Fall 2023 Study Guide # 2 ECED 105C - Tagged
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Dec 6, 2023
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Principles of Child Development
ECED 105C
Kunhee Lee
Study Guide # 2
Chapter 5
1. The process of a sperm uniting with an egg is called
A)
meiosis.
B)
implantation.
C)
fertilization.
D)
ovulation.
2. The first stage of prenatal development is the
A)
embryonic stage.
B)
fetal stage.
C)
germinal stage.
3.
The _____________________ stage of prenatal development lasts from about 2 weeks
postconception to two months.
A)
germinal
B)
embryonic
C)
fetal
D)
placental
4.
The embryonic stage of prenatal development is considered a critical period for development because
A)
this is the stage when the gender of the conception is determined.
B)
all major organs and structures are undergoing rapid development, and damage done at this point
can be both severe and irreversible.
C)
the conception may implant in the fallopian tubes rather than in the uterus.
D)
most of the genetic abnormalities that we see in infants happen during this stage of prenatal
development.
5. A couple is considered to have a problem with fertility if they
A)
miscarry more than two conceptions.
B)
fail to conceive within 1 year of frequent, unprotected sex.
C)
do not respond to infertility treatments, such as hormonal supplements.
D)
are both over the age of 35 years.
6. When infertility is a problem for a couple
A)
it is usually a problem with the viability of the sperm.
B)
it is usually a problem with the woman's production of viable eggs.
C)
one-third of the cases have to do with female factors, one-third are due to male factors, and the
remaining cases are mutual or can't be determined.
D)
in 70% of the cases the problem is related to female factors, and in the remaining 30% of the cases
it is related to male factors.
7. Couvade is
A)
when the woman first feels the fetus moving in her womb.
B)
a sympathetic pregnancy a man might experience while his partner is pregnant.
C)
a prenatal genetic diagnostic test.
D)
a measure of the newborn's functioning.
8. The current recommended weight gain during a pregnancy in the United States is
A)
15 to 18 pounds.
B)
18 to 23 pounds.
C)
25 to 35 pounds.
D)
Any amount of weight gain is acceptable.
9. It is a good precaution for a pregnant woman to
A)
limit her exposure to the sun during her pregnancy.
B)
stop exercising while she is pregnant.
C)
limit her consumption of caffeine.
D)
limit her intake of foods high in folic acid.
10.
The most common cause of miscarriage is
A)
genetic abnormalities.
B)
poor maternal diet.
C)
maternal smoking.
D)
maternal drinking.
11. Abnormal facial features, small stature, a small head, cognitive deficits, and trouble controlling
behavior and emotions are all characteristics associated with
A)
maternal rubella during a pregnancy.
B)
fetal alcohol syndrome.
C)
a poor maternal diet.
D)
use of prescription drugs while pregnant.
12. The effects of maternal drinking during a pregnancy
A)
are permanent and irreversible.
B)
reversible if the mother stops drinking at some point in the pregnancy.
C)
are reduced if the mother only drinks heavily during the early part of her pregnancy.
D)
are reduced if the mother only drinks beer or wine, but not hard liquor.
13. Which of the following statements about maternal smoking is true?
A)
The effect on the functioning of the child's brain is stronger for girls than it is for boys.
B)
Fortunately the rate of smoking has decreased the most among women ages 19 to 29 in recent
years.
C)
Stopping to smoke during a pregnancy will have no effect on the outcome of that pregnancy.
D)
Maternal smoking has been associated with attention deficit disorder, conduct disorders, and
learning disabilities.
14. During the phase of labor called transition
A)
contractions are relatively light and are not painful so the woman can continue light activities.
B)
contractions come rapidly with little or no break in them and the amniotic sac ruptures.
C)
the baby moves down into the birth canal and the woman has a strong urge to push.
D)
the uterus contracts following the birth of the baby and the placenta is expelled.
15. A birth may be assisted by a doula who is a(n)
A)
physician's assistant.
B)
certified midwife.
C)
trained companion who is present at the birth to support the woman.
D)
employee of the hospital who supervises the labor and delivery.
16. The Apgar Scale is used
A)
by the mother to describe the amount of pain she is experiencing during labor.
B)
by the doctor to assess the ease or difficulty of the delivery.
C)
to assess the overall condition of a newborn at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D)
by the parents to describe the quality of their transition to parenthood.
17. The American Academy of Pediatrics has recommended that
A)
parents and infants sleep in the same bed because it ensures a close emotional bond.
B)
infants sleep close to their parents, but that they do not sleep in the same bed.
C)
infants sleep in a separate room because this helps them develop emotional control and regulation.
