Certify4Sure.PK0-005
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CompTIA PK0-005 : Practice Test
Exam Code: PK0-005
Title : CompTIA Project+
Exam A
QUESTION 1
During a gate review meeting, the deliverable was rejected by the customer.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the dashboard.
Part 1: Drag and drop each task, placing them in the correct order based on the project change control process.
Part 2: Select the proper document(s) to be updated.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Part 1:
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A.
Part 1:
Change Control Process:
Consult the RACI matrix.
Define new requirements and record changes.
Assess the schedule, risk, and cost.
Perform a demonstration.
Obtain a sign off.
Update and test the deliverable.
Make an announcement on the company portal.
The change control process is a sequence of steps that helps to manage and document any changes or
modifications to a project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. The change control process typically
involves the following steps:
Consult the RACI matrix. A RACI matrI. a tool that defines and clarifies the roles and responsibilities of each
team member for each task or activity in a project. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consulted,
and informed. Consulting the RACI matrix can help to identify who needs to be involved or informed about
the change request and how to communicate with them. Define new requirements and record changes. The
new requirements and changes are the details of what needs to be modified or added to the project
deliverables or objectives based on the customer feedback or request. Defining and recording the new
requirements and changes can help to communicate and justify the need and rationale for the change and
its implications on the project scope and quality.
Assess the schedule, risk, and cost. The schedule, risk, and cost are the aspects of the project that may be
affected by the change request. Assessing the schedule, risk, and cost can help to determine the impact
and feasibility of the change and identify any possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid
its negative effects.
Perform a demonstration. A demonstration is a presentation or show of how the modified or updated
deliverable works or meets the customer expectations or requirements. Performing a demonstration can
help to validate and verify that the change request has been implemented correctly and effectively and to
obtain feedback or approval from the customer or stakeholders. Obtain a sign off. A sign off is a formal
acceptance and approval of the change request and its deliverables from the customer or stakeholders.
Obtaining a sign off can help to confirm that the change request has been completed successfully and
satisfactorily and to close the change control process.
Update and test the deliverable. The deliverable is the product or service that is produced or provided by the
project. Updating and testing the deliverable can help to ensure that it meets the quality standards and
criteria and that it works as expected after implementing the change request. Make an announcement on
the company portal. The company portal is a platform or channel that allows internal communication and
collaboration among employees within an organization. Making an announcement on the company portal
can help to inform and update other team members or departments about the change request and its
outcomes and to share any lessons learned or best practices from the change control process.
Part2:
Risk register: A risk register is a document that identifies, analyzes, and records the potential risks or
uncertainties that may affect a project. Updating the risk register can help to capture any new or modified
risks that may arise from the change request and to plan and implement appropriate risk responses.
Schedule: A schedule is a document that shows the planned start and end dates, durations, dependencies,
and progress of each task or activity in a project. Updating the schedule can help to reflect any changes or
adjustments to the project timeline or milestones that may result from the change request and to monitor
and control the project performance and delivery.
Statement of work: A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, deliverables,
schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. Updating the SOW can help to document any
changes or additions to the project scope or deliverables that may be requested or agreed upon by the
customer or stakeholders and to ensure alignment and agreement on what needs to be done and how it will
be done.
Change log: A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications that are
made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. Updating the change log
can help to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and
ensure traceability and transparency.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A PM is responsible for implementing a new customer relationship management system and has learned that
the sales organization is reluctant to utilize the new system. The organization's reluctance could jeopardize the
success of the project. Which of the following steps should be taken to understand the adoption issues and
gain organizational acceptance of the initiative? (Select TWO).
A.
Train users on the proper use of the system.
B.
Escalate the issue to the CCB
C.
Hold sessions to understand user challenges.
D.
Track system usage and report user activity.
E.
Log the issue in the project risk register.
F.
Create a memorandum of acceptable use.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should hold sessions to understand user challenges and track system usage and report
user activity. These steps will help the project manager to identify the root causes of the adoption issues and
monitor the progress of the system utilization. They will also help to communicate with the sales organization
and provide feedback and support12
QUESTION 3
Following a successful release, a project manager sent a survey to all stakeholders to gain an understanding of
opportunity areas for the team. Which of the following can use the survey results
A. input?
B.
Daily stand-up
C.
Project momentum
D.
Performance feedback
E.
Meeting minutes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager can use the survey results A. input for performance feedback for the project team
members. Performance feedback is a process of providing constructive and timely information on the
performance of individuals or teams in relation to project goals and expectations. Performance feedback can
help to motivate, improve, and recognize project team members345
The survey results can be used A. input for performance feedback. Performance feedback involves analyzing
and evaluating the performance of the project team and project management against the project plan, including
identifying areas for improvement. The survey results can help identify these areas for improvement and
provide feedback to the project team on their performance. Reference:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.1.1
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project
triple constraint?
A.
Evaluating the project
B.
Releasing the resources
C.
Closing the contracts
D.
Reconciling the budget
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project
triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the
project objectives and requirements. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4
QUESTION 5
During a quality analysis review, the causes of several issues have been highlighted. Which of the following
should the project manager use to identify the MOST important causes?
A.
Ishikawa diagram
B.
Scatter diagram
C.
Pareto chart
D.
Decision tree
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Pareto chart should be used to identify the most important causes of issues during a quality analysis
review. The Pareto chart is a graphical representation of the frequency and impact of different causes, helping
to identify the most common and impactful causes. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.3.3
QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should coordinate management of multiple related
projects?
A.
Apply the SDLC process.
B.
Establish a program.
C.
Consult the CCB.
D.
Use different frameworks
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The BEST way to coordinate management of multiple related projects is to establish a program. A program is a
group of related projects that are managed together to achieve specific strategic business objectives. CompTIA
Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.1 The organization should establish a program to coordinate management of
multiple related projects. A program is a group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities that are
managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually. A
program can help to align multiple projects with strategic goals, optimize resources and risks, and deliver value
to stakeholders.
QUESTION 7
A project team gathers weekly to review its progress. Which of the following is the project manager MOST likely
to have prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments?
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A.
Status report
B.
Project plan
C.
Change log
D.
Meeting minutes
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about
assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during
a meeting, providing a record of the team's progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date. CompTIA
Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2 The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team
members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what
was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items,
action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to
communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a
reference for future follow-up.
QUESTION 8
A project manager prefers to have immediate contact with team members because it allows for faster response
times and more interactive discussions. Which of the following communication methods should the project
manager use?
A. Synchronous
B. Informal
C. Asynchronous
D. Formal
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should use synchronous communication methods if they prefer to have immediate contact
with team members. Synchronous communication is a type of communication that occurs in real time and
allows for faster response times and more interactive discussions. Examples of synchronous communication
methods include phone calls, video conferences, instant messaging, and face-to-face meetings. Synchronous
communication can help to build rapport, clarify doubts, and resolve issues quickly among team members.
