BIOL 2311 - Exam 2(1) - Tagged
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NAME: BIOL 2311 – Exam 1 (53 questions; Max score: 125
out of 100 points)
Multiple choice questions (50 questions – 2 points per question)
. Choose a single answer per question.
1. Which of the following statements about the skin is always accurate? a. Its super;cial region is known as the epidermis.
b. Its middle region is known as the dermis.
c. Its deepest region is known as the hypodermis.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
2. Which of the following statements about the epidermal cell types is incorrect?
a. Merkel cells send information to sensory neurons
b. Keratinocytes produce the ;brous keratin protein
c. Melanocytes produce the pigment melanin
d. Langerhans cells produce macrophages e. None of the above
3. Using a microscope, Student A observes that an unknown sample that is made up of ;ve distinct layers or strata. Student A is likely viewing a _______________.
a. thin dermis
b. thick dermis
c. thin epidermis
d. thick epidermis
e. none of the above
4. The palmar and plantar body regions experience high amounts of abrasion, and they contain ;ve epidermal strata. Which of these epidermal strata consists of non-living cells? a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum granulosum
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
5. The stratum basale is the deepest epidermal layer. Which of the statements about it is inaccurate?
a. It consists of a row of actively dividing stem cells.
b. It is comprised of the “youngest” keratinocytes.
c. It contains melanin-producing melanocytes. d. It contains dermal dendritic cells for immune function.
e. none of the above
6. The stratum spinosum or prickly layer contains cells that appear spikey. These cells are called __________. a. prekeratin ;laments
b. desmosomes
c. keratin -
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d. keratinocytes
e. all the above
7. Which of the following statements relating to the stratum corneum layer is accurate?
a. It contains dead and Rat keratinocytes.
b. It continually sheds dead cells. c. It functions to protect from abrasion. d. It contains glycolipids in the intracellular space
e. none of the above
8. Which of the following statements relating to the dermal layer is incorrect?
a. It contains dermal macrophages for immune function.
b. It is made of strong and Rexible connective tissue. c. Its reticular layer is 80% of the entire dermal thickness. d. Its thin papillary layer is avascular.
e. none of the above
9. Student B is examining an unknown ;ngerprint in a laboratory exercise and notes its distinctive swirling pattern. This swirling ;ngerprint pattern is due to: a. the super;cial epidermal ridges
b. the deep papillary ridges
c. the dermal opening for sweat glands
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
10. Student C in a lab simulation makes an incision __________ the cleavage lines. This causes slowed healing and increased scarring. a. matching
b. parallel to
c. in the same direction of
d. perpendicular
e. all the above
11. Melanin acts as a pigment shield against UV, protecting the DNA in the nucleus of __________ (a cell type). a. tactile cells
b. dendritic cells
c. melanocytes
d. keratinocytes
e. all the above
12. Which of the following appendage of the skin contains epithelial cells?
a. hair
b. nails
c. sweat glands
d. all the above
e. none of the above
13. While brushing their hair, a middle-aged individual found several gray hairs. Which of the following is a likely reason for the presence the gray hairs? a. decreased melanin production
all are true except for D v
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and
penetration
v
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-
b. increased bubbles in hair shaft
c. increased dead keratinized cells
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
14. The expanded deep end of the hair follicle contains the _______________, which is responsible for growth of hair.
a. hair shaft
b. hair root c. hair bulb
d. hair matrix
e. all the above
15. Patient A displays blue-tinged nails that may be indicative of reduced oxygen level. This nail color is directly due to the vascularized ____________________. a. body of the nail