D)
infants be kept awake until it is time for the parents to go to bed so everyone gets a good night's
sleep.
18. Which of the following statements about sudden infant syndrome (SIDS) is true?
A)
It is the leading cause of death in infants between 1 month and 1 year of age.
B)
The risk of an infant dying from SIDS increases the closer the infant gets to his or her first birthday.
C)
We have been able to do nothing to reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome in the
last 20 years.
D)
Allowing infants to sleep on their tummies helps to reduce the risk of SIDS.
19. A fetus can experience pain, touch, smell and taste.
(True or False)
20. Because herbal remedies are all natural, it is safe to use them during a pregnancy. (True or False)
21. Describe the 3 stages of prenatal development, including the number of days or weeks post-
conception for each.
22. What are the 3 trimesters of pregnancy? Describe what many mothers experience during
each trimester.
23. What symptoms may be exhibited in a father-to-be who experiences psychological
couvade?
24. Name 3 teratogens and describe their possible effects on the developing fetus.
25. What can a woman do to try to ensure a healthy pregnancy?
26. What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome?
regular prenatal care; healthy diet, regular exercise, avoid harmful substances, mantain healthy weight
he sudden death of a baby younger than 1 year of age that doesn't have a known cause,
even after a full investigation
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27. What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Chapter 6
1.
Messages are sent by a neuron through the _____________ and are received by the ____________.
A)
capillaries; synapses
B)
axons; dendrites
C)
axons; capillaries
D)
dendrites; axons
2. As an infant's brain continues to produce many synaptic connections
A)
the connections that are not used will be pruned, deteriorate and disappear.
B)
the number of synapses will begin to catch up with the number of neurons.
C)
neurons will begin to die off and are replaced by new neurons.
D)
each neuron will add new synapses but will lose axons and dendrites.
3. Experience-expectant brain development occurs
A)
in responses to specific learning experiences that can be unique from one individual to another.
B)
after a period of extensive pruning of unused synapses.
C)
when we encounter experiences that occur as a normal part of development.
D)
when the body begins to lay down the myelin sheath on the central nervous system.
4. The condition of cerebral palsy involves
A)
difficulties establishing and maintaining social interactions.
B)
difficulties with coordination, movement, muscle tone, and speech.
C)
a rapid deterioration of muscle tissue, eventually leading to death.
D)
a condition in which fatty substances are not broken down properly and collect in the nerve cells in
the brain.
5.
The cause of cerebral palsy is
A)
brain injury during prenatal development or during the birth process itself.
B)
a lack of stimulation during the early months of development.
C)
a massive overgrowth of brain synapses and the lack of synaptic pruning.
D)
a diet severely lacking in adequate amounts of protein.
6. _____________ is a condition in which the person has difficulty with social interaction,
problems with verbal and nonverbal communication, and compulsive behavior or
interests.
A)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)
Cerebral palsy
C)
Autism
D)
Schizophrenia
7. The best research evidence today supports the idea that autism
A)
is caused by a cold, rejecting mother.
B)
can be improved, if not cured, by diet modification.
C)
is triggered by an environmental toxin.
D)
has a genetic component and/or structural differences in the brain.
a group of conditions that can occur in a person who was exposed to alcohol before birth.
8. ____________ are involuntary patterned motor responses that are hardwired in the
infant.
A) Experience-expectant responses
B) Reflexes
C) Gross motor skills
D) Fine motor skills
9. As more parents have put their children on their back to sleep (which the American Academy of
Pediatrics recommends to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome)
A)
children are crawling at later ages because their arms and legs get less stimulation.
B)
children are sitting up at younger ages because sleeping on their back strengthens their back
muscles.
C)
the practice strengthens all the muscles in the lower part of the infant’s body.
D)
the infants develop better upper body strength.
10.
Information from the environment that is picked up by our sense organs is called _______________,
and the meaning that our brain attached to that information is called _______________.
A)
sensory store; retention store
B)
sensory input; meaning output
C)
sensations; perception
D)
perceptions; sensations
11.
Eleanor Gibson’s research on infants and the visual cliff found that infants
A)
cannot perceive depth so they show no fear of the visual cliff.
B)
can perceive depth, but do not show fear of the “drop off” until they can crawl.
C)
from the very earliest ages tested all show substantial fear of the “drop off”.
D)
show fear of the visual cliff until they can crawl, and then they lose the fear.
12.
When infants look at faces, they are attracted to
A)
the areas of highest contrast.
B)
the mouth because it moves.
C)
the top of the head.
D)
the jaw and chin.
13.
