Women’s Gynecologic Health 3rd Edition 9781284076028

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2 2 CHAPTER 1 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Which of the following best defines the term “gender” as used in this text? a. A person’s sex b. A person’s sex as defined by society c. A societal response to a person’s self -representation as a man or woman d. A person’s biological presentation as defined by him self or herself 2. Which factor bears most on women’s health care today? a. The complexity of women’s health b. Women’s status and position in society c. Population growth d. The economy 3. Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies? a. The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue. b. The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult. c. The diversity of the news media clouds the issue. d. Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression. 4. Which of the fol lowing most accurately defines “oppression” as used in the text ? a. Not having a choice b. Not having a voice c. An act of tyranny d. A feeling of being burdened 5. In what way does a model of care based on a feminist perspective contrast sharply with a biomedical model? a. It provides a forum for the exploration of gender issues. b. It seeks equal distribution of power within the healthcare interaction. c. It emphasizes women’s rights. d. It opens new avenues for women’s health care. 6. Gender is rooted in _____________ and shaped by ________________ . a. society, biology b. self-representation, societal expectations c. biology, environment and experience Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

3 3 d. biology, hormones 7. W omen’s health risks, treatments, and ap proaches are not always based in science and biology because _________________________________________ a. they are often based on outdated treatments and approaches. b. they are determined by social expectations and gender assumptions. c. they often rely on alternative treatments and approaches. d. scientific research often fails to take women into consideration. 8. Reproductive rights were added to the World Health Organization’s human rights framework in the last _____________ ? a. 5 years b. 10 years c. 20 years d. 40 years 9. “Safe Motherhood” was added to the human rights framework in order to __________ a. address maternal morbidity and mortality on a global level b. meet a legal obligation c. correct an injustice d. correct an oversight 10. What is a chief failing of the biomedical model in regards to women’s health care ? a. Its reliance on studies comprised exclusively of males b. Its consideration of women as central the model c. Its emphasis on science and medicine d. Its limited definition of “health” as “the absence of disease” 11. The social model of health places the focus of health on _________ a. the community. b. the individual. c. environmental conditions. d. scientific research. 12. Which question below supports the strategy : “Identify women’s agency in the midst of social constraint and the biomedical paradigm.”? a. “Are ‘all women’ the same?” b. “Why do you care about the issue?” c. “Are women really victims or are they acting with agency?” d. “Who has a choice within the context of health?” 13. What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s? a. The focus on randomized clinical trials over epidemiological investigations b. The lack of representation of women in research trials c. The lack of research related to gynecology d. The focus on randomized clinical trials over observational research Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

4 4 14. Gender differences in heart disease can be found in __________ a. diagnosis. b. treatment. c. identification of symptoms. d. all of the above. 15. What opportunities are created by applying feminist strategies to gynecologic health? a. Better insight into research methods related to gynecology b. Better access to the populations affected by gynecologic health c. Better understandings from a wellness-oriented, women-centered framework d. Better understandings of the social construction of gender Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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5 5 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

6 6 CHAPTER 2 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. How does Erick Erikson’s grand theory of human development differ for females? a. It recognizes achieving autonomy as a primary focus. b. It assumes only men desire autonomy. c. It assumes female dependence on another in order to achieve a sense of self. d. It assumes females desire dependence on others. 2. What is true about human development theories published before the 1970s? a. They are based on interviews conducted only with men. b. They assume androcentric models can be applied correctly to women. c. They frame women’s development as flawed in comparison to the standard. d. All of the above. 3. What is the intention of the newer feminist models of development? a. To offer a new model within the traditional biomedical focus. b. To offer alternatives to the constrained and previously misapplied models. c. To replace male generalist models with female generalist models. d. To present a contrast to privileged, white male-based models. 4. What is a key limitation of prevailing developmental models for women? a. Gender differences assumed to be biologically determined are more often socially constructed. b. They present conflicting and misapplied models. c. Gender differences are assumed to be socially prescribed. d. Similarities between male and female are emphasized over differences. 5. What event in female development marks the beginning of a tension between biologic changes and the social context? a. Turning 18 years old b. The onset of menses c. The accumulation of adipose tissue with the onset of puberty d. Pregnancy 6. How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity? a. 3 stages b. 5 stages c. 6 stages d. 8 stages 7. What is the median age for the onset of menstruation for adolescent girls in the United States? Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