b. epidermis
c. root of nail
d. dermis
e. all the above
16. The __________ (a skin appendage) contains hard keratin, which makes their structure tough and resilient. a. hair
b. nail
c. epidermis
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
17. The ceruminous glands located in the external ear canal secretes cerumen or earwax. This best illustrates:
a. eccrine oil gland
b. eccrine sweat gland
c. apocrine oil gland
d. apocrine sweat gland
e. sebaceous oil gland
18. Acne is characterized by the excessive sebum secretion plugging the _______________.
a. sebaceous gland
b. apocrine sweat gland
c. hair follicle
d. a and c
e. b and c
19. Mutation in the gene coding for defensin (an antimicrobial peptide) led to increased bacterial activity in the skin. This scenario best demonstrates defective __________ barrier function of skin. a. biological
b. mechanical
c. physical d. chemical
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e. all the above
20. Student D is examining an unknown sample from the skin and found it to contains high concentration of H
+
ions. This unknown sample is likely from:
a. an antimicrobial peptide
b. a keratin
c. a glycolipid
d. an acid mantle e. a macrophage
21. At extreme high temperatures, sensible perspiration is produced to cool the body down. This scenario best illustrates the function of the _______________. a. eccrine sweat glands
b. apocrine sweat glands
c. sebaceous glands
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
22. Calcium absorption requires vitamin D, and the skin participates in its synthesis. Which of the following vitamin D synthesis steps does not occur in the skin? a. vitamin D3 is converted into vitamin D
b. 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted into vitamin D3
c. UV absorption by 7-dehydrocholesterol
d. b and c e. a, b, and c
23. The integumentary system functions as a blood reservoir holding up to 5% of body’s blood volume. This scenario best illustrates the function of the _______________.
a. vascular dermis
b. avascular epidermis
c. vascular hypodermis
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
24. A mutation causing non-functional free nerve endings will most likely cause defects in perceiving ________.
a. pain
b. temperature c. touch
d. b and c e. a, b, and c
25. Patient B was diagnosed with skin cancer caused by abnormal melanocytes over proliferating. This is likely:
a. melanoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. basal cell carcinoma
d. all the above
e. none of the above
26. Which of the following statements relating to burns is incorrect?
-
a. Second-degree burns having damage in the upper dermal layer only
b. First-degree burns have damage only in the epidermis
c. Third-degree burns exhibit damage in the entire skin thickness
d. all the above e. none of the above
27. In third degree or full thickness burns, the patient typically does not experience pain. This scenario best illustrates:
a. the absence of free nerve endings
b. the presence of free nerve endings
c. the absence of exteroreceptors
d. the presence of exteroreceptors
e. none of the above
28. Skeletal cartilages are avascular. They depend on __________ , which is vascularized for nutrient delivery.
a. perichondrium b. chondrocytes
c. connective tissue
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
29. Cartilage growth occurs in two ways: __________, where cells secrete matrix against the external face of while __________, where cells secrete matrix from within the cartilage.
a. appositional; interstitial
b. appositional; calci;cation
c. interstitial; appositional
d. interstitial; calci;cation
e. calci;cation; ossi;cation
30. Which of the following statements relating to skeletal cartilage types is accurate?
a. articular cartilage in joints is hyaline type of cartilage
b. intervertebral disc is elastic type of cartilage c. epiglottis is ;brocartilage type of cartilage
d. all the above
e. none of the above
31. Which of the following statements relating to bone classi;cation by shape is incorrect? a. all long bones are wider than they are long
b. Rat bones are thin and slightly curved
c. all irregular bones have complex shapes
d. short bones have cuboid shapes
e. none of the above
32. Yellow bone marrow ;lled with triglyceride fats are stored in medullary cavities of long bones. This best illustrates: a. energy storage function of bones
b. mineral storage function of bones
c. hormone storage functions of bones
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d. all the above
e. none of the above
33. Defective ligaments results in improper connection between bones especially at joints. This best illustrates:
a. movement function of bones
b. support function of bones
c. protection function of bones
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
34. The long bone structure is composed of the epiphyses, diaphysis, and membranes. Which of following statements relating to long bone structure is incorrect? a. the epiphyseal plate is the remnant of the growth line, where bone growth occurs
b. the epiphyses are made up of the internal spongy bone surrounded by compact bone
c. the diaphysis has a marrow cavity containing yellow marrow in adults
d. the medullary activity in the diaphysis is surrounded by compact bone e. all the above
35. The periosteum is the glistening white, double-layered membrane that covers the external surface of the entire bone except the joints. Which of the following statement about periosteum is inaccurate? a. it covers spongy bone from outside and compact bone within
b. its osteogenic layer contains osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteogenic cells
c. it is innervated by nerve ;bers nutrient blood vessels and lymphatic vessels
d. it is secured to the underlying bone by Sharpey’s ;bers
e. none of the above
36. Patient C is anemic, having decreased healthy red blood cells. One way the body responds to this anemic state, is that _____ marrow is converted from the _____ marrow found in the medullary cavity. a. red; yellow
b. red; red
c. yellow; red d. yellow; yellow
e. none of the above
37. The bone-forming cells called the osteoblasts are found in the __________, a delicate membrane on the internal surfaces of bone.