Infants develop a preference for the taste of their local food because
A)
this information is passed genetically from mother to infant.
B)
smell is the most highly developed sense in a newborn infant.
C)
all infants prefer sweet flavors, which are the predominant taste in most cuisines.
D)
mother’s milk and amniotic fluid take of some of the flavor of foods the mother eats.
14.
Primary sex characteristics include
A)
the appearance of breasts in females and the appearance of facial hair in males.
B)
the different physical changes that occur as an adolescent goes through puberty.
C)
changes that occur in the organs that are necessary for reproduction.
D)
changes in the proportions of fat and lean muscle mass in the adolescent.
15.
Breast development in females, deepening of the voice in males, and the growth of pubic hair in both
genders are examples of
A)
peripheral sex characteristics.
B)
primary sex characteristics.
C)
secondary sex characteristics.
D)
tertiary sex characteristics.
16.
In terms of the timing of puberty
A)
early maturation is a disadvantage for boys.
B)
being a late maturing boy has advantages.
C)
early maturation has a number of advantages for boys.
D)
being early or late has very little impact on boys.
17.
The group of adolescents who typically have the most positive self-image, are the most confident, and
have high social status among their peers is the
A)
early maturing boys.
B)
late maturing boys.
C)
early maturing girls.
D)
late maturing girls.
18.
Children who begin to go through pubertal development as ages as young as 6 or 7 years of age are
experiencing
A)
hyperthyroidism.
B)
congenital maturation.
C)
precocious puberty.
D)
pubertal dysfunction.
19.
An advantage of being breastfed for an infant is that
A)
breast milk contains antibodies from the mother that can help fight off infections.
B)
infants who are born to mothers who are HIV-positive can better fight off the disease.
C)
breastfeeding is associated with higher scores on intelligence tests in childhood.
D)
the infant gains more weight more quickly than bottle fed infants.
20.
Food insecurity is a situation in which
A)
people are uncertain whether the diet they are consuming has an adequate amount of calories or
nutrients.
B)
individuals consume more calories than they need but they still refuse to admit that they are
overweight.
C)
there is a deficiency of calories or one or more nutrients in a family diet.
D)
food is not consistently available, so the people overeat when it is.
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21.
Define and give one example each of experience-expectant brain development and experience-
dependent brain development.
22.
Describe three basic symptoms of autism. What do researchers today consider to be likely causes of
this disorder.
23.
Describe three basic symptoms of cerebral palsy.
* Study Baby Reflexes
and Human Brain Functions
Chapter 7
*Multiple Choices
1.
In Piaget's theory, a schema is
A)
an understanding of memory, how it works, and how to use it effectively.
B)
a memory strategy for increasing the number of associations that ties individual pieces of
information together.
C)
a cognitive framework that allows us to place concepts, objects, and experiences into
categories or groups.
D)
a way to coordinate attention and memory and control behavioral responses in order to
attain a goal.
2.
In Piaget's theory, fitting new information into an existing cognitive scheme is the process of
A)
information processing.
B)
centration.
C)
assimilation.
D)
accommodation.
3.
When we encounter a new experience that does not fit into any of our cognitive schemes, Piaget
would say that
A)
it throws us into a state of disequilibrium which feels uncomfortable.
B)
we ignore the information until we can develop the cognitive ability to understand it.
C)
we observe how other people are reacting to the situation and copy their reactions.
D)
we use transductive reasoning to try to make sense of the experience.
4.
In Piaget's theory, when you need to change the way you think about something in order to
understand a new experience, you are engaging in the process of
A)
decentration.
B)
scaffolding.
C)
assimilation.
D)
accommodation.
5.
When a young child grasps a toy, it is part of his experience and is real to him, but when he is not
holding the toy, it doesn't exist for him anymore. Piaget says this is because young children do
not have
A)
a circular reaction for objects.
B)
object permanence.
C)
conservation.
D)
dialectic thinking.
6.
A characteristic of the preoperational stage of cognitive development is egocentrism which means
that children in this stage
A)
are selfish and cannot be taught how to share with others.
B)
cannot understand things from someone else's perspective.
C)
believe that they are the best at doing everything they try to do.
D)
think that others should listen to what they have to say or what they want.
7.
A toddler sees his mother lying in bed because she doesn't feel well, so he gives her his favorite
blanket because he knows that it always makes him feel better. This is an example of
A)
egocentrism.
B)
animism.
C)
conservation.
D)
transductive reasoning.
8.
If a preoperational child thinks that her dolly is sad and misses her while the child is away at
preschool, the child is showing the cognitive limitation that Piaget calls
A)
transductive reasoning.