7 7 a. 9.8 b. 10.8 c. 12.8 d. 13.8 8. What factor limits an individual’s ability to function productively as an adult? a. Failure to take into account social and cultural norms b. The inability to move through the world with credibility and respect c. Poverty d. Failure to negotiate the developmental tasks of adolescence successfully 9. The type of thinking that influences the risk-taking behaviors of adolescence _____________________ a. involves the use of symbols, advanced reasoning and expanded possibilities. b. works proactively to achieve autonomy. c. encourages experimentation and foresight. d. is rooted in the immediate and concrete. 10. What narrow term is often used to refer to the period of Early Adulthood? a. Productive years b. Reproductive years c. Young Adulthood d. Adolescence 11. Why have women’s changing roles come at a cost to their health? a. Increases in caregiving expectations compromise health b. Balancing competing demands increases stress c. Less attention is being placed on health care d. Men’s roles have not changed in relation to the change in women’s roles 12. How do Franz and White (1985) expand Erikson’s theory of development? a. By proposing a two-pathway process that includes both individuation and capacity for attachment b. By refining Erikson’s single pathway to include capacity for attachment c. By expanding issues around career and lifestyle d. By expanding issues around identity 13. What factors affect the mood changes many women in midlife suffer? a. Deficiencies of estrogen b. Psychological transitions c. Cultural beliefs and expectations d. All of the above 14. What is the primary reason many older women live in poverty and have health problems? a. They outnumber older men. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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8 8 b. They have outlived their support systems. c. Their cognitive abilities decline. d. They must contend with ageism and sexism. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

9 9 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. b Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

10 10 CHAPTER 3 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. According to Wuest (1994), the major goal of feminist research is _______________ a. to change the design and evaluation of research. b. to liberate women from societal expectations. c. to emancipate the world from systemic bias based on gender and class. d. to expand notions of gender beyond stereotypes. 2. What concern prompted the initiation of the modern EBP movement in health care? a. That clinicians often failed to evaluate the effectiveness of their own care b. That expert opinion was valued over scientific evidence c. That scientific evidence was valued over expert opinion d. That patients were demanding more evidence to support care decisions 3. Quine’s (1952) concept of a web of interconnecting beliefs and knowledge supports _____________________ a. the inferiority of quantitative research. b. a multiple-method approach to examining phenomena. c. the superiority of qualitative research. d. the difficulties of establishing best practices. 4. Why are multiple approaches needed to identify best clinical practices? a. To reflect the multiple variables within clinical settings b. To offer alternatives to poorly functioning practices c. To address the complexity of the human condition d. To ensure that no single approach dominates 5. What is the third part of the clinical decision-making triad that includes clinical experience and patient preference? a. An investigation of treatment pathways b. A consultation with clinical management c. An evaluation of current clinical research d. Establishing research methodology 6. How many classifications are used by the U.S. Preventative Service Task Force to gauge the strength of recommendations for using research evidence in clinical practice? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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11 11 7. What are the corresponding clinical terms for Type I and Type II errors in quantitative research? a. “false positive” and “false negative” b. “negativity” and “positivity” c. “bias I” and “bias II” d. “evidence flaw” and “process flaw” 8. What key factor shapes the methodology of qualitative research? a. A person’s view of the world b. The ability to establish control over variables c. The ability to establish cause and effect d. A well-conducted meta-analysis 9. What is a difference between quantitative and qualitative research? a. One follows strict protocols while the other does not. b. One deduces the reason why something happens and the other induces why it happens. c. One places greater emphasizes on the expansion of knowledge. d. All of the above. 10. What field of study informs qualitative research? a. Anthropology b. Ecological psychology c. Sociolinguistics d. All of the above 11. Which research question most closely exemplifies a qualitative approach? a. Why do some women experience postpartum depression? b. How does physical exercise affect menopause? c. How does Kegel exercise affect a woman’s perinatal outcomes? d. Does a specific method of contraception cause weight gain? 12. What is a recognized limitation of EBP? a. Emphasis on the routinization of practice b. Over-reliance on RCT-derived results c. The challenge of staying abreast of current research d. All of the above 13. What is the purpose of the Stetler (2001) model of research utilization? a. To weigh the risks and benefits of EBP b. To supply methods for critiquing evidence c. To encourage a synthesis of all research methods d. To help move best evidence into the clinical practice setting 14. One common barrier to using EBP in clinical settings is the lack of confidence in critiquing research studies. The second is _____________________ Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