Synchronous communication should be used when the project manager prefers to have immediate contact with
team members. Synchronous communication allows for real-time interaction and feedback, enabling faster
response times and more interactive discussions. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.1.3
QUESTION 9
As part of the planning phase, a PM has defined tasks, durations, resources, and costs. Which of the following
is the NEXT step in the process?
A.
Update the work breakdown structure.
B.
Review the backlog.
C.
Seek baseline approval.
D.
Establish the resource pool.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The next step in the process after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to seek baseline approval.
A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and
performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and
risk parameters. Seeking baseline approval involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and
obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to
establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution.
The NEXT step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs during the planning phase is to seek
baseline approval. Baseline approval involves finalizing the project plan and gaining approval from
stakeholders, establishing the plA. the baseline for the project's performance. Reference:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 3.4.1
QUESTION 10
A project manager realizes that a project will not be completed on time due to resource constraints. Which of
the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A.
Trigger the contingency plan and communicate with the stakeholders.
B.
Work with the functional managers to create a work-around.
C.
Submit a change request to the change control board.
D.
Transfer the risk by hiring a new vendor who was successful on a previous project.
E.
Set up an escalation meeting with the sponsor.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Submit a change request to the change control board. The project manager should submit a change request to
the change control board (CCB) if they realize that the project will not be completed on time due to resource
constraints. A change request is a formal proposal to modify any aspect of the project, such as scope,
schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request must be submitted to the CCB, which is a group of
stakeholders who are authorized to review and approve changes. Submitting a change request can help to
document the impact of the resource constraints on the project and seek approval for any corrective actions or
preventive actions12
QUESTION 11
By developing a project schedule, a PM has already validated the constraints, outlined the duration of the tasks
and the phases, and confirmed the proper sequence and flow of the project. Which of the following activities
still needs to be performed to complete the schedule?
A.
Allocate resources.
B.
Determine the project budget
C.
Develop a communication plan.
D.
Establish baselines.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an
approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance
throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk
parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their
formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear
expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34
QUESTION 12
A PM has identified all the resources involved in a project. The next step is to identify which resources are
responsible for which tasks. Which of the following should be used to document this information?
A. RFI
B. RACI
C. WBS
D. SOW
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) matrI. used to document which resources are
responsible for which tasks. The RACI matrI. a tool that helps to clarify roles and responsibilities on a project. It
assigns a level of responsibility to each resource involved in the project. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide
Section 3.4.
The project manager should use a RACI matrix to document which resources are responsible for which tasks.
A RACI matrI. a type of responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) that plots the roles and responsibilities of
resources on a project team. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. A RACI
matrix can help to clarify who does what on a project, avoid confusion and duplication of work, and improve
communication and collaboration among team members.
QUESTION 13
During a staff meeting, a project manager voices a concern about the client billing rate for a particular engineer.
Which of the following documents would the project manager need in order to find this information?
A. SLA
B. TOR
C. SOW
D. NDA
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In order to find the client billing rate for a particular engineer, the project manager would need to refer to the
SOW (Statement of Work). The SOW is a document that outlines the work to be performed, the timeframe for
completion, and the cost of the project. It also includes information about the resources involved in the project
and their billing rates. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 2.2.
The project manager would need a statement of work (SOW) to find information about the client billing rate for
a particular engineer. A SOW is a document that defines the scope of work for a project or contract. It usually
includes information such as deliverables, milestones, timeline, costs, payment terms, quality standards, and
acceptance criteria. A SOW can help to specify what services or products will be provided by whom, when,
where, how, and for how much.
QUESTION 14
Which of the following should occur when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into
consideration?
A.
Approving the change request
B.
Developing a rollback plan
C.
Gathering necessary resources
D.
Defining requirements
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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When implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes risks into consideration, the project manager should
develop a rollback plan. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that outlines the steps that need to be taken in
case the change does not work as expected. It includes a plan to roll back the changes and restore the system
to its previous state. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section: Section 3.3.
The project manager should develop a rollback plan when implementing an IT infrastructure change that takes
risks into consideration. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert back to the previous
state of the system in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help
to minimize the impact of the change on the system performance and availability and ensure business
continuity and data integrity.
QUESTION 15
During the stabilization phase for recently deployed software, an end user reports a bug that is compromising
data integrity. Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
A.
Issue log
B.
Defect log
C.
Change log
D.
Task board
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
During the stabilization phase of recently deployed software, the project manager will most likely use a defect
log to track and manage reported bugs. A defect log is a document that contains information about the defects
or issues identified during testing or after the deployment of software. It includes the severity of the defect, the
steps to reproduce the problem, and the actions taken to resolve the defect. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide
Section 4.1.
The project manager will most likely use a defect log during the stabilization phase for recently deployed
software to record a bug that is compromising data integrity. A defect log is a tool that tracks and documents
any errors or flaws found in a software product or system during testing or operation. It usually includes
information such as defect ID, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, and responsible person. A defect
log can help to monitor and manage the quality of the software product or system and ensure that all defects
are identified and resolved before delivery or release.
QUESTION 16
A project manager I. the closing phase of an IT asset refresh project that involves the disposal of several
computers. The project sponsor notified the project manager that the company recently received a penalty as a
result of disposing of some computers improperly. Which of the following should have been considered during
initial planning to prevent this situation?
A. ESG
B. PHI
C. Pll
D. ROI
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should have considered environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors during
initial planning to prevent the situation of receiving a penalty for disposing of some computers improperly. ESG
factors are criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organizations activities. They include
aspects such as environmental protection, social responsibility, human rights, diversity, and corporate
governance. Considering ESG factors can help to reduce risks, improve reputation, and enhance performance
of an organization12
QUESTION 17
A project manager has been very diligent in maintaining the version control for the documentation of
requirements. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A.
Multiauthoring software
B.
Word processor
C.
Real-time polling
D.
Conferencing platforms
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager is using multiauthoring software to maintain the version control for the documentation of
requirements. Multiauthoring software is a type of software that allows multiple users to create, edit, and
collaborate on documents simultaneously. It also provides features such as tracking changes, commenting,
reviewing, and merging versions. Multiauthoring software can help to improve the quality, accuracy, and
consistency of documents and facilitate communication and feedback among stakeholders. Examples of
multiauthoring software include Google Docs, Microsoft Word Online, and Confluence34
QUESTION 18
The project team determines that software installation can only begin after the desktops have been installed
and can be powered on. Which of the following dependencies does this represent?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The dependency between software installation and desktop installation is a mandatory dependency. A
mandatory dependency is a type of dependency that is inherent in the nature or logic of the work and cannot be
avoided or changed. I. also known as a hard dependency or a hard logic dependency. A mandatory
dependency means that one task must be completed before another task can start or finish. For example,
software installation can only start after desktop installation is finished5
The dependency between desktop installation and software installation represents a mandatory dependency. A
mandatory dependency is a type of task dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work being performed.
