g)

Guess f=0.02

Substitute for known values,

h1=fL1D1(V122g)=(0.02)60m0.05m(V122( 9.81m/ s 2 ))

Similarly for pipe 2,

Energy equation can be written as,

Δz=h2+hm

Therefore, the head loss is equal to,

h2+hm=V222g(fL2D2+K)

Guess f=0.02

Substitute for known values,

h2+hm=V222g(fL2D2+K)=V222(9.81m/s2)((0.02)55m0.04m+1.5)

But we know that,

h1=h2+hm

Therefore,

(0.02)60m0.05m(V122( 9.81m/ s 2 ))=V222(9.81m/s2)((0.02)55m0.04m+1.5)(2)

Solve equation 1 & 2 to find relevant velocities,

According to equation 2,

V1=1.1V2

Substitute in equation 1,

Therefore we get,

V1=11.59m/sV2=10.54m/s

Calculate the relevant Reynolds’s numbers,

ReD1=ρVDμ=( 998kg/ m 3 )( 11.59m/s)( 0.05m)0.001kg/ms=578341ReD2=ρVDμ=( 998kg/ m 3 )( 10.54m/s)( 0.04m)0.001kg/ms=420756.8

Calculate the roughness ratio,

For pipe 1,

εd=0.15mm50mm=3×103

For pipe 2,

εd=0.15mm40mm=3.75×103

Calculate the relevant friction factors,

For pipe 1,

1f11/2=2.0log(/d3.7+( 2.51 Re D f 1 1/2 ))=2.0log(3× 10 33.7+( 2.51 578341 f 1 1/2 ))

By solving,

f1=0.0264

For pipe 2,

1f21/2=2.0log(/d3.7+( 2.51 Re D f 2 1/2 ))=2.0log(3.75× 10 33.7+( 2.51 420756.8 f 2 1/2 ))

By solving,

f2=0.0282

Calculate the relevant velocities for the above found friction factors,

Substitute in equation 2,

(0.0264)60m0.05m(V122( 9.81m/ s 2 ))=V222(9.81m/s2)((0.0282)55m0.04m+1.5)(2)

Solve further,

V1=1.127V2

Substitute in equation 1,

π4(0.05m)2(1.127V2)+π4(0.04m)2V2=0.036m3/s

Therefore we get,

V1=11.69m/sV2=10.37m/s

Now, find the relevant flow rates,

Q1=π4(0.05m)2(11.69m/s)=0.023m3/s

Q2=π4(0.04m)2(10.37)=0.013m/s

Conclusion:

The flow rate in pipe 1 is equal to 0.023m3/s

The flow rate in pipe 2 is equal to 0.013m/s.

To determine

(b)

The overall pressure drop.

Expert Solution
Check Mark

Answer to Problem 6.113P

ΔP=2160303.36Pa2.16MPa

Explanation of Solution

Given information:

Fluid Mechanics, Chapter 6, Problem 6.113P , additional homework tip  2

The total flow rate is equal to 0.036m3/s

The loss of co-efficient is equal to K=1.5

The pressure drop is defined as,

ΔP=ρghf=ρV22(fLD)

Assume, the water at 20°C will have,

ρ=998kg/m3

Calculation:

The pressure drop is same in both pipes, therefore,

For pipe 1,

ΔP=ρghf=ρV122(f1L1D1)

Substitute for known values,

ΔP=ρV122(f1L1D1)=(998kg/m3)( 11.69m/s)22((0.0264)60m0.05m)=2160303.36Pa2.16MPa

Conclusion:

The pressure drop is equal to 2.16MPa.

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