Special Topics Quiz Quizlet
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6936
Subject
Biology
Date
Feb 20, 2024
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25
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PHA 6936 Special Topics in Forensic Science Quizzes
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Who first observed the agglutination of red blood cells with human sera?
Landsteiner
List three important aspects of crime scene investigation.
Securing the scene, preventing conta-
mination, and preserving physical evi-
dence.
True or False: Video recording is an ac-
ceptable method of recording a crime scene.
True
List the five types of search patterns.
Grid, Zone, Strip, Spiral, and Quadrant
Which search pattern is typically used underwater?
Spiral search
In what part of the body does livor mortis occur?
The lowest extremities
True or False: Hydrolyzed body fat can help preserve a body and prevent putre-
faction.
True
What are the fundamental mechanisms considered necessary to maintain the BBP standard and are the primary mech-
anisms for infection control?
Universal precautions
List three forms of standard PPE.
Eye, hand, and foot protection
When processing a crime scene, which evidence is collected first?
All fragile evidence
True or False: When processing a crime scene, contamination is limited
by controlling access and wearing PPE.
True
True or False: Luminol is the agent of choice for detecting the presence of blood stains
False
True or False: When using an alternative light source to search for biological flu-
ids, the wavelength of light used must be opposite that of the color of the stain.
True
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When using an orange filter on an alter-
native light source, which biological fluid will fluoresce white?
Vaginal secretions, urine, and semen
True or False: Luminol is considered a presumptive test for blood.
True
Which presumptive test for blood reacts with blood proteins to give a light to medi-
um blue color?
Amido Black
Which types of biological samples should never be stored in plastic contain-
ers for more than two hours?
Heavily soaked blood stained items
What types of swabs are most common in sexual assault kits?
Vaginal, anal, and oral swabs
True or False: Chain of custody is re-
quired for any evidence submitted to court and can be used to establish the integrity of evidence.
True
For short term storage, liquid blood sam-
ples should be kept at what tempera-
ture (room temperature, refrigerated, or frozen)?
Refrigerated
The cellulose based paper, used for the storage of whole blood, that prevents DNA degradation and microbial break-
down is known as what?
FTA paper
Erythrocytes are also known as what component of blood?
Red blood cells
What is the most abundant protein in serum?
Albumin
What is the function of red blood cells?
Tissue oxygenation
What is the function of albumin?
To maintain appropriate osmotic pres-
sure
True or False: Mature red blood cells do not contain DNA.
True
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True or False: The Phenolphthalein pre-
sumptive test is more sensitive than Lu-
minol.
False
What color does tetramethylbenzidine turn in a positive reaction?
Blue
True or False: An ALS (alternate light source) can be used to search for
blood because blood fluoresces.
False
Which test is one of the most common confirmatory tests for blood?
Takayama test
Hemoglobin derivatives exhibit a strong absorbance at wave- lengths between 400 nm and 425 nm. This wavelength is known as what?
The Soret band
Which test has the potential to be the most harmful and therefore is not com-
monly used?
Benzidene
What part of the spermatozoon contains DNA?
The head
Which male glad produces PSA?
The prostate
Semen fluoresces due to the presence of what?
Flavins and Pseudomonas Bacteria
A vaginal swab that tests positive for acid phosphatase, but shows no spermato-
zoa on microscopic examination should be tested further for the presence of what?
P30
What is the best screening test for sali-
va?
Amylase mapping
True or False: The amylase activity in saliva is variable from person to person often resulting in inconclusive testing for its presence.
True
Anagen
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What is the active phase of hair growth called?
True or False: In the absence of a hair root, mitochondrial DNA testing can be carried out on the hair shaft.
True
True or False: Skin cells on the collar of a shirt worn by a perpetrator is considered to be wear evidence.
True
True or False: Gloves worn to protect latent prints are typically made of latex.
False
Who developed the most common species determination test?
Ouchterlony
What is the probe known as that is used for DNA analysis for species determina-
tion?
D17Z1
The general principle of gel elec-
trophoresis is to separate mole- cules based on:
Electrical charge
True or False: Ponceau red, Coomassie blue, and Amido black are protein stain-
ing reagents.