In this case, software installation cannot begin until desktops are installed and powered on, and therefore, the
dependency is mandatory. CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management,
Objective 3.1: Identify the project management processes and the interactions between them.
QUESTION 19
A hurricane delays the shipment of critical equipment for a project. Which of the following is BEST to use to
document the effects of this delay?
A.
Issue log
B.
Gantt chart
C.
Milestone chart
D.
Change control log
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should use a change control log to document the effects of the hurricane delay on the
project. A change control log is a tool that records and tracks any changes that occur during the project
lifecycle. It usually includes information such as change ID, description, impact, status, approval, and
resolution. A change control log can help to monitor and manage the changes that affect the project scope,
schedule, cost, quality, or resources and ensure that they are aligned with the project objectives and
stakeholder expectations.
QUESTION 20
Due to budgetary and time constraints, a PM scheduled a meeting with all stakeholders during the planning
phase to review the requirements and come to an agreement on the minimum viable product that would be
acceptable. Which of the following would be used to document this input?
A.
Project change management plan
B.
Project management plan
C.
Project transition plan
D.
Project communication plan
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should use the project management plan to document the input from the stakeholders on
the minimum viable product that would be acceptable for the project. The project management plan is a
document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. It usually includes
information such as scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), schedule baseline, cost baseline,
quality plan, risk plan, communication plan, stakeholder plan, and change management plan. The project
management plan can help to define and communicate the project requirements, deliverables, assumptions,
constraints, and expectations to all stakeholders involved in the project.
The project management plan would be used to document the input obtained from stakeholders during the
meeting to review the requirements and agree on the minimum viable product. The project management plan is
a comprehensive document that outlines the approach, scope, schedule, budget, quality, resources, and
communication for a project. The document is updated throughout the project lifecycle and serves as a guide
for project execution, monitoring, and control. Reference:
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.3: Identify the
components of the project management plan.
QUESTION 21
A project team was instructed to refurbish old desktops. The following provides the details of the issues
observed:
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Which of the following issues should be addressed FIRST?
A.
Replace missing peripherals because this process can be easy and less costly.
B.
An old operating system issue has the most amount of occurrences.
C.
Damage to the monitor has the highest percentage.
D.
Address each issue as discovered to avoid rework.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should address the issue of damage to the monitor first because it has the highest
percentage (40%) among the issues observed. This means that I. the most frequent and severe issue that
affects the quality and functionality of the refurbished desktops. Addressing this issue first can help to improve
customer satisfaction, reduce rework, and avoid waste1
QUESTION 22
A project manager was not part of a contract negotiation. The project manager is concerned that stakeholders
will expect the project to achieve deliverables requested in the RFP Which of the following documents should
the project manager produce FIRST to start communication about the boundaries of the project?
A.
Milestone chart
B.
Work breakdown structure
C.
Project charter
D.
Detailed scope statement
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should produce a project charter first to start communication about the boundaries of the
project. A project charter is a document that formally authorizes a project and defines its high-level scope,
objectives, assumptions, constraints, stakeholders, roles and responsibilities, and key deliverables. A project
charter can help to communicate the project vision and expectations to all stakeholders and provide a basis for
future project decisions23
QUESTION 23
In a functional organization, a project has been completed successfully. Which of the following actions would
the project manager MOST likely perform?
A.
Assemble a new project with existing resources.
B.
Obtain the final report from release management.
C.
Notify the functional manager that resources are released.
D.
Allocate resources in a different project
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should notify the functional manager that resources are released after completing a
project successfully in a functional organization. A functional organization is a type of organizational structure
where employees are grouped by their functions or specialties, such as finance, marketing, or engineering. In a
functional organization, the functional manager has more authority and control over the resources than the
project manager. Therefore, the project manager should inform the functional manager when the resources are
no longer needed for the project and can be reassigned to other tasks or projects.
QUESTION 24
A third party needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the
cost cannot be calculated in advance. Which of the following should the project manager put in place before
work begins?
A.
Time and materials contract
B.
Master service agreement
C.
Fixed-price contract
D.
Statement of work
E.
Cost-plus agreement
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should put in place a time and materials contract before work begins for a third party that
needs to perform a short-term task for which the duration cannot be accurately estimated and the cost cannot
be calculated in advance. A time and materials contract is a type of contract where the buyer pays the seller
based on the actual time spent and materials used during the project. A time and materials contract is suitable
for projects that have uncertain or variable scope, duration, or cost. A time and materials contract can provide
flexibility and adaptability for both parties and allow them to adjust to changing requirements or circumstances.
QUESTION 25
Which of the following would be MOST beneficial to do before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed
and the correct participants attend?
A.
Assign action items to attendees.
B.
Distribute an agenda.
C.
Email the minutes from the previous meeting.
D.
Schedule a convenient time.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should distribute an agenda before a call to ensure all meeting items are addressed and
the correct participants attend. An agenda is a document that outlines the purpose, topics, and objectives of a
meeting. It also includes information such as date, time, duration, location, attendees, and roles. Distributing an
agenda can help to prepare the participants for the meeting, set clear expectations, and facilitate a productive
and focused discussion12
QUESTION 26
While developing a project charter, a PM discovers that some of the legal requirements have not been
addressed during the project concept preparation, which could result in significant financial penalties against
the organization. The PM knows that implementation of appropriate changes is costly and will exceed the
budget and scope of the project. Which of the following should the PM do FIRST?
A.
Escalate the finding to the change control board.
B.
Add a risk to the risk register for validation.
C.
Consult the RACI matrix to identify ownership of the risk.
D.
Have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should have a meeting with the project sponsor and main stakeholders first after
discovering that some of the legal requirements have not been addressed during the project concept
preparation. The project sponsor and main stakeholders are the key decision-makers and influencers of the
project. They have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject any changes to the project scope,
budget, or schedule. Having a meeting with them can help to communicate the issue, assess the impact,
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explore alternatives, and seek guidance on how to proceed with the project34
QUESTION 27
A company that is implementing an updated version of its main product hired a new project manager to lead the
project. Prior to the start of the project, the sponsor asked the project manager to prepare a report on the
defects found in the previous project to avoid a decrease in production. The report shows that the two main
defects are related to cosmetic and physical damage to the product. Which of the following charts would BEST
prioritize which defects to address?
