gms 6540 review exam 1

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Problem Set 1: Cancer Biology Question 1 1 / 1 pts Genetic changes are required for which of the following to occur? Select all that apply. Correct! Initiation/Transformation of a cell Formation of a pre-neoplastic lesion from an initiated cell Correct! Formation of a malignant tumor from a pre-neoplastic lesion Correct! Formation of clinical cancer from a malignant tumor Correct! Metastasis of a clinical cancer Question 2 1 / 1 pts What effect would a G12V mutation in Ras have on ERK? Correct! It would lead to increased activation of ERK. It would lead to decreased activation of ERK. It would increase the stability of ERK. It would decrease the stability of ERK.
Question 3 1 / 1 pts Are cancers more likely to develop mutation that activate or inactivate Rb? Activate Correct! Inactivate Question 4 1 / 1 pts Metabolites of nicotine commonly result in DNA point mutations. Which type of DNA instability is this an example of? Correct! Genetic instability Chromosomal instability Question 5 1 / 1 pts If a human cell underwent endoreduplication followed by failed cytokinesis, how many chromosomes would you expect that cell to now contain? 23 46 92 Correct! 184 368
Question 6 1 / 1 pts Which of the following statements is true regarding apoptosis. It does not occur in our bodies under normal circumstances. Is it a process to ensure cancer cell survival. Correct! Cancer cells must avoid it. Tumors seek to upregulate it. It can only be triggered by factors outside the cell. Question 7 1 / 1 pts Which statement best describes the Warburg effect? Correct! The switching of cancer cells from oxidative phosphorylation to aerobic glycolysis The switching of cancer cells from aerobic glycolysis to oxidative phosphorylation The process of making glycolysis more efficient The process of making glycolysis less efficient
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Question 8 1 / 1 pts A patient undergoes an FdG-PET scan. Will a tumor contain more or less 18 fluorodeoxyglucose than normal the surrounding tissue? Correct! More Less Question 9 1 / 1 pts Angiogenesis is __________________. the process of creating blood vessels where none currently existed Correct! the process of creating new blood vessels from current blood vessels Question 10 1 / 1 pts Is inflammation harmful or beneficial to cancer? Harmful Correct! Beneficial Question 11 1 / 1 pts If a cell expresses a mutant form of EGFR, would this be considered a tumor specific antigen or a tumor associated antigen? Correct! Tumor specific antigen
Tumor associated antigen Question 12 1 / 1 pts Which statement best describes how cancer cells overcome the Hayflick limit? They upregulated p53 They downregulate p53 Correct! They upregulate telomerase They downregulate telomerase Question 13 1 / 1 pts What chemical causes the most cigarette-related DNA mutations? Correct! Benzo[a]pyrene 5-Methylchrysene Chrysene Benz[a]anthracene Benzo[e]pyrene
Question 14 1 / 1 pts The Epstein-Barr virus, most famous for causing mononucleosis, also plays a prevalent role in the formation of what type of cancer? Non-small cell lung cancer Clear cell renal carcinoma Acute myelogenous leukemia Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma Correct! Burkitt’s lymphoma Question 15 1 / 1 pts What viral protein is capable of inhibiting p53? E3 E4 E5 Correct! E6 E7
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Problem Set 2: Anticancer Drugs Question 1 1 / 1 pts Which class of cancer drugs is the least selective towards cancer cells? Correct! Chemotherapy Targeted therapy Immunotherapy Question 2 1 / 1 pts Is chemotherapy generally more effective when tumors are small or large? Correct! Small Large Question 3 1 / 1 pts A tumor contains 10 9 cells. After a dose of chemotherapy, there are 750,000 cells remaining. When the second chemotherapy dose is given, the tumor has grown to 800,000 cells. How many cells do you expect to remain after the next dose of chemotherapy? 550,000 Correct! 600 7,5000