True
Who developed the ABO blood typing system?
Landsteiner
If you inherit type A from your mother and type O from your father, what is your resulting genotype?
AO
If you are a secretor what antigens would you secrete if you were type O?
H antigens only
What percentage of the population is considered to be non-secretors?
20%
True or False: Polymorphic enzymes have the same structural forms of an en-
zyme with the differing functional proper-
ties.
False
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True or False: PGM can be found in blood, vaginal secretions, and semen.
True
Which vessel is under the most pressure in the circulatory system?
Artery
True or False: Capillaries deliver oxy-
genated blood to the veins.
False
What component of blood becomes ac-
tivated when the circulatory system is breached and loss of blood occurs?
Platelets
Does surface tension increase or de-
crease the surface area of a drop of blood?
Decrease
True or False: The surface tension of blood is less than that of water.
True
On which type of surface would you ex-
pect more spatter to occur (smooth or rough)?
Rough
Would you expect a blood stain resulting from a 90 degree angle to be wider or thinner than that from a drop coming at 50 degrees?
Wider
If someone is beaten with a baseball bat, which type of spatter would you expect to occur (high, medium, or low velocity)?
Medium velocity
Which category of stain would a bloody shoeprint fall into?
Transfer stain
True or False: When inflicting a deep stab wound, the body tissue may "wipe" blood off the weapon as it is withdrawn from the wound.
True
True or False: DNA is double stranded.
True
True or False: Adenine binds to thymine with two hydrogen bonds.
True
False
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True or False: RFLP analysis uses less sample than current STR analysis.
Which analytical method is most com-
monly used for DNA analysis?
STR
What is the role of isoamyl alcohol in organic DNA extraction methods?
It is an anti-foaming agent
List three DNA quantitation techniques.
Slot blot, real-time PCR, and Picogreen Assay
Which step of DNA amplification involves the use of DNA (TAQ) polymerase?
Elongation
True or False: The negatively charged fragments of DNA move away from the anode toward the cathode
False
True or False: In DNA electrophoresis, smaller DNA fragments move faster than larger DNA fragments.
True
True or False: Y-STR is found only on the x chromosome.
False
True or False: If a sample is degraded, the chances of obtaining a mitochondrial DNA profile is less than obtaining a nu-
clear DNA profile.
False
Why should a laboratory implement a QA/QC program?
To make sure the lab is producing sound, scientific data, utilizing appropriate stan-
dards and controls, and using tested, val-
idated methods and procedures.
The ANAB (ANSI National Accreditation Board) is the result of a merger between which two accreditation boards in 2016?
LAB and ASCLD
True or False: Robust, validated methods are an error found in a laboratory with poor quality management.
False
Contamination issues, equipment cali-
bration and maintenance, standard oper-
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What issues must be addressed by a QA/QC program?
ating procedures, and proper documen-
tation of evidence handling.
True or False: Personnel files should in-
clude the qualification and training that each employee has completed for their particular job.
True
True or False: If laboratory staff is prop-
erly trained, there is no need to have a dedicated quality manager.
False
True or False: A hard copy of Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for chemicals in a laboratory is required. Only having online access to the SDS is not sufficient.
False
An SDS should include what informa-
tion?
Flammability, toxicology, and health haz-
ards
True or False: Hepatitis B vaccines must be made available to employees with- in 10 days of assignment to a position involving bloodborne pathogens.
True
All areas contaminated with biological waste must have fluorescent labels with the biohazard label in this color:
Orange and Orange Red
True or False: The laboratory does not need to keep separate areas for pre- and post-amplified DNA.
False
Roughly how many linear feet of hood per person should be provided for every two persons who work regularly with chemicals?
2.5 feet
True or False: When working with ani-
mals in a lab, it is imperative that the sick animals are kept away from the healthy ones, and facilities should be available to do so.
True
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Biological labs are often equipped with biological safety cabinets having HEPA (high efficiency particulate air) filters. The purpose of these safety cabinets is:
To protect the lab personnel from pos-
sible infections and to protect biological material (such as cell cultures) from in-
fections carried by the personnel.