A. Pareto
B. Run
C. Control
D. Histogram
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should use a Pareto chart to prioritize which defects to address for the product. A Pareto
chart is a type of bar chart that shows the frequency or impact of different causes of problems or defects. It also
shows a cumulative line that represents the percentage of the total frequency or impact. A Pareto chart can
help to prioritize the causes that have the most significant effect on the quality of the product and apply the 80
rule, which states that 80% of the problems are caused by 20% of the causes.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following activities would a project manager perform during the closing phase? (Select THREE).
A.
Lessons learned
B.
Risk analysis
C.
Removing resources
D.
Acquiring resources
E.
Statement of work sign-off
F.
Stakeholder analysis
G.
Removing access
Correct Answer: ACG
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Lessons learned, removing resources, and removing access are activities that a project manager would
perform during the closing phase of a project. Lessons learned is a process of collecting and documenting the
knowledge and experience gained from a project for future reference and improvement. Removing resources is
a process of releasing or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for the project.
Removing access is a process of revoking any permissions or privileges that were granted to the project team
members or stakeholders for accessing any systems or data related to the project. These activities can help to
finalize and close a project successfully and ensure that all deliverables are transferred, all documentation is
approved and archived, all contracts are closed, and all stakeholders are satisfied.
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a quality assurance tool?
A.
Defining project goals
B.
Identifying the root cause analysis
C.
Assessing employee efficiency
D.
Assessing skill gaps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Identifying the root cause analysis. Identifying the root cause analysI. a quality assurance tool that can help to
find and eliminate the underlying causes of quality problems or defects. Root cause analysI. a systematic
process of asking why a problem occurred and tracing it back to its source. Root cause analysis can help to
prevent recurrence of the same or similar problems, improve quality performance, and reduce costs and
risks12
QUESTION 30
A project manager sent equipment to a global project team for testing purposes. Only 70% of the project team
received the equipment for testing. Which of the following considerations is impacting the rest of the team?
A.
Quality assurance
B.
Organizational branding restrictions
C.
State privacy acts
D.
Country legal regulations
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Country legal regulations. Country legal regulations are impacting the rest of the team that did not receive the
equipment for testing. Country legal regulations are rules and laws that govern how businesses operate in
different countries. They may include aspects such as customs, tariffs, taxes, import and export restrictions,
data protection, intellectual property rights, and environmental standards. Country legal regulations can affect
the delivery and use of equipment for a global project team and may require compliance with different
procedures and documentation3
QUESTION 31
A project manager has been assigned to a new project. During the planning phase, the project manager needs
to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A.
Collate the lessons learned.
B.
Perform a gap analysis.
C.
Review existing artifacts.
D.
Conduct a retrospective.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should review existing artifacts to get an understanding of the purpose of the project.
Existing artifacts are documents or records that provide information about the project background, context,
scope, objectives, requirements, stakeholders, and deliverables. They may include documents such as project
proposal, project charter, business case, feasibility study, statement of work (SOW), or contract. Reviewing
existing artifacts can help to clarify the project vision and expectations and provide a basis for planning and
executing the project.
QUESTION 32
Someone claiming to be from a tax agency sent an email to a team member asking for access to the project
repository. Which of the following BEST describes this scenario?
A.
Social engineering
B. Phishing
C. Spoofing
D. Hacking
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Phishing is a scenario where someone claiming to be from a legitimate organization sends an email or other
message to a target person asking for sensitive information or access to a system or account. Phishing is a
type of cyberattack that aims to trick the target into revealing personal or financial data or installing malware on
their device. Phishing can compromise the security and privacy of the target and expose them to identity theft,
fraud, or other malicious activities.
QUESTION 33
A stakeholder works in a remote location and has not been replying to emails. The Internet service in that
location is intermittent, and the stakeholder prefers to be contacted by telephone. Which of the following
artifacts should the project manager have prepared to avoid this situation?
A.
Responsibility assignment matrix
B.
Acceptable communication channels
C.
Risk registry
D.
Staff directory
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should have prepared acceptable communication channels to avoid the situation of a
stakeholder not replying to emails due to intermittent Internet service. Acceptable communication channels are
methods or modes of communication that are agreed upon by all parties involved in a project. They may include
aspects such as email, phone call, text message, video conference, instant message, or face-to-face meeting.
Acceptable communication channels can help to ensure that messages are delivered and received effectively
and efficiently and that communication preferences and limitations are respected.
QUESTION 34
A project team evaluated the performance of a new reporting system and the quantity of queries to be
processed during predetermined time stamps.
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Which of the following is the current status of the process?
A.
Based on the rule of seven, the process is under control
B.
The amount of data is insufficient to determine if quality is low.
C.
The process is out of control and should be revised.
D.
The goal should be adjusted since most of the data points are close to the lower limit.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The process is out of control and should be revised. The project manager can use the rule of seven to
determine the status of the process based on the control chart. The rule of seven states that if seven or more
consecutive measurements fall on one side of the mean that theres an assignable cause that needs
investigation. In this case, the last seven data points are all below the mean, which indicates that the process is
out of control and in need of adjustment12
QUESTION 35
After a release, the project sponsor received an escalation from an executive about the extension of the
downtime after the scheduled window. Which of the following should be added to the issue log?
A.
Continuous integration
B.
Rollback plan
C.
Customer notification
D.
Automated testing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Customer notification should be added to the issue log after receiving an escalation from an executive about
the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Customer notification is a communication activity
that informs the customers about any issues or changes that may affect their satisfaction or expectations.
Customer notification can help to maintain trust, transparency, and goodwill with the customers and prevent any
negative impacts on their business operations or experience.
QUESTION 36
Due to multiple changes, the sign-off for the project scope baseline is delayed. The project sponsor has
restricted the budget for this project. Which of the following should the project manager MOST likely do to move
forward?
A.
Communicate with the affected stakeholders.
B.
Initiate a formal change request to modify the cost
C.
Adjust the scope to stay within the cost.
D.
Set a new cost using a lightweight estimation method.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should communicate with the affected stakeholders first after realizing that the sign-off for
the project scope baseline is delayed due to multiple changes and that the budget for this project is restricted by
the project sponsor. The affected stakeholders are those who have an interest or influence on the project and
may be impacted by any changes or delays. Communicating with them can help to explain the situation, assess
the impact, seek feedback, and manage expectations.
QUESTION 37
As a result of an approved change, the project manager updates the project plan with the newest project end
date. Which of the following change control processes should the project manager complete NEXT?
A.
Document the request in the change control log.
B.
Communicate the change deployment.
C.
Conduct an impact assessment.
D.