12 12 a. the lack of time to find studies. b. the lack of willing colleagues. c. the lack of support from management. d. the lack of protocol in using EBP. 15. What is the single most important action a clinician can take to advance EBP in the clinical setting? a. Employ quantitative research methods b. Employ qualitative research methods c. Question everything d. Consult with management Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

13 13 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. c Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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14 14 CHAPTER 4 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. What is the annual medical expenditure nationwide, approximately, due to smoking and being overweight? a. $60 billion b. $100 billion c. $160 billion d. $260 billion 2. What approach does Health People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives? a. Social determinants of health b. Evidence-based determinants of health c. Quality-of-life determinants of health d. Longevity promotion determinants of health 3. What percentage of the nation’s gross domestic product was spen t on health care in 2005? a. 0.6 percent b. 6 percent c. 16 percent d. 26 percent 4. Which of the following is a new focus area added for Healthy People 2020? a. Lesbian, gay, bisexual and transgender health b. Maternal, infant and child health c. Nutrition and weight status d. Family planning 5. Why must definitions of health and prevention be clarified? a. To provide clinicians with a standard point of view b. To shift from an illness-centered focus toward wellness c. To establish clarity and protocol d. To streamline health counseling and education 6. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the presence of a disease state ________________ a. necessitates prompt medical attention. b. excludes a person from being considered healthy. c. does not exclude a person from being considered healthy. d. classifies a person as in poor health. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

15 15 7. Which approach to health promotion comes closest to that advocated by the text? a. Is determined primarily by the clinician b. Pays close attention to cost effectiveness c. Focuses on the absence of disease d. Considers the patient and his or her cultural perceptions 8. Which of the following is considered primary prevention? a. Targeted immunization b. Serves that limit an existing disability c. Routine laboratory screening d. Rehabilitation 9. What ratio of ambulatory visits most closely represents those due to chronic or acute problems versus preventative care? a. 2/1 b. 1/1 c. 3/1 d. 5/1 10. What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women? a. motor vehicle accidents b. falls c. domestic violence d. All of the above 11. What is the USPSTF recommendation regarding firearms? a. Removed from homes with children under the age of ten b. Stored in locked compartments c. Removed from home or stored, unloaded, in locked compartments d. Removed from private homes 12. Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs? a. Abstinence-only education b. Counseling delivered in multiple individual or group sessions totaling more than 3 hours c. Remote counseling via Internet or phone d. Brief, individual sessions in the primary care setting 13. What is the leading preventable cause of death across all populations in the U.S.? a. Motor vehicle accidents b. Tobacco c. Obesity d. Alcoholism Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

16 16 14. What percentage of older women does NOT receive the recommended immunizations for their age group, according to a recent study? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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17 17 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. c Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

18 18 CHAPTER 5 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. A major contributor to pelvic stability is ____________________ a. the coccyx. b. the pubis. c. the ilium and its ligaments. d. the sacrum. 2. The sheet made up of dense fibrous tissue that spans the opening of the anterior pelvic outlet is/are the _____________________________ a. sphinter muscles. b. deep perineal space. c. perineal membrane. d. distal vagina. 3. How many different fiber sections subdivide the levator ani muscular sheet? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 4. What is the function of the Bartholin’s gland? a. To help prevent infection of the introitus b. To secrete lubricating mucus into the introitus during sexual excitement c. To assist in keeping the vaginal introitus closed d. To secrete estrogen and regulate its levels 5. Which arteries supply blood to the clitoris? a. Arcuate arteries b. Dorsal and clitoral cavernosal arteries c. Two ovarian arteries d. Coiled arteries 6. What is the approximate number of ovarian follicles at the initiation of puberty? a. 100,000 b. 200,000 c. 400,000 d. 600,000 7. The four segments of a fallopian tube are the pars interstitialis, the isthus, the ampulla, and the _________________________ a. infundibulum. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

19 19 b. medulla. c. hilum. d. myometrium. 8. What causes the epithelium to thicken, differentiate, and accumulate glycogen? a. Progesterone b. Pudendal nerve c. Estrogen d. Vagus nerves 9. About how many openings are in the nipple? a. 1 to 5 b. 5 to 10 c. 10 - 15 d. 15 - 20 10. What is one of the most frequent reasons women visit their clinician? a. Changes in menstruation b. Family planning c. Pregnancy d. Prevention and wellness 11. What is the objective of the endometrial cycle? a. To emulate the activities of the ovaries b. To produce an ovum c. To reach the menstruation phase d. To prepare a site to nourish and maintain the ovum 12. Ovulation is dependent on an increased level of ___________________ a. enzyme activity. b. progesterone. c. prostaglandins. d. estrogen and the LH surge. 13. What initiates contractions of the uterine muscle leading to menstruation? a. Lysosomal enzymes b. Vascular thrombosis c. Rupture of the basal arterioles d. Prostaglandins 14. Why does the cervical mucus become thick, viscous and opaque after ovulation? a. To make an hospitable environment for the sperm b. To promote stromal vascularization c. To relax the myometrial fibers that supply the cervix d. To reduce the risk of ascending infection at the time of implantation Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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20 20 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. d 14. d Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