When using radioactive materials in the lab, use of the higher energy gam-
ma-emitters may require:
Geiger counters as well as other coun-
ters.
True or False: Qualitative analysis of a test article is included in an analytical procedure.
False
True or False: When purchasing a certi-
fied reference material (CRM), the Cer-
tificate of Analysis that accompanies it will provide traceability, concentration and measurement uncertainty informa-
tion.
True
In seized drug analysis, the following are of concern when conducting
specificity studies:
Cutting agents, Impurities, and By-prod-
ucts
What is the minimum number of concen-
trations recommended to establish lin-
earity in a standard curve?
Six
When determining the LOQ (Limit of Quantification) in an analytical proce-
dure, one can refer to the signal-to-noise ratio and establish the minimum con-
centration at which the analyte can be consistently quantified. A typical sig-
nal-to-noise ratio for this is:
10:1
True or False: When analyzing a refer-
ence standard that is a suspension or a compound dissolved in a solution, it is not important to check the homogeneity of the sample before quantitative analy-
sis.
False
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The standard curve is constructed so that the maximum calibrator is _________ of the expected maximum concentration and the minimum calibra-
tor is at least _________ than the mini-
mum quantifiable value.
120%, 10% greater
True or False: Accuracy is generally re-
ported as the difference between the mean and the accepted true value to-
gether with the confidence intervals.
True
Precision is expressed as the relative standard deviation of the ____________ replicate analysis for each control sam-
ple.
Repeatability and Reproducibility
Regarding stability, if a sample under-
goes extraction, what variables
must be considered when conducting this parameter's validation studies?
Time awaiting analysis, software mal-
function, and electrical outage
Regarding stability, variation in peak area and peak area ratio of drug (and/or metabolites) and internal stan-
dard should typically be less than __________ and independent of time of injection.
5%
True or False: Estimating the calculation of the uncertainty of measurement in-
volves the use of statistical formulas and the inclusion of all sources that play a contributing role.
True
Type _________ uncertainty is based upon the inherent biases in measuring systems that may be found via informa-
tion such as manufacturer's certificates or calibration certificates.
B
What type of qualification occurs when the instrument is tested and shown to Operational Qualification
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meet previously set specifications (which have usually been set by the vendor).
What are additional forms of equipment inspection?
Calibration, tuning procedures, and per-
formance qualification.
True or False: Preventative maintenance (such as 6-month calibrations) is an ex-
ample of routine maintenance.
False
True or False: The American Chemical Society states that the terms calibration and standardization are the same thing.
False
Name some laboratory instruments that should undergo calibration.
Thermometers, pipettes, and pH meters.
What form of documentation prevents analytical results from being challenged on the following two methods: showing an analytical procedure used was inac-
curate and raising doubt as to whether the sample was really the one that was originally obtained?
Chain of Custody
What information is recorded during sample collection?
Date and time of sample collection, a unique identification number, and the name of the person collecting the sam-
ple.
True or False: Regardless of its origin, each sample must be collected in an in-
dividual container that is sealed, labeled with a unique identification number, and stored under appropriate conditions in the field in order to ensure its stability and integrity.
True
True or False: When samples are collect-
ed for inclusion in DNA databases, only federal guidelines apply.
False
What should a lab employee do upon noticing that the identification numbers 10 / 25
PHA 6936 Special Topics in Forensic Science Quizzes
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on a sample do not correspond with the numbers on a chain of custody form?
Refuse receipt of the sample or analyze the sample and document inadequate documentation.
True or False: Sample preparation proce-
dures may include extractions and ampli-
fications
True
True or False: When batch analyses are conducted, a second person must ob-
serve all transfers in order to confirm that they were conducted correctly.
True
What documents may be included in the chain of custody?
A transmittal document to describe field activities and receipt of the sample, a document that records storage and dis-
posal activities, and a document that fol-
lows the sample through its analysis.
What should be included in the process to select an appropriate LIMS?
Determining the role of the LIMS, prepar-
ing a list of requirements for system se-
lection, and preparing and distributing Request for Proposals (RPF)
At least how many times must calibration standards, blanks, and samples be run to ensure repeatability of results?