Implement the change.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should communicate the change deployment next after updating the project plan with the
newest project end date as a result of an approved change. Communicating the change deployment involves
informing all relevant parties about when and how the change will be implemented and what are the expected
outcomes and benefits. Communicating the change deployment can help to ensure alignment, readiness, and
support for the change and avoid any confusion or resistance.
QUESTION 38
An IT intern was assigned to set up workstations as part of a project. The IT intern was very careful to do the
task well and initially referred to notes while performing the task. By the end of the two-week rotation, the IT
intern no longer needed the notes and completed more set-ups in less time. Which of the following MOST likely
represents the observed relationshI. this scenario? A)
B)
C)
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D)
A.
Option A
B.
Option B
C.
Option C
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D.
Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Option C shows a graph that most likely represents the observed relationshI. this scenario. The graph shows a
learning curve, which is a graphical representation of the relationship between a learners performance on a
task and the number of attempts or time required to complete the task. The learning curve theory proposes that
a learners efficiency in a task improves over time the more the learner performs the task. In this case, the IT
intern was able to complete more set-ups in less time as they gained more experience and proficiency over the
two-week rotation12
QUESTION 39
An opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle. Which of the following is the BEST action for the
project manager to take?
A.
Exploit the risk.
B.
Accept the risk.
C.
Avoid the risk.
D.
Transfer the risk.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should exploit the risk after an opportunity emerged in the middle of a project life cycle.
ExploI. a risk response strategy that aims to increase the probability and/or impact of a positive risk or
opportunity. Exploit can involve actions such as allocating more resources, changing the scope or schedule, or
adding more features or benefits to the project deliverables. Exploit can help to ensure that the opportunity is
realized and that the project gains more value or advantage from it3
QUESTION 40
The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to
support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Which of the following meets these requirements?
A.
Data warehouse
B.
SQL database
C.
Multitier architecture
D.
Content management system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server
solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among
different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers
through well-defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance,
security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.
QUESTION 41
A project manager was just assigned to a new project. Which of the following activities should the project
manager undertake after accepting the project? (Select TWO).
A.
Review the detailed plan.
B.
Develop a preliminary scope.
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C.
Develop a transition plan.
D.
Develop a project management plan.
E.
Review the resource pool.
F.
Review the project objectives.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Review the resource pool and review the project objectives are activities that the project manager should
undertake after accepting a new project. Reviewing the resource pool involves identifying and evaluating the
availability, skills, and competencies of the human and material resources that are needed for the project.
Reviewing the project objectives involves understanding and clarifying the expected outcomes and benefits of
the project and how they align with the organizational strategy and stakeholder expectations. These activities
can help to plan and execute the project effectively and efficiently.
QUESTION 42
A program manager is reviewing the project portfolio and prioritizing each project based on the company's
strategic plan. Which of the following should be considered in this evaluation? (Select TWO).
A.
Company vision
B.
Global environment
C.
Brand value
D.
Mission statement
E.
Portfolio budget
F.
Local legislation
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Company vision and mission statement should be considered in the evaluation of the project portfolio based on
the companys strategic plan. Company vision is a statement that describes the long-term aspirations and
desired future state of the organization. Company mission statement is a statement that defines the core
purpose and values of the organization and how it serves its customers and stakeholders. These statements
provide direction and guidance for the strategic planning and decision making of the organization. They also
help to align the project portfolio with the organizational goals and objectives and ensure that the projects and
programs in the portfolio deliver value and benefits to the organization12
QUESTION 43
Halfway through a project, the sponsor states that the project is taking too long to complete. Which of the
following should the project manager consult?
A.
Gantt chart
B.
Maintenance window schedule
C.
Functional requirements
D.
Test results
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should consult a Gantt chart after the sponsor states that the project is taking too long to
complete. A Gantt chart is a graphical tool that shows the schedule of a project, including the start and end
dates, durations, dependencies, milestones, and progress of each task or activity. A Gantt chart can help to
monitor and control the project timeline and identify any delays, variances, or issues that may affect the project
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completion.
QUESTION 44
A visual that displays team progress was created for stand-up meetings. Which of the following BEST
describes what is being represented on the visual?
A.
Decision board
B. Whiteboard
C.
Task board
D. Dashboard
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A task board is a visual tool that displays team progress for stand-up meetings. A task board usually consists of
columns that represent different stages or statuses of tasks, such as to do, in progress, done, or blocked. Each
task is represented by a card or sticky note that can be moved across the columns as the task progresses. A
task board can help to facilitate communication, collaboration, and transparency among team members and
stakeholders. It can also help to track and manage work flow, prioritize tasks, identify bottlenecks, and resolve
issues3
QUESTION 45
A project manager is assigned to a multinational project with team members from different continents. Which of
the following is the MOST important aspect for the project manager to consider?
A.
Resource allocation
B.
Communication security
C.
Technological factors
D.
Cultural differences
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cultural differences are the most important aspect for the project manager to consider when assigned to a
multinational project with team members from different continents. Cultural differences refer to the variations in
beliefs, values, norms, behaviors, customs, and communication styles among people from different countries or
regions. Cultural differences can affect how team members interact, communicate, collaborate, negotiate,
make decisions, solve problems, manage conflicts, and perform tasks. The project manager should be aware
of and respect the cultural differences among team members and foster a positive and inclusive team culture
that leverages diversity and promotes trust and cooperation.
QUESTION 46
During a brainstorming session, a project team is elaborating on what caused the unexpected crash of the
website that the team was developing. Given the following:
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Which of the following was the initial cause of the issue?
A.
Inadequate memory
B.
Incorrect configuration
C.
Lack of infrastructure
D.
Inadequate instructions
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
. Incorrect configuration was the initial cause of the issue that caused the unexpected crash of the website that
the team was developing. The diagram given is an example of a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect
diagram that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect. The diagram has four main categories: people,
process, technology, and environment. Each category has subcategories that list specific factors that may
contribute to the problem or effect. The diagram shows that incorrect configuration under technology was
marked A. initial cause of website crash.
QUESTION 47
Which of the following describes three-tier architecture?
A.
Conceptual, design, and implementation stages
B.
Presentation, application, and data processing
C.
Network, software, and security
D.
Development, testing, and production environment
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Presentation, application, and data processing. Presentation, application, and data processing are the three
logical and physical computing tiers that make up a three-tier architecture. A three-tier architecture is a type of
software architecture that separates an application into three layers or tiers that run on different servers or
machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well-defined
interfaces. The presentation tier is the user interface and communication layer of the application, where the end
user interacts with the application. The application tier is the logic or middle tier of the application, where data is
processed using business rules. The data processing tier is the data or back-end tier of the application, where
data is stored and managed12
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QUESTION 48
After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the
operational infrastructure change process?
A.
Implement the change.
B.
Approve the test plan.
C.