B)
egocentrism.
C)
animism.
D)
displacement.
9.
If you ask a child to watch you as you take one of two identical balls of clay and roll that ball into
a clay snake, and the child then thinks there is more clay in the snake because it is longer than the
other ball, the child has
A)
used transductive reasoning to frame their answer.
B)
centered on only one aspect of the situation (the length) and ignored other aspects (the
height or diameter).
C)
attributed a characteristic of a living organism to the clay snake.
D)
failed to store the image of the identical balls of clay in their memory.
10.
If you showed a 7-year-old child six blue wooden blocks and 4 white wooden block and asked the
child “Are there more blue blocks or more wooden blocks?” you would be testing the child's
ability to
A)
classify objects into larger categories.
B)
conserve number.
C)
perform seriation.
D)
use transductive reasoning.
11.
David Elkind proposed that because adolescents are often preoccupied with their own looks and
behaviors, they believe that they are the center of attention for other people also. Elkind calls this
A)
centrifugal attention.
B)
hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
C)
adolescent reversibility.
D)
adolescent egocentrism.
12.
During adolescence, the belief known as the ________________ can place the young person at
risk because it has been associated with a willingness to take risks.
A)
imaginary audience
B)
animism myth
C)
personal fable
D)
reversibility ideation
13.
Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development differs from Piaget's theory in that
A)
Piaget's theory portrays children's cognitive development as occurring much more
rapidly.
B)
Vygotsky saw cognitive development as based upon the child's social interaction with
others.
C)
Piaget saw children as being dependent upon others for the learning that occurs.
D)
Vygotsky portrays children's cognitive development as developing in a single predictable
way.
14.
In Vygotsky's theory, the cognitive abilities that are in the process of forming and which a child
can demonstrate with a little help is called the
A)
scaffolding zone.
B)
zone of proximal development.
C)
zone of knowledge.
D)
cognitive zone.
15.
In Vygotsky's theory, the amount and type of help that a skilled adult or peer provides to a child
is called
A)
knowledge building.
B)
social speech.
C)
a cognitive scheme.
D)
scaffolding.
16.
In Vygotsky's theory, private speech is
A)
what a skilled helper tells the child to do.
B)
the way that a child elaborates upon what others tell her.
C)
how a child turns interactions with others into internal thought.
D)
the maximum amount of help that someone else can give a child.
17.
Paying attention to certain things while tuning out others is the process of _____________ and
maintaining focus over time is the process of ______________.
A)
sustained attention; focused attention
B)
selective attention; habituation
C)
habituation; sustained attention
D)
selective attention; sustained attention
18.
When adolescents completed their homework either with the TV on in the background or without
the TV on, the group that had the TV on
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A)
remembered less but had a better understanding of the information they did recall.
B)
remembered less and understood what they remembered less well.
C)
performed better on recall tasks, but had more difficulty with open-ended questions.
D)
were indistinguishable from another group of adolescents who had ADHD.
19.
As children with ADHD get older, their symptoms
A)
tend to lessen in severity, until they are undetectable in adulthood.
B)
may change or lessen as they move into adulthood, but ADHD cannot be cured.
C)
get worse over time, and are usually associated with a number of behavioral problems.
D)
continue, but in adulthood they are called bi-polar disorder rather than ADHD.
20.
The most effective treatment approach for children with ADHD is
A)
the use of traditional psychotherapy.
B)
the use of anti-depressant medications.
C)
the use of various dietary modifications.
D)
a comprehensive approach that brings together several different types of interventions.
21.
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that ADHD in younger children or in children
with mild symptoms be treated
A)
aggressively with medications to keep the condition from getting worse.
B)
by removing the child from a regular classroom and placing the child in a special needs
class.
C)
with behavioral interventions.
D)
with stimulants such as Ritalin.
22.
Piaget's theory of cognitive development portrays children as
A)
passive recipients of knowledge for whom language shapes thought.
B)
actively constructing their knowledge within a social, cultural and historical setting.
C)
passive recipients of knowledge because basic information is present from birth.
D)
actively constructing their knowledge based on the child's own interactions with the
environment, and the use of language to express thought.
*
Short Essay Questions
1.
Name and describe Piaget’s four stages of development.
2.
What is attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and how can it be treated?
3.
Describe Vygotsky’s the Zone of Proximal Development and Scaffolding.
the zone of proximal development refers to the "distance between the actual developmental level as determined by
independent problem solving and the level of potential development as determined through problem solving under
adult guidance or in collaboration with more capable peers.Scaffolding is the help/support that takes place in
the zone of proximal development,
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