Three
Which information management system serves as a central repository for all in-
strumental data?
LIMS
True or False: A lab that has a Lab-
oratory Information Management Sys-
tem (LIMS) should properly record any data with respect to purpose, date and time, identification number, instru-
ment(s) used for analysis, operator, etc.
True
Which 2006 sporting event had an ath-
lete who was accused of using
illegal drugs, but his sample's chain of custody was questioned leading to
The Tour de France
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the validity of his sample also coming into question?
True or False: The FDA does not require approved SOPs for the analysis of a wide variety of drugs and chemicals.
False
True or False: When developing an SOP, a laboratory can use peer-reviewed lit-
erature, another laboratory performing that analysis, or modification of an al-
ready approved method to develop its own SOP.
True
In what format should page numbers be recorded in an SOP?
Page x of y
The ______ briefly elaborates on the title, providing information about the concentration range and minimum de-
tectable level of the specified analytes when measured by the technique. Also mentioned are the matrix for which the method is valid and interferences with the measurement of the analyte.
Scope
What information needs to be recorded in the header of every page of a SOP document?
Revision number, short title/ID number, date, and page number
True or False: SOP is the same as proto-
col.
False
Which organization is concerned with the safety of human subjects and the confidentiality of all information involving each individual? All studies proposing to use human subjects must be approved by this organization prior to initiation of any experimentation.
IRB
What term is defined as the individual, organization, or testing facility that initi-
Sponsor
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ates and supports a study either finan-
cially or through other resources?
How long is a sponsor or investigator required by the FDA to maintain
study records following the approval of an application for marketing a
drug?
2 years
What is precision?
a measure of how close two values are to each other
True or False: Crossover experiments and using the double-blind technique can help reduce bias in a study protocol.
True
What documents that the laboratory has accomplished the task for which it was funded?
The Final Report
What items do the FDA and EPA require to be included in the research plan sec-
tion of a final report?
Description of test articles, description of the test system, and a description of the methods used.
True or False: All steps in the interpre-
tation of raw data obtained from experi-
ments must be documented.
True
How many types of statistics can be used to interpret data once it has been ob-
tained?
Two
What are the two types of statistics used to interpret data?
Inferential and Descriptive
True or False: Median is the sum of all values divided by the number of values.
False
True or False: As the number of values increases (i.e. population of the group gets larger), there is greater confidence that the observed value is the true value.
True
What is the measurement considered to be the best measure of precision and is Variance
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the square of the standard deviation of a data set?
True or False: Calibration curves cannot provide a good example of a linear rela-
tionship between two variables having a functional relationship.
False
Which statistical test is useful for analyz-
ing inferential statistics, especially when one wants to know whether the average values are different for a specific para-
meter obtained by two different methods or analysts?
T-test for paired average
True or False: Records provide informa-
tion about the work done in a lab such as raw data, instrument repair, modules, drafts, and publications in addition to fi-
nancial and legal protection for the lab and personnel.
True
True or False: Grant proposals, informa-
tion about reagents, controls, and refer-
ence standards, personnel information, and job descriptions are records that must be saved.
True
True or False: Hand written notebooks are an acceptable way to record data in a lab.
True
Which governing bodies can mandate the amount of time records must be stored?
Federal/state government, granting agency and/or university, and the labora-
tory itself.
How many copies of all electronic records should be made and stored at different locations to prevent data loss or damage?
Two
The variability of error can be checked through the implementation of ______.
AQC
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True or False: The composition of an an-
alytical suite must be carefully consid-
ered in order to ensure that the choice of analytes in the suite is meaningful to the customer and is defensible in the context of their application.
True
At which times should samples be sep-
arated from each other and from other sources of potential contamination?
During transit to, storage at, and during the analysis (aka ALWAYS)
True or False: Reagent blanks do not need to be analyzed as part of method validation.
False
Calibration standards placed in an ana-
lyte-free matrix that is the same, or simi-
lar to, the substance containing the sam-
ple to be analyzed
"matrix-matched" calibration standards
Would it be acceptable for a laboratory to use a reference standard that is only 50% pure?