Notify customers.
D.
Develop a rollback plan.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance
window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes
how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the
change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure
business continuity and stability.
QUESTION 49
Which of the following offers administrators more direct control over operating systems?
A.
Infrastructure as a service
B.
Software as a service
C.
Functions as a service
D.
Platform as a service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers administrators more direct control over operating systems than other
cloud service models. IaaS is a type of cloud computing service that provides virtualized computing resources
such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS allows users to rent or lease
infrastructure resources on demand and pay only for what they use. IaaS gives users more flexibility and control
over their infrastructure resources and enables them to configure, manage, and customize their operating
systems according to their needs and preferences3
QUESTION 50
Which of the following items must be protected as Pll? (Select TWO).
A.
Job title
B.
Home address
C.
Work phone number
D.
Time zone
E.
Date of birth
F.
Blood type
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Home address and date of birth must be protected as personally identifiable information (PII). PII is any
information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual person, either alone or in combination
with other sources. PII can include information such as name, email address, phone number, social security
number, passport number, drivers license number, bank account number, credit card number, biometric data,
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medical records, etc. PII must be protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or
destruction to prevent identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities that may harm the individuals privacy or
security.
QUESTION 51
A critical business initiative introduced new processes and technology to the organization. Which of the
following approaches should be used to ensure the deliverables are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the
organization over time?
A.
Creation of a social news forum
B.
Management directives to use the new system
C.
New user kickoff meeting
D.
Monthly feedback and training sessions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Monthly feedback and training sessions are the best approach to ensure that the deliverables of a critical
business initiative are increasingly adopted and leveraged by the organization over time. Feedback and training
sessions are communication and learning activities that provide information and guidance on how to use and
benefit from the new processes and technology introduced by the initiative. Feedback and training sessions can
help to increase awareness, understanding, acceptance, and adoption of the deliverables among the
organizations employees and stakeholders. They can also help to identify and address any issues or challenges
that may arise during the implementation and transition phases.
QUESTION 52
A project sponsor asked the PM to provide a summary of the current financial status. The PM uses the
following burn up chart for the analysis:
Based on the chart, which of the following is the current status of the project?
A.
Behind schedule and over budget
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B.
Behind schedule and under budget
C.
Ahead of schedule and over budget
D.
Ahead of schedule and under budget
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager can use the burn up chart to analyze the current status of the project based on its scope
(value delivered), budget (cost), and schedule (time). A burn up chart is a graphical tool that shows how much
work has been completed (burned up) versus how much work remains (scope) over time. It also shows how
much budget has been spent (burned up) versus how much budget remains (budget) over time. A burn up
chart can help to monitor and control the project progress and performance and identify any variances or
deviations from the plan. The chart given shows that both scope and budget lines are above their respective
target lines at any given time point. This means that less work has been completed than planned (scope
variance) and more money has been spent than planned (budget variance) at any given time point. Therefore,
the project is behind schedule and over budget.
QUESTION 53
Which of the following criteria would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project?
A.
Strong projectized organization
B.
Medium risk
C.
Lack of resources
D.
Multiple undefined tasks
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Multiple undefined tasks would favor using the agile methodology to manage an upcoming project. Agile
methodology is a project management framework that breaks projects down into several dynamic phases,
commonly known as sprints. Agile methodology is an iterative and adaptive approach that allows teams to
respond to changing requirements and customer feedback quickly and effectively. Agile methodology is suitable
for projects that have multiple undefined tasks, as it enables teams to prioritize and deliver the most valuable
features first, and refine and improve them over time based on user input and testing12
QUESTION 54
A client provides a project plan to the assigned project manager and suggests that the project manager and
team just need to execute the plan. Upon further investigation, the document contains:
Purpose
Scope of work
Location of work
Period of performance
Deliverables schedule
Applicable standards
Acceptance criteria
Special requirements
Payment schedule
Which of the following documents did the client provide to the project manager?
A. RFP
B. WBS
C. SLA
D. SOW
Correct Answer: D
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The client provided a statement of work (SOW) to the project manager and suggested that the project manager
and team just need to execute the plan. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule,
and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as purpose, scope
of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance
criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common understanding
and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
QUESTION 55
While managing a project, a PM is assigned to work on a second project. The second project becomes more
complex and monopolizes the PM's time. The PM learns that a similarly timeconsuming project was executed
previously in the organization. Which of the following actions should the PM take?
A.
Perform a root cause analysis.
B.
Organize a stakeholder meeting
C.
Escalate the issue to the CCB
D.
Contact the PMO for assistance.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should contact the project management office (PMO) for assistance after learning that a
similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization. A PMO is a department or group
within an organization that provides centralized guidance, governance, standards, best practices, resources,
and oversight for project management activities. A PMO can help the project manager by providing access to
historical data, lessons learned, templates, tools, methodologies, and expertise from previous projects that can
be useful for planning and executing the current project.
QUESTION 56
A financial manager reports that several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even
though they are only assigned to a particular project. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of
this issue?
A.
A project manager assigned the wrong resources.
B.
A project manager did not release the resources
C.
A project manager did not remove the system access.
D.
A project manager did not provide the project sign-off.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most
likely be the cause of this issue where several employees allocations from the past month appear to be 200%
even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or
reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure.
Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts
or errors in resource allocation or reporting.
QUESTION 57
Which of the following requires the MOST availability from the business team?
A. SDLC
B. Scrum
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C. PRINCE2
D. Waterfall
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scrum requires the most availability from the business team among the given options. Scrum is a popular agile
framework that organizes work into short iterations called sprints, usually lasting one to four weeks. Scrum
emphasizes collaboration between teams, customers, and stakeholders and encourages open communication
and transparency throughout the project lifecycle. Scrum requires frequent involvement and feedback from the
business team through activities such as product backlog refinement, sprint planning, sprint review, sprint
retrospective, and daily scrum meetings.
QUESTION 58
Which of the following software programs would be BEST to use lo store information related to business
transactions?
A.
Record management system
B.
Customer relationship management
C.
Enterprise resource planning
D.
Content management system
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Customer relationship management (CRM) software would be the best to use to store information related to
business transactions. CRM software is a type of software that helps businesses manage their interactions and
relationships with current and potential customers. CRM software can store and organize information such as
customer contact details, purchase history, preferences, feedback, complaints, etc. CRM software can help
businesses improve customer service, satisfaction, loyalty, retention, and revenue1
QUESTION 59
During a status meeting, the development team reviews work and finds an unforeseen dependency on one of
the critical project activities. As a result, the project will most likely be delayed. Which of the following actions
should the project manager MOST likely perform?
A.
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline.
B.
Communicate to the stakeholders about the updated timeline.
C.
