AP 1 FINAL

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Anatomy

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Jan 9, 2024

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HUMAN ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY I DECEMBER 11, 2023 EXAM III NAME: ____________________________________ 1

1. Nerve impulses that reduce the heart's rate of contraction belong to which division of the nervous system? A. sensory division B. somatic nervous system C. sympathetic division D. parasympathetic division 2. Cranial nerve II sends impulses to the brain to interpret the things we see; thus, cranial nerve II is considered a/an _____. A. efferent nerve B. somatic nerve C. afferent nerve D. peripheral nerve 3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the somatic nervous system? A. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract B. innervation of cardiac muscle C. innervation of glands D. innervation of skeletal muscle 4. Nerve impulses that carry information about skin temperature are nerves that belong to which division of the nervous system? A. sensory division B. somatic nervous system C. sympathetic division D. parasympathetic division Indicate if the action is influenced by the parasympathetic (P) or sympathetic (S) nervous system. 5. pain. _____ 6. digestion. _____ 7. salivation. _____ 8. vasodilation. _____ 9. Spinal nerves are part of the _____ nervous system. A. central B. peripheral C. autonomic D. somatic 10. Wernicke’s area _____. A. controls eye movements B. is in the frontal lobe C. allows complex thoughts D. contributes to motor movements 2

E. is in the temporal lobe 11. A doctor asks you to follow his finger up and down with only your eyes and then left and right. Which cranial nerve is he testing? A. optic B. vestibulocochlear C. facial D. oculomotor E. trigeminal 12. Secretions from the adrenal glands cause a/an _____. A. parasympathetic response B. sympathetic response C. vagal response D. somatic response 13. Which of these is NOT a sensory nerve? A. oculomotor B. olfactory C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. all are sensory nerves F. all are motor nerves 14. Falling or stumbling might involve problems with this nerve. A. abducens B. vestibulocochlear C. trigeminal D. accessory E. vagus 15. Stapes, saccule, and incus are structures of the _____. A. eye B. midbrain C. outer ear D. middle ear 16. Sympathetic stimulation causes _____. A. increased gastrointestinal activity, increased heart rate and blood pressure B. increased gastrointestinal activity, decreased heart rate and blood pressure C. decreased gastrointestinal activity, and increased heart rate and blood pressure D. increased gastrointestinal activity, decreased heart rate and blood pressure 17. The parietal lobe of the brain is located within the _____. A. craniofacial skeleton B. axial skeleton C. peripheral nervous system 3

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D. ventral cavity 18. What body cavities contain the primary structures of the CNS? ___________________________ 19. Which is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord from superior to inferior? A. thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves B. cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves C. thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves D. cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves E. cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves F. 25. The spinal cord is NOT protected by _____. A. myelin sheaths B. meninges C. nerves D. CSF 26. Which area of the brain is responsible for memory? __________________ 27. An accumulation of blood between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater is called a/an _____. A. dural hemorrhage B. epidural hemorrhage C. subdural hemorrhage D. subarachnoid hemorrhage 30. Which cranial nerve transmits auditory information to the brain? A. accessory B. optic C. vestibulocochlear D. trochlear 31. Difficulty comprehending speech may indicate a problem with _____. A. the cerebral cortex B. the motor speech area C. Wernicke’s area D. the somatic nervous system E. Broca’s area 32. Mechanoreceptors are found in the _____. A. cells B. blood C. skin D. inner ear E. all the above 4

33. The _____ nerve controls pupil dilation and constriction, and is part of the _____ system. A. abducens; SNS B. vestibulocochlear; SNS C. optic; PNS D. oculomotor; ANS 34. The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes of the brain are part of the _____. A. diencephalon B. cerebrum C. cerebral cortex D. forebrain 35. The _____ is divided into left and right hemispheres which are paired together by the _____. A. cerebellum; corpus callosum B. brain; cerebrum C. cerebral cortex; ventricles D. cerebrum; corpus callosum 36. What is the medial meningeal layer called? _____________________ 37. Which of the following actions is the somatic nervous system responsible for? A. reacting to visceral pain B. the ability to see distinct colors C. increased respiratory rate D. flexing the bicep 38. Which of the following cranial nerves has both sensory and motor functions? A. vestibulocochlear B. optic C. trigeminal D. olfactory 39. Which cranial nerves emerge from the cerebrum, not the brainstem? (Select all that apply) A. CN 9 B. CN 1 C. CN 10 D. CN 5 E. CN 2 F. CN 3 40. A patient suffered a stroke leaving him unable to swallow. Which cranial nerve is affected? A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4 5