No
In the case of a non-violent breaking and entering case, ______
samples are usually what is submitted unless there is other evidence at
the scene to suggest that the crime was committed by more than one
individual.
one to two
True or False: Adulteration is the process of adding an impurity or inferior sub-
stance to a compound.
True
Accreditation is costly. The benefits of accreditation should be ______ while, at the same time, the cost of the accredita-
tion must be ______.
Maximized, reasonable
True or False: Implementation of AQC (Analytical Quality Control) will allow a lab to quantify the accuracy and preci-
True
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sion of a measurement, thereby under-
standing the result and how the result can be interpreted.
What is the goal of a laboratory audit?
To ensure compliance with regulations and to provide information that leads to improvement of the total laboratory pro-
gram.
Which type of assessment is done by personnel having no previous involve-
ment in the project and is conducted when the lab considers it has completed all preparations for accreditations?
Pre-accreditation audit
True or False: When a deficiency is dis-
covered during an audit, it must be cor-
rected in order to maintain accreditation and, depending on the severity, opera-
tions of the lab may be suspended until it is once again in compliance.
True
Can an auditor question the results of a proficiency study?
No
True or False: The auditor cannot request results from proficiency studies
False
An auditor may ask for access to what information?
Access to employees familiar with the laboratory's operations, archived and present records, and correspondence with the regulatory body concerning vari-
ances in methodology, instrumentation, etc.
What is a false positive?
When a sample tests positive for a par-
ticular drug and none is actually present
What parameters should be noted when recording details about evidence?
Weight of the sample (wet or dry), colors or odors, nature of the substance, and the number of packages or units of the substance
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Drug compounds that are not chemically stable may be susceptible to what types of degradation?
Chemical, microbial, and physical degra-
dation
True or False: Different forms of electro-
magnetic light can induce chemical de-
cay of chemically unstable compounds.
True
True or False: Physical decomposition may involve changes in a drug's crystal lattice structure.
True
True or False: Color tests are confirma-
tive tests.
False
Which tests might be performed on sus-
pected cannabis?
Duquenois-Levine color test and micro-
scopic examination of the morphological features (clothing, cystolithic, and glan-
dular trichomes)
True or False: Traces of impurities in street drugs may cause misleading re-
sults or interfere with crystal formation, making identification difficult.
True
Which parameters are used in the iden-
tification of drug microcrystals?
Angle of extinction, sign of elongation, refractive index, and sign of absorbance
Which parameters affect how well an an-
alyte extracts into an organic solvent?
Degree of ionization, the pH of the drug environment, and the pKa of the drug
True or False: An acid is a substance that can be charged or uncharged and is capable of donating a proton.
True
True or False: The relative strength of an acid or base is not affected by the solvent environment.
False
True or False: Proton transfer can only occur in water.
False
Is the cocaine metabolite benzoylecgo-
nine acidic, basic, neutral, or ampho-
teric?
Amphoteric
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Define amphoteric
The ability to act as an acid or base
True or False: pH cannot affect the de-
gree of drug ionization.
False
True or False: pH is affected by temper-
ature.
True
True or False: The ionized form of a drug remains in the organic phase of an ex-
traction.
False
True or False: The partition coefficient (K) of a drug can be calculated from the concentration of the drug in the organic phase divided by the concentration in the aqueous phase.
True
List the steps of a solid phase drug ex-
traction
Condition, change pH environment, sample application, rinse, elution
What are the advantages of solid phase extraction when compared to liquid-liq-
uid extraction?
Selectivity, reproducibility, and speed
True or False: TLC is used as a confirma-
tory technique.
False
True or False: Silica gel as a stationary phase is composed of uniformly distrib-
uted particles and is weakly basic in na-
ture.
False
True or False: When the stationary phase is more polar than the mobile phase, this is referred to as a normal phase system.
True
Which parameters affect the Rf value of drugs separated by TLC?
The stationary phase, temperature, the mobile phase, and the mass of the sam-
ple.
What are the common components and/or features of a drug immunoassay?