Ask the development team to fast-track upcoming activities.
D.
Add two resources so the critical activities will finish on time.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Work with the project scheduler to update the project timeline. The project manager should work with the
project scheduler to update the project timeline after finding an unforeseen dependency on one of the critical
project activities that will most likely cause a delay. The project scheduler is a person or a tool that helps plan,
schedule, monitor, and control the project activities and resources. The project scheduler can help the project
manager to assess the impact of the dependency on the project schedule and identify any possible ways to
mitigate or resolve it. The project scheduler can also help to update the project timeline with the revised dates
and durations of the project activities and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
QUESTION 60
Which of the following would be the NEXT document a project manager should update once the need to
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procure goods and/or services is identified?
A.
Memorandum of understanding
B.
Request for information
C.
Statement of work
D.
Non-disclosure agreement
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The statement of work (SOW) would be the next document that a project manager should update once the
need to procure goods and/or services is identified. A SOW is a document that defines the scope, deliverables,
schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW typically includes information such as
purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance, deliverables schedule, applicable standards,
acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule. A SOW can help to establish a common
understanding and agreement between the client and the service provider on what needs to be done and how it
will be done.
QUESTION 61
A PM received feedback from the project sponsor that the resources involved in the project are unsure of their
daily activities. Which of the following is the MOST effective step for the PM to take to ensure clarity within the
team?
A.
Create a list of tasks and share it with the team.
B.
Resend the scope of work to the team.
C.
Review the Gantt chart weekly with the team.
D.
Have the project sponsor meet with the team.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team would be the most effective step for the project manager to
take to ensure clarity within the team after receiving feedback from the project sponsor that the resources
involved in the project are unsure of their daily activities. A Gantt chart is a graphical tool that shows the
schedule of a project, including the start and end dates, durations, dependencies, milestones, and progress of
each task or activity. Reviewing the Gantt chart weekly with the team can help to clarify their roles and
responsibilities, assign tasks and deadlines, track and report their status and performance, identify and resolve
any issues or risks, and keep them aligned and engaged with the project goals.VVVVVVVVVVVVVV
QUESTION 62
A project manager has been informed that the delivery of required IT equipment will be delayed. Which of the
following is the FIRST step the project manager should take?
A.
Make an impact assessment.
B.
Prepare a new purchase order.
C.
Select a new vendor.
D.
Create a risk register.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should make an impact assessment after being informed that the delivery of required IT
equipment will be delayed. An impact assessment is a process of analyzing and evaluating how a change or an
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issue may affect the scope, schedule, cost, quality, or risks of a project. An impact assessment can help to
determine the severity and implications of the delay on the project objectives and deliverables and identify any
possible alternatives or corrective actions to minimize or avoid its negative effects.
QUESTION 63
Which of the following BEST identifies the intent and purpose of a project closeout report?
A.
To provide documentation of lessons learned
B.
To document variances from the initial project baseline
C.
To validate that a project has been successfully completed
D.
To release resources and terminate all access rights
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To validate that a project has been successfully completed. The intent and purpose of a project closeout report
is to validate that a project has been successfully completed and to summarize the goals, objectives, and
outcomes of the project, as well as the lessons learned and the feedback from stakeholders. A project closeout
report is a document that is submitted at the end of a project to officially conclude it and release the resources
and contracts involved. I. useful for evaluating the projects success and improving the performance of future
projects12
QUESTION 64
A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost
savings the project will produce when I. complete. The output of this exercise will produce the:
A. ROI.
B. SOW.
C. RFI.
D. RPR
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The output of this exercise where the project manager is comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings
the project will produce when I. complete will produce the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a financial metric
that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns to its costs.
ROI can help to evaluate the value or worth of a project and support decision making and prioritization. ROI is
calculated by dividing the net benefits (benefits minus costs) by the total costs and multiplying by 100 to get a
percentage.
QUESTION 65
A project team has just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. Which of the
following documents should be used to record the event? (Select TWO).
A.
Risk report
B.
Defect log
C.
Issue log
D. Backlog
E.
Change log
F.
Progress report
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Issue log and change log are documents that should be used to record the event where the project team has
just experienced an unexpected event and implemented a work-around. An issue log is a document that tracks
and records any issues or problems that arise during a project and how they are resolved. An issue log can
help to monitor and control the project performance and quality and prevent any negative impacts on the project
objectives and deliverables. A change log is a document that tracks and records any changes or modifications
that are made to the project scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources during a project. A change log can help
to document the change request, approval, implementation, and impact of each change and ensure traceability
and transparency.
QUESTION 66
A project implementation partner and the project manager disagree about completed requirements. The project
manager shows the project requirements as 70% complete. The implementation partner validates that all
requirements were completed. Which of the following would clarify what the project implementation partner was
contractually expected to complete?
A. SOW
B. RFI
C. RFQ
D. WBS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The statement of work (SOW) would clarify what the project implementation partner was contractually expected
to complete after disagreeing with the project manager about completed requirements. A SOW is a document
that defines the scope, deliverables, schedule, and terms and conditions of a project or contract. A SOW
typically includes information such as purpose, scope of work, location of work, period of performance,
deliverables schedule, applicable standards, acceptance criteria, special requirements, and payment schedule.
A SOW can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the client and the service
provider on what needs to be done and how it will be done.
QUESTION 67
During the project initiation phase, a project team has been identified. Which of the following is the NEXT step
for the project manager?
A.
Determine budget constraints.
B.
Validate the business case.
C.
Update the project charter.
D.
Create a project schedule
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Update the project charter. Updating the project charter would be the next step for the project manager after
identifying the project team during the project initiation phase. A project charter is a document that formally
authorizes a project and defines its purpose, scope, objectives, deliverables, milestones, roles and
responsibilities, assumptions, constraints, risks, budget, and timeline. A project charter can help to align the
expectations and interests of all stakeholders involved in a project and provide direction and guidance for
planning and executing the project.
QUESTION 68
A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part
of the current requirement documentation. Which of the following is MOST likely happening?
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A.
Scope creep
B.
Collecting requirements
C. Decision-making
D.
Project change
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new
feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to
the uncontrolled expansion or change of a projects scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope
creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete
requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have
negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer
satisfaction12
QUESTION 69
Which of the following BEST illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team?
A. SOW
B. WBS
C. RACI
D. PERT
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RACI is a tool that best illustrates how team members with different roles should interact on the team. RACI is
an acronym that stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. RACI is a type of responsibility
assignment matrix (RAM) that defines and clarifies the roles and responsibilities of each team member for each
task or activity in a project. RACI can help to improve communication, collaboration, and accountability among
team members and avoid confusion, duplication, or conflicts3
QUESTION 70
For an upcoming project kickoff. a PM is looking for a way to illustrate roles for major project activities. Which of
the following would be the MOST useful option?