8,000 10 9 Question 4 1 / 1 pts Which statement best summarizes the treatment ramifications of the Goldie-Coldman hypothesis? Chemotherapy kills one log of cells per dose Cancers must be treated with chemotherapy when they are small Chemotherapy kills faster growing cells more efficiently Correct! Cancers must be treated with more than one drug Question 5 1 / 1 pts Does drug resistance increase or decrease the therapeutic index of cancer drugs? Increase Correct! Decrease Question 6 1 / 1 pts An inhibitor of what enzyme would be expected to increase the sensitivity of cancer cells to vincristine? Correct! MDR
TOPO II dihydrofolate reductase DNA polymerase Thymidylate synthetase Question 7 1 / 1 pts Based on their toxicity profiles, what drug is likely to be excluded from use to treat lung cancer? Paclitaxel Doxorubicin Cyclophosphamide Vincristine Correct! Bleomycin Question 8 1 / 1 pts What is the shared target of cyclophosphamide and cisplatin? Topoisomerase Microtubules
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Correct! DNA Dihydrofolate reductase RNA Question 9 1 / 1 pts Does paclitaxel increase or decrease the amount of microtubules in cells? Correct! Increase Decrease Question 10 1 / 1 pts Methotrexate targets cells in which phase(s) of the cell cycle? G1 Correct! S G2 M G0
Question 11 1 / 1 pts What is the most direct target of 5-FU? Topoisomerase Microtubules DNA Correct! Thymidylate synthetase RNA Question 12 1 / 1 pts Cytosine arabinoside directly prevents the formation of ______. Topoisomerase Microtubules Correct! DNA Thymidylate synthetase RNA
Question 13 1 / 1 pts What is the basis for the selectivity of Gleevec towards cancer cells? Correct! Cancer cells contain the Philadelphia chromosome Cancer cells have a BCR-ABL gene that is mutated compared to the BCR-ABL present in normal cells Imatinib targets faster growing cells It prevents the phosphorylation of BCR-ABL Question 14 1 / 1 pts What is the target of pembrolizumab? PD-L1 on cancer cells PD-L1 on T-cells PD-1 on cancer cells Correct! PD-1 on T-cells
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Question 15 1 / 1 pts Which cells will CTL019 kill? Select all that apply. Cancer cells lacking CD19 Correct! Cancer cells expressing CD19 Normal cells lacking CD19 Correct! Normal cells expressing CD19 Problem Set 3: Targeted Therapy Question 1 1 / 1 pts What is the process called when two EGFR proteins bind to each other? Conjugation Combination Colocalization Correct! Dimerization Translocation
Question 2 1 / 1 pts In what location does Cetuximab bind EGFR? Correct! Extracellularly Intramembranously Intracellularly Intranuclearly Question 3 1 / 1 pts Which type of immune cells induce ADCC in cells treated with Cetuximab? B cells Plasma cells Granulocytes Correct! Natural killer cells Monocytes Question 4 1 / 1 pts If a patient is being treated with Osimertinib, what were they likely treated with previously? Cetuximab
Correct! Erlotinib Trastuzumab Lapatinib Imatinib Question 5 1 / 1 pts What is the endogenous ligand for HER2? EGF Neu PDGF HGF Correct! It has no known ligand. Question 6 1 / 1 pts A breast cancer patient with a tumor with which characterization would be most likely to respond to Tamoxifen? ER - PR + HER2 + ER - PR + HER2 -
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ER - PR - HER2 - ER + PR + HER2 + Correct! ER + PR - HER2 - Question 7 1 / 1 pts Which class of drugs could potentially increase estrogen signaling? Correct! SERMs SERDs AIs Question 8 1 / 1 pts Which drug significantly increases the risk of DVTs? Tamoxifen Correct! Raloxifene Fulvestrant Anastrozole Exemastane Question 9 1 / 1 pts
Which drug is given intramuscularly? Tamoxifen Raloxifene Correct! Fulvestrant Anastrozole Exemastane Question 10 1 / 1 pts Enzalutamide blocks the signaling caused by which hormone? Correct! Testosterone Estrogen Progestin TSH FSH Question 11 1 / 1 pts Do x-rays have shorter or longer wavelengths than visible light? Correct! Shorter
Longer Question 12 1 / 1 pts Most DNA damage caused during x-ray radiation therapy is ______. Direct Correct! Indirect Question 13 1 / 1 pts Pieces of Iodine-125 are sometimes placed in the prostate to treat prostate cancer. This type of treatment is called. Teletherapy External beam therapy Proton therapy Correct! Brachytherapy Question 14 1 / 1 pts When treating a tumor with radiotherapy, what part of the tumor generally responds best to treatment? Hint: The outside of a tumor is generally more vascularized. This may not have been clear from the lecture. Inside Correct!