a. endosteum
b. periosteum c. mediosteum
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c 38. Which of the following statements about the red bone marrow location is correct?
a. it is found in the trabecular spaces of the diploe
b. it is found in the trabecular spaces of long bone metaphysis
c. it is found in the trabecular space of long bone diaphysis
d. all the above
e. none of the above
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39. Foramen or holes in the skull serves as passageways for nerves and blood vessels. This best illustrates:
a. bone markings
b. bone projections
c. bone depressions
d. all the above
e. none of the above
40. Which of the following statements about cells of the bone is inaccurate? a. osteogenic cells are stem cells giving rise to all bone cells bone matrix
b. osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells that break down bone matrix
c. osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain bone matrix
d. osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that synthesize e. none of the above
41. Student E is viewing an unknown sample containing bone cells that are characterized as having multiple nuclei and a rujed border. This is most likely an:
a. osteoblast
b. osteoclast
c. osteocyte
d. all the above
e. none of the above
42. In conditions like osteopetrosis, the bone matrix is characterized as being overly dense. This condition is most likely caused by:
a. excessive osteoclast activity
b. excessive osteoblast activity
c. excessive osteocyte activity
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
43. Which anatomical structure in compact bone is responsible for housing the mature bone cells? a. canaliculi b. lacunae
c. perforating canal
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
44. Patient D is reported to have severely reduced calcium and phosphorous concentrations in the body. This can ultimately lead to:
a. reduced calcium phosphate salts resorbed into bone
b. reduced calcium phosphate salts deposited into bone
c. reduced calcium phosphate salts equilibrated into bone
d. all the above
e. none of the above
45. The epiphyseal plate contains growing cartilage during postnatal bone growth, best illustrates: a. appositional growth
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~
b. interstitial growth
c. intermembranous growth d. endochondral growth
e. all the above
46. Patient E was diagnosed with an overly active thyroid gland producing excessive thyroid hormone. This scenario can ultimately lead to:
a. excessive testosterone activity
b. excessive growth hormone activity
c. excessive estrogen activity
d. all the above
e. none of the above
47. Mutations that prevent osteoclasts from releasing lysosomal enzymes lead to reduced digestion of organic matrix. This best illustrates:
a. reduced bone deposition
b. reduced bone resorption c. reduced bone equilibrium
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
48. Patient F is found to have an overly active parathyroid gland that makes and secretes excessive parathyroid hormone. This can lead to:
a. increased bone density
b. reduced bone density
c. unchanged bone density
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
49. Patient G is found to have excessive calcitonin levels in the body leading to increased bone density. In this scenario, the ______________ activity is most likely enhanced.