41. Select all the functions of the hypothalamus. A. controls autonomic nervous system B. reactive response to odors C. controls thirst D. regulates sleep 48. The ________ nerve innervates the trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and pharyngeal muscles. A. facial B. oculomotor C. hypoglossal D. accessory 49. TRUE or FALSE? Afferent and efferent nerves are part of the somatic nervous system. _____ 50. Cranial nerves are part of the _____________________ nervous system. 51. Which of these muscles does NOT participate in movement of the limb? A. pectoralis major B. flexor digitorum C. quadriceps femoris D. vastus lateralis E. all participate in movement 52. Which of the following is NOT a function of muscle? A. storing red and white blood cells B. aid in locomotion C. protect organs D. generate heat E. assist in stabilizing joints 53. What is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber? A. myofibril B. sarcomere C. striations D. endomysium 54. Muscle contraction occurs when myosin pulls actin toward _____. A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. calcium C. sarcomeres D. myofibrils 55. What protein is found in thin myofilaments? A. actin B. tropomyosin 6

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C. troponin D. myosin 56. Which of these muscles enables dorsiflexion? A. anterior tibialis B. occipitofrontalis C. extensor digitorum D. soleus E. vastus medialis 57. Each myofibril is surrounded by fibrous connective tissue sheaths called _____. A. sarcomeres B. perimysium C. endomysium D. epimysium 58. Central nervous system homeostasis relies wholly on _____. A. the brain B. the brainstem C. cerebrospinal fluid D. the blood-brain barrier 59. Choose the statement about the brainstem that is FALSE. A. 10 of the 12 cranial nerves emerge from the brainstem B. the brainstem is critically important to supporting homeostasis C. the brainstem regulates pulse, sleep, respiration, and consciousness D. the brainstem is covered in meninges E. the brainstem plays a role in the sleep-wake cycle 60. An individual severs his spinal cord in the area of T6. This injury will result in which of the following outcomes? A. paralysis below the hips B. paralysis below the cervical spine C. paralysis above the waist D. paralysis of all four limbs 61. The thoracic nerve plexus: A. controls movement of the limbs B. includes the phrenic nerve C. is in the region of T1 and T12 D. all the above 62. A muscle contracts when _____ in the _____ is released into muscle cells. A. calcium; sarcoplasmic reticulum B. ATP; ER 7

C. sodium; cells D. potassium; sarcoplasmic reticulum 65. This connective tissue attaches muscle to bone. A. epimysium B. perimysium C. tendon D. ligament E. cartilage 66. Muscle tissue that contracts involuntarily. A. skeletal muscle only B. cardiac muscle only C. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle D. smooth muscle only E. cardiac muscle and smooth muscle 67. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion used to name muscles? A. number of origins of the muscle B. shape of the muscle C. how muscle attaches to bone D. relative size of the muscle E. action of the muscle 68. A muscle located on the dorsal side of the body is the: A. biceps brachii B. rectus femoris C. deltoid D. latissimus dorsi E. sternocleidomastoid 70. The neurologist asks the patient to open his mouth and say “Ah.” At the same time, he touches the posterior aspect of the patient’s tongue with a tongue depressor, triggering the gag reflex. Which cranial nerves were assessed? A. CN 4 and 7 B. CN 9 and 10 C. CN 12 and 5 D. CN 7 and 6 72. A patient presents to the emergency department unable to move their right eye laterally. Which cranial nerve has been damaged? A. CN 6 B. CN 1 C. CN 3 D. CN 4 8

73. A patient tore his biceps femoris muscle while exercising. Which of these movements is he now incapable of doing? A. abducting the arm laterally B. flexing or extending the arm C. extending or flexing the leg D. adducting the shoulder E. rotation or circumduction of the arm F. dorsiflexion or plantarflexion of the foot 74. Which of these structures of the brain have neuro-endocrine functions? (Select all that apply) A. pineal B. hypothalamus C. thyroid D. thalamus E. cerebrum F. cerebellum G. pituitary 75. How many spinal nerves are there? _________ 9

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