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Outside Question 15 1 / 1 pts Cells in which phase of the cell cycle are least likely to respond to radiation therapy? G1 Correct! S G2 M G0 Problem Set 4: Immunosupressant Drugs Question 1 1 / 1 pts What type of immune cell begins the sequence of events that leads to organ transplant rejection? T cells B cells Macrophages Eosinophils
Correct! Antigen presenting cells Question 2 1 / 1 pts An activated T cell induces T cell proliferation through the production of what signaling molecule? Correct! IL2 NFAT mTOR Calcineurin APC Question 3 1 / 1 pts Corticosteroids act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism? Preventing NFAT activation Correct! Preventing cytokine production Preventing IL2 secretion Preventing T cell proliferation
Preventing calcineurin activation Question 4 1 / 1 pts Some cancer chemotherapeutics act as immunosupressants most directly through the inhibition of what mechanism? Preventing NFAT activation Preventing cytokine production Preventing IL2 secretion Correct! Preventing T cell proliferation Preventing calcineurin activation Question 5 1 / 1 pts A patient suffering from the early stages of renal failure would be least likely to be prescribed which immunosuppressant? Prednisone Sirolimus Methotrexate Cyclophosphamide Correct! Cyclosporine
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Question 6 1 / 1 pts What type of immune cells produce antibodies? T cells Correct! B cells Macrophages Eosinophils Antigen presenting cells Question 7 1 / 1 pts Which birth scenario will require pharmacological intervention? Rh(D) positive mother carrying a Rh(D) negative baby after birthing a Rh(D) negative baby Rh(D) negative mother carrying a Rh(D) negative baby after birthing a Rh(D) negative baby Rh(D) positive mother carrying a Rh(D) positive baby after birthing a Rh(D) negative baby Rh(D) positive mother carrying a Rh(D) positive baby after birthing a Rh(D) positive baby Correct! Rh(D) negative mother carrying a Rh(D) positive baby after birthing a Rh(D) positive baby
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Question 8 1 / 1 pts Production of monoclonal antibodies involves the isolation of cells from which location? Thymus Correct! Spleen Bone marrow Lymph node Blood Question 9 1 / 1 pts Infliximab binds what protein? CD3 IL2 CD20 Correct! TNF-α IL6 Question 10 1 / 1 pts Muromonab is what type of antibody?
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Human Chimeric Correct! Mouse Problem Set 5: Antibacterials 1 Question 1 1 / 1 pts A patient undergoes outpatient surgery and is given a standard course of antibiotics but ends up back in the hospital a couple of days later with a severe Clostridium difficile infection. This is an example of which toxicity/complication? Hypersensitivity Correct! Superinfection Organ specific toxicity Drug interaction Question 2 1 / 1 pts Gram positive bacteria lack which structure when compared to Gram negative bacteria? Inner membrane Correct! Outer membrane
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Peptidoglycan Cell wall Question 3 1 / 1 pts Which class of antibacterials is bactericidal? Sulfonamides Tetracyclines Macrolides Correct! Fluoroquinolones Clindamycins Question 4 1 / 1 pts A patient has an infection caused by anaerobic Gram negative bacteria. Which antibacterial would be the worst choice to treat this infection? A tetracycline Correct! Ciprofloxacin Clindamycin Metronidazole
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Question 5 1 / 1 pts β-Lactams inhibit the proper formation of which part of the bacterial cell wall? Inner membrane Outer membrane Correct! Peptidoglycan Question 6 1 / 1 pts In order to induce an allergic reaction, penicillin must first covalently bind to ____. Lipids DNA RNA Carbohydrates Correct! Protein Question 7 1 / 1 pts Which β –lactam drug is active against cell wall synthesis in β-lactamase expressing bacteria? Penicillin G
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Clavulanate Vancomycin Correct! Dicloxacillin Amoxicillin Question 8 1 / 1 pts Which drug may be used as a noncompetitive inhibitor of β-lactamase? Penicillin G Correct! Clavulanate Vancomycin Dicloxacillin Amoxicillin Question 9 1 / 1 pts Which drug should not be given orally for a systemic infection? Penicillin V Clavulanate Correct!
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Vancomycin Dicloxacillin Amoxicillin Question 10 1 / 1 pts Sulfanilomide inhibits what enzyme? Dihydrofolate reductase Transpeptidase Correct! Dihydropteroate synthase β-lactamase Question 11 1 / 1 pts Trimethoprim inhibits what enzyme? Correct! Dihydrofolate reductase Transpeptidase Dihydropteroate synthase β-lactamase
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Question 12 1 / 1 pts In which type of patient would sulfamethoxazole not be appropriate for treating a bacterial infection? Heart failure Diabetic Correct! Cancer chemotherapy High blood pressure Question 13 1 / 1 pts A dose of Bactrim contains trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole in a 1:5 ratio. Once in the blood, this is a 1:20 ratio. Which drug has the greater bioavailability? Trimethoprim Correct! Sulfamethoxazole Question 14 1 / 1 pts Which bacterial mechanism of resistance is shared by both sulfonamides and trimethoprim? Correct! Altered drug target Altered permeability Metabolic inactivation
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Question 15 1 / 1 pts Sulfonamides can alter concentrations of other drugs in the body. In general, taking sulfonamides would be expected to ______ the plasma concentrations of these other drugs. Correct! increase decrease
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