a. osteoclast
b. osteoblast
c. osteocyte
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
50. In the absence of vitamin D, dietary calcium cannot be absorbed into the blood stream. This loss of calcium can lead to:
a. strengthening the bone
b. weakening the bone
c. no change in the bone
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
Short answer question (3 questions – total 25 points)
. Use your own words for all responses – plagiarized responses will not be given any credit. Limit your responses to the speciPed max sentence count. 51. Keratinocytes are the major cellular component of the epidermis. They are found in the 4 major epidermal strata: basale, spinosum, granulosum and corneum. Explain the characteristics of and changes in the keratinocytes at each epidermal layer. (8 points; maximum 8 sentences)
52. Our skin discharges two major types of secretions, namely sebum (via sebaceous gland) and sweat (via eccrine and apocrine glands). Explain the similarities and dilerences across the three glands including their secretions, mode of emission and function. (9 points; maximum 9 sentences)
53. Patient Z has a completely fractured tibia after an accidental fall during a hiking trip. After reduction of the broken ends and immobilization via a cast, Patient Z is advised that it may take 3-6 months to fully heal. Identify and then explain what occurs in each of the 4 stages of bone fracture repair. (8 points; maximum 8 sentences)
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51. The stratum basale is considered the deepest epidermal layer that attaches to the dermis, has a single row of stem cells that undergo rapid cell division, and takes about 25 to 45 days for the basal layer to surface. When there is a change in the keratinocytes it affects the production of keratin which is used to help form your skin, hair, and nails. Then the stratum spinosum also known as the prickly layer due to the keratinocytes, along the keratinocytes are melanosomes and dendritic cells that are abundant, it contains a weblike system that consist of intermediate prekeratin filaments that attach to desmosomes. When there is a change in the keratinocytes it affects the strength and flexibility of the skin. Stratum granulosum has about 4 to 6 thick cell that is flattened when keratohyalin accumulate it help keratin fiber in the upper layer, then accumulated lamellar causes a water-resistant glycolipid, also cells above this layer tend to die. When there is a change in the keratinocytes it affects the water barrier that is created by the keratinocytes. lastly stratum corneum has about 20 to 30 row of dead, flat, glycolipids, and keratinized sacs, this layer is used as protection, a barrier, and is waterproof. When there is a change in keratinocyes it decreases that the protection that is needed for the skin. 52. There are two different types of secretion sebum which consist of sebaceous and sweat which consist of eccrine, and apocrine glands which all have some similarities and differences. Both sebaceous glands and sweat glands protect the skin from getting too dry. However sebaceous glads create an oily substance known as sebum while sweat glands create a watery substance known as sweat. Both the eccrine and apocrine sweat glands are located in the dermis and hypodermis, they both have the same secretory cells, and they both have myoepithelial cells. However the eccrine glands occur all over the skin while the apocrine glands just appear in the armpits am perianale areas. Then they both have different diameters and both secretory units are made up of different things. Sebaceous glands produce and secrete sebum which is used as a lubricant for the skin to use as protection, glands can secrete sebum in hair follicles that don't contain ducts. Eccrine glads help maintain homeostais in order to cool the body and regulate the temperature, Eccrine glands secrete water that contains electrolytes in the skin surface. Lastly apocrine glands functions as scents glands which causes the production of body odor and secrete fatty sweat. 53. When a bone is fractured it goes through four different stages to repair The first stage is the fracture henatoma formation. This is when the blood vessels hemorrhage which causes blood clotting, so the blood vessels located at the broken end are sealed by the clotting. The second stage is the formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus. After the fracture capillaries will start to grow into the hematoma and the phagocytic cells start to clear the dead cells, so fibroblasts and osteoblasts start to reform the bone by producing collagen fibers that connect the bone ends together. The third stage is bony callus formation which is when the fibrocartilaginous is turned into a bony callus (spongy bone). It normally takes about 2 months for the broken bone ends to join together after the fracture. Then the last stage is bone remodeling so the bone callus gets remodeled by the osteoblasts and osteoclasts with material from the outside of the bone and the medullary cavity being removed. After compact bone is then added to create bone tissue since it is like the unbroken bone.
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