Competitive binding, labeled drug, anti-
bodies, and antigens
True or False: Competitive immunoas-
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between an analyte present in the sam-
ple with a labeled drug or an antibody specific for the drug of interest.
True
A ______ is a small non-immunogenic molecule attached to a larger immuno-
genic substance forming a new antigen that stimulates production of antibodies specific for the small molecule.
Hapten
True or False: Immunoassays can only be used for urine and blood specimens.
False
True or False: RIA is an example of a homogenous immunoassay.
False
Which techniques are examples of ho-
mogenous immunoassays?
KIMS, EMIT, FPIA, CEDIA
True or False: In CEDIA, the large recom-
binant protein fragment is the enzyme acceptor.
True
True or False: Amphetamine and methamphetamine are susceptible to cross-reactivity from meperidine, diphenhydramine, and chlorpromazine.
False
Define cutoff as it relates to immunoas-
says
The point below which all samples are considered to be negative
True or False: EMIT has a low false pos-
itive rate, works over a narrow range of concentrations, and is prone to ab-
sorbance effects from adulterants.
False
True or False: The velocity of light in a vacuum is a constant.
True
Electromagnetic radiation consists of ______.
Photons
Beer's Law
Relates transmitted light intensity to con-
centration
200-400 nm
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What is the wavelength range of UV light?
What factors can affect the relationship between concentration and absorbance, as represented by Beer's Law?
Fluorescence of the sample, non-mono-
chromatic light, particulates in the sam-
ple, and electrostatic interactions be-
tween molecules.
For UV absorbance spectrophotometry, what is the sample cell made of?
Silica
What is the light source used for disper-
sive infrared spectrophotometers?
A silicon carbide Globar
On what kinds of samples can infrared analysis be performed on?
Those in solution, as powders, as gases, and as a halide disk
The resolution of two peaks calculated using what two characteristics?
Peak width and retention time
Why are samples derivatized prior to GC analysis?
To increase stability at higher tempera-
tures, to improve peak shape, to increase volatility, and to improve separation
Which HPLC detector is sensitive to pg/mL levels?
Electrochemical
On a reversed-phase HPLC column, which compound is likely to elute first?
The most polar compound
Ionization in a mass spectrometer is pro-
duced by collision of the analyte with gas molecules and is known as:
Chemical Ionization
Isocratic separation is one that is achieved using:
A constant solvent composition
Which technique is considered to be a harsher ionization technique due to the potential for extensive fragmentation?
Electron Impact
Which mass analyzer relies on the veloc-
ity and kinetic energy of ions for separa-
tion?
Time of Flight
______ is the process of performing a set of experiments that reliably estimates Validation
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the efficacy and reliability of an analytical method or modification to a method.
True or False: Scedasticity describes the pattern of variance of measured residu-
als across a calibration curve.
True
True or False: Using a LOD reported in a peer-reviewed journal article describ-
ing the method is an appropriate method for determining LOD for a quantitative method.
False
True or False: Validation of all quantita-
tive methods require evaluation of Ion-
ization
Suppression/Enhancement.
False
A good guideline for bias acceptance cri-
teria is less than ____%.
20
True or False: During a forensic toxicolo-
gy validation, the compounds chosen to evaluate
selectivity of the method should only in-
clude drugs and metabolites from the same drug class as the analyte of inter-
est.
False
True or False: Robustness and Rugged-
ness are synonymous.
False
______ is a statistical description of how certain the laboratory is about their
reported result.
Measurement Uncertainty
Which blood test tests is typically used if blood is suspected but not visible to the naked eye, and also reacts with copper and iron compounds, cobalt ions, potas-
sium permanganate, bleach and plant peroxidases?
Luminol
Which phase of hair growth is the shed-
ding phase?
Telogen
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PHA 6936 Special Topics in Forensic Science Quizzes
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True or False: In electrophoresis, posi-
tively charged molecules will migrate to the positively charged anode
False
Red cell AG = A + Serum Ab = B
ABO Type is:
A
Red cell Ag = B + Serum Ab = A
ABO Type is:
B
Red cell Ag = A and B + Serum Ab = None
ABO Type is:
AB
Red cell AG = None + Serum Ab = A and B
ABO Type is:
O
A false negative is associated with:
the failure of the analytical test, can result in critical data loss, is considered less serious than a false positive
True or False: Precipitation tests are not an example of an indirect test when re-
ferring to microcrystal tests.