21 21 CHAPTER 6 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. What does the Greek term “gyne” mean from which “gynecology” is derived? a. Speculum b. Gender c. Woman — more as queen d. To reproduce 2. What is the primary purpose of taking a health history? a. To learn about a woman’s he alth concerns b. To establish a relationship with a woman while learning about her health c. To identify any unresolved/latent health issues d. To ensure that a woman’s health care records are up to date 3. Which skills are valued in a clinician taking a health history? a. Respectful attention b. Empathy c. Trust-building d. All of the above 4. What should be the clinician’s first objective after learning the chief reason the woman desires care? a. To give the reason or problem a structural and chronological framework b. To probe for any additional concerns missed c. To take a family history related to the presenting concern d. To gain insight into the woman’s cultural and social influences 5. Which of the following should NOT be a part of taking a health history? a. Taking a family health history b. Seeking information on stressors or personal problems c. Asking about exercise and sleep patterns d. Counseling for tobacco-use cessation 6. In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: _________ a. Term births. b. Terminal pregnancies. c. Total number of pregnancies. d. Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean). 7. In a complete physical examination in the ambulatory gynecology setting, it is customary to ______________________________________ a. evaluate major organ systems briefly and carefully, but not exhaustively. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

22 22 b. ask the woman which physical examination maneuvers should be performed. c. evaluate major organ systems thoroughly. d. palpate the precordium. 8. How should the order of examination proceed? a. Head to toe b. Toe to head c. By major organ system d. By concern presented 9. Where may supernumerary occur? a. Anywhere from the neck to the ankle unilaterally b. Anywhere on the torso c. Anywhere along a vertical line from the axilla to the inner thigh d. Anywhere on the breast tissue, including the tall of Spence 10. Where in the breast do most malignancies develop? a. Upper inner quadrant b. Upper outer quadrant c. Lower outer quadrant d. Lower inner quadrant 11. Which type of speculum is best used to examine nulliparous women? a. Small Graves b. Pederson c. Large Graves d. Pediatric 12. What is the preferred maneuver order of the pelvic examination? a. Bimanual, external inspection and palpation, speculum b. External inspection and palpation, bimanual, speculum c. External inspection and palpation, speculum, bimanual d. Speculum, bimanual, external inspection and palpation 13. Under what conditions is a rectovaginal examination most useful? a. Under all conditions b. If screening for colorectal cancer is indicated c. If the uterus is anteverted or anteflexed d. If the uterus is retroflexed or retroverted 14. A clinician should present a therapeutic plan to the patient based on ___________________ a. the individual woman’s desire for information and the degree of severity of the finding. b. consultation with another health professional. c. the examining clinician’s findings and assessments. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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23 23 d. the individual woman’s cultural sensitivities and level of education. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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24 24 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. a Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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25 25 CHAPTER 7 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. What does a service grade of D represent in the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommendations? a. Service carries insufficient evidence to recommend it b. Service is found to be beneficial c. Service is found to be either of no benefit or potentially harmful d. Service should not be routinely provided 2. Which st atement best defines “risk factor”? a. Any factor which increases the need for medical attention b. Any behavior which places an individual at risk for illness c. The probability that an individual will develop a medical condition d. An attribute or exposure associated causally with an increased probability of a disease or injury 3. The USPSTF assigns a certainty level to assess the net benefit of a preventive service based on __________________________________ a. the nature of the overall evidence available. b. the cost-effectiveness of a service. c. known health outcomes. d. select studies in a limited primary care population. 4. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer? a. Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors b. Screening only for those women at increased risk c. Screening for all women starting at age 50 d. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over 5. What is the screening recommendation by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists for intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. Routinely ask all women direct, specific questions about abuse. Refer to community-based services when identified. b. Insufficient evidence to recommend for or against routine screening. c. No screening recommendation. d. Remain alert for signs of family violence at every patient encounter. 6. Alcohol consumption is considered hazardous for a woman who has ______________ a. either 5 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion. b. either 7 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion. c. either 9 or more drinks in one week or 4 per occasion. d. either 10 or more drinks in one week or 5 per occasion. Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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26 26 7. What is the Task Force recommendation grade assigned to screening all adults for depression? a. B b. A c. C d. D 8. How is being overweight defined on the BMI table? a. 18 to 29.9 b. 20 to 29.9 c. 25 to 29.9 d. 30 or greater 9. How is screening for the rubella immunity accomplished? a. By asking the patient b. By obtaining a history of vaccination or by ordering serologic studies c. By ordering serologic studies d. By obtaining vaccination records 10. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to screening all adults for tobacco use? a. A b. B c. C d. D 11. What is the Task Force recommendation regarding the efficacy of digital mammography or MRI versus the standard film mammography? a. Evidence exists that all screens are equally beneficial b. Film mammography is recommended as the best screen c. Digital mammography or MRI is recommended as the best screen d. Not enough evidence exists to assess benefits and risks as to which provides the best screen 12. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to cholesterol screening women between 20 and 44 years with preexisting risk factors for coronary artery disease? a. A b. B c. C d. D 13. Which of the following factor associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk? a. Smoking b. Low body weight c. Sedentary lifestyle Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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27 27 d. Family history 14. Which of the following are screening tests for type 2 diabetes mellitus? a. Fasting plasma glucose b. Two-hour post load plasma glucose c. Hemoglobin A1C d. All of the above 15. What population of women should be screened for signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction? a. All women b. Older women c. Older women, smokers, women with diabetes d. Older women, postpartum women, and women with Down syndrome Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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28 28 ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. d Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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29 29 CHAPTER 8 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS Select the one correct answer to each of the following questions. 1. Approximately how many weight-loss surgeries occur each year? a. 100,000 b. 150,000 c. 250,000 d. 375,000 2. How is body mass index (BMI) calculated? a. Weight in pounds divided by height in feet squared b. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared c. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared d. Weight in kilograms squared divided by height in meters 3. Bariatric surgery considered a valid treatment when _________________ a. a person’s BMI is between 35 and 40 and is accompanied by a high -risk comorbid disease. b. a person’s BMI is more than 25 and is accompanied by hypertension. c. a person’s BMI i s more than 40 and is accompanied by cardiovascular disease. d. a person’s BMI is between 25 and 29.9 and is accompanied by a high -risk comorbid disease. 4. Which statement about women who have had bariatric surgery is false? a. Her record of weight lost should not be included in her health history. b. Obesity has been shown to evoke negative responses from clinicians. c. Subtle, unintentional bias often manifests against these women. d. Clinicians need to strive to be nonjudgmental regardless of the patient’s body habitus. 5. Which is NOT a complication following bariatric surgery? a. Hernia formation b. Anemia c. Hearing loss d. Cholelithiasis 6. Where does iron and calcium absorption primarily occur? a. Stomach b. Duodenum c. Upper intestine d. Lower intestine 7. What is the recommended waiting period between bariatric surgery and pregnancy? a. 6 to 12 months Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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30 30 b. 12 to 24 months c. 24 months to three years d. Three to four years 8. Estrogen-containing contraceptive pills are known to increase the incidence of _____________________ a. kidney disease. b. kidney stones. c. gallstones. d. Addison’s disease. 9. Best practice clinical guidelines for directing the care of women who become pregnant after bariatric surgery _____________________________ a. have yet to be developed. b. include nutritional counseling. c. have been developed using research-based evidence. d. are incomplete. 10. What is the recommended prenatal weight gain if a woman’s BMI is 25 to 29.9 (overweight)? a. 8 to 11 pounds b. 11 to 15 pounds c. 15 to 25 pounds d. 25 to 30 pounds 11. Which statement regarding a relationship between obesity and psychological disorders is true? a. Psychopathology is both a cause and a consequence of obesity. b. Psychopathology is a consequence of obesity. c. Psychopathology is a cause of obesity. d. It is uncertain whether psychopathology is a cause or a consequence of obesity. 12. Mental health assessments after bariatric surgery may take the form of ________________________________ a. directing the woman to answer a questionnaire focused on mental health status. b. asking the woman questions during the history and physical examination. c. observing the woman’s affect, mood and appearance during the visit. d. All of the above Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN Verified Test Banks: https://linktr.ee/TestBankRN

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Women’s Gynecologic Health 3rd Edition 9781284076028

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