True
What color is produced by Marquis' reagent in the presence of Opium Alka-
loids?
Purple
Acidic compounds include:
Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Penicillin
True or False: Liquid-liquid extraction is less selective than other methods
True
Reversed-Phase System is when the mobile phase is ______ than the station-
ary phase.
more polar
What drugs cross-react with Cannabi-
noid immunoassays?
Naproxen, Ketoprofen, Tolmetin
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PHA 6936 Special Topics in Forensic Science Quizzes
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Disadvantages of ELISA include:
cost per sample high, sodium azide will block action of horseradish peroxidase, cumbersome set-up
True or False: In GC/MS, the most abun-
dant ion is usually assigned a relative abundance of 100%; it is known as the molecular ion.
False
Mass spectrometry ionization methods include:
CI, MALDI, and EI
A signal-to-noise ratio greater than ______ is generally considered accept-
able for estimating the limit of detection limit.
3:1 or 2:1
Cocaine is commonly cut with:
sodium bicarbonate, lidocaine, and caf-
feine
Who is credited with being the first to use latent prints in a criminal case, as well as being the first to use systematic crime scene photography for recording a scene?
Bertillon
When securing a crime scene, bound-
aries typically start at the focal point of the scene and extend outward to include:
Where the crime occurred, Potential points of entry and exit of suspects and witnesses, Places where the victim or evidence may have been moved
Rigor mortis remains for ______ then disappears again
2-3 days
What should be recorded via photogra-
phy at a crime scene?
The overview, a general shot with fea-
tures to identify the location, The loca-
tion of any significant evidence, usually a mid-range shot, The evidence detail, perhaps with close-up procedures
True or False: Fire requires fuel and oxy-
gen to continue burning
True
Cyanoacrylate Fuming reacts with:
amino acids, fatty acids, and proteins in the latent print and the moisture in the air
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Which physical developer of fingerprints produces a visible, sticky, white material along the ridges of the fingerprint?
Cyanoacrylate Fuming
True or False: X-ray diffraction is usually not suitable for the identification of or-
ganic pigments
True
The DNA in human body fluid cells will be degraded rapidly on items (rich in mi-
croorganisms) such as:
foliage, soil, and carpeting
True or False: Physical struggles are not likely to result in the transfer of some trace DNA evidence from subject to vic-
tim.
False
Smokeless powders (propellants) in-
clude:
Guncotton, Ballistite, and Cordite N
What was used prior to DNA for origin determination of biological stains and flu-
ids?
Polymorphic enzymes
Automobile paint typically has a mini-
mum of ______ layers
4
True or False: In an SOP there should be a section for referenced documents, such as equipment manuals and other SOPs, as these documents are already present in the lab.
True
The ______ is responsible for the coach-
ing and mentoring of the staff as well as the technical performance of the analy-
ses, the interpretation, analysis, docu-
mentation and reporting of results.
Laboratory Director
______ uncertainty can be gathered from historical laboratory data, that is, a large number of repeated measure-
ments taken of the analyte over a period of time.
Type A
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True or False: when a sample is logged into a laboratory there is a record that states when the sample was received and logged in
True
True or False: Preventative maintenance usually involves simple procedures in-
tended to protect the equipment and/or personnel.
False
What should be done in experimental design?
The number of samples or subjects must be sufficiently large to provide a repre-
sentative set of data., The variables must be controlled., A measurement (weight, quantity, etc) is preferred over an obser-
vation (e.g., the patient was slightly, mod-
erately, or very nauseated).
True or False: One is not able to show that correct analytic procedures for the sample were followed by using archived records.
False
An auditor may want/to do what?
The auditor may track a random speci-
men from time of collection to final re-
sults and report., The auditor may in-
spect many different types of records, The auditor may want to see how results are calculated
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