A.
Resource plan
B.
Organizational chart
C.
Project charter
D.
RACI chart
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A RACI chart would be the most useful option for the project manager to illustrate roles for major project
activities for an upcoming project kickoff. A RACI chart is a visual representation of a RACI matrix that shows
who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or activity in a project using a table
format. A RACI chart can help to communicate and document the roles and expectations of each team member
and stakeholder for the project and ensure alignment and agreement.
QUESTION 71
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Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of
the defects. Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause?
A.
Kanban board
B.
Pareto chart
C.
Ishikawa diagram
D.
Decision tree
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with
project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is
a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An
Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to
prevent or eliminate them.
QUESTION 72
A project manager needs to update the project sponsor and senior stakeholders about the progress of a
project. Which of the following tools will the project manager MOST likely use?
A. Dashboard
B.
Gantt chart
C.
Work breakdown structure
D.
Requirements Traceability Matrix
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A dashboard is a tool that the project manager will most likely use to update the project sponsor and senior
stakeholders about the progress of a project. A dashboard is a graphical tool that displays key performance
indicators (KPIs), metrics, and data related to a project using charts, graphs, tables, or other visual elements. A
dashboard can help to provide a quick and easy overview of the project status and performance and highlight
any issues or risks that need attention.
QUESTION 73
When creating a project schedule, a project manager adds activities with zero duration. Which of the following
describes these types of activities?
A.
Critical paths
B. Resources
C. Milestones
D.
Work breakdown structures
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Milestones are activities with zero duration that are added to a project schedule by a project manager.
Milestones are significant events or achievements in a project that mark the completion of a phase, deliverable,
or task. Milestones can help to track and measure the progress and performance of a project and communicate
it to stakeholders.
QUESTION 74
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A project manager reports that the implementation of a new system is on track to be completed under budget
and ahead of the schedule. A stakeholder then asks the manager to add mobile device functionality. Which of
the following should the project manager do in response to the request?
A.
Decline because I. not included in the project scope.
B.
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request
C.
Create new functional and non-functional requirements for mobile devices.
D.
Revise the baseline of the project plan by adding the new requirements.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Assess the impact of the request and create a change request. The project manager should assess the impact
of the request and create a change request in response to the stakeholder asking to add mobile device
functionality to a project that is on track to be completed under budget and ahead of schedule. A change
request is a document that formally proposes and records a modification or addition to some aspect of a
project, such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, or resources. A change request can help to communicate and
justify the need and rationale for the change and its implications on the project objectives and deliverables. A
change request also helps to initiate the change control process, which involves reviewing, approving,
implementing, and monitoring the change12
QUESTION 75
During a code implementation, a senior developer and junior tester are discussing the testing scenarios that
were performed. A major malfunction resulted in an inoperative product condition. As a result, the team was
forced to work until midnight to restore operations. Which of the following should the PM have generated FIRST
to alleviate the impact of this issue prior to deployment?
A.
A risk budget
B.
A risk impact
C.
A change request
D.
A contingency plan
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should have generated a contingency plan first to alleviate the impact of this issue prior to
deployment where a major malfunction resulted in an inoperative product condition during a code
implementation. A contingency plan is a plan that outlines alternative courses of action or strategies to deal with
potential problems or risks that may occur during a project. A contingency plan can help to prevent or minimize
the negative impacts of unforeseen events or issues on the project objectives and deliverables and ensure
business continuity and stability.
QUESTION 76
During a brainstorming meeting, a project manager identifies multiple techniques that will help the project team
ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals. Which of the following plans is the project
manager creating?
A. Procurement
B. Communication
C.
Quality assurance
D. Risk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
The project manager is creating a quality assurance plan when identifying multiple techniques that will help the
project team ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals during a brainstorming
meeting. A quality assurance plan is a plan that defines and documents the standards, criteria, methods,
activities, and tools for ensuring and verifying that the quality requirements and expectations of a project are
met. A quality assurance plan can help to improve the quality of the project processes and deliverables and
prevent or reduce defects or errors.
QUESTION 77
A PM learns about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members.
Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?
A.
Escalate the communication issues.
B.
Implement a communication platform.
C.
Review the communication plan.
D.
Talk with the head of the PMO.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should review the communication plan after learning about some communication issues
with different stakeholders and team members. A communication plan is a document that defines and
documents the communication goals, strategies, methods, channels, frequency, roles, and responsibilities for a
project. A communication plan can help to facilitate effective and timely communication among all stakeholders
involved in a project and avoid confusion, misunderstanding, or conflicts.
QUESTION 78
An organization was fined due to an audit finding that revealed a third-party vendor was able to see secured
project information in a recently implemented system. Which of the following was the cause of this situation?
A.
The ticket system provided access by default without any approval.
B.
The project manager did not perform proper project planning.
C.
The system is lacking proper access controls.
D.
Sensitive data was incorrectly classified during the audit process.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The system is lacking proper access controls if a third-party vendor was able to see secured project information
in a recently implemented system that resulted in a fine for the organization. Access controls are security
mechanisms that regulate who or what can view, use, or modify data or resources in a system or network.
Access controls typically involve authentication and authorization processes that verify the identity and
permissions of users or devices before granting them access. Access controls can help to protect data
confidentiality, integrity, and availability and prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft12
QUESTION 79
An institution wants to implement software solutions to help manage the internal flow for formally responding in
writing to citizens' complaints. Which of the following solutions would be BEST?
A.
Enterprise resource planning and end user applications
B.
Electronic document and record management systems
C.
Customer relationship management and databases
D.
Content management and financial systems
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Electronic document and record management systems would be the best software solutions to help an
institution manage the internal flow for formally responding in writing to citizens complaints. Electronic
document and record management systems are software systems that help organizations create, store,
organize, manage, track, and distribute electronic documents and records. Electronic document and record
management systems can help to improve efficiency, productivity, collaboration, compliance, and security of
document and record management processes and workflows3
QUESTION 80
A system was implemented, and testing was successfully completed. Which of the following should the project
manager do NEXT?
A.
Validate against the scope statement and ask for sign-off.
B.
Run a control chart to ensure the quality of the deliverables.
C.
Review the risk register and close up residual risks.
D.
Start the training and handoff for the operations team.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The project manager should validate against the scope statement and ask for sign-off after a system was
implemented and testing was successfully completed. The scope statement is a document that defines and
documents the project scope, objectives, deliverables, requirements, assumptions, and constraints. The scope
statement can help to establish a common understanding and agreement between the project manager and the
stakeholders on what the project aims to achieve and deliver. Validating against the scope statement means
checking whether the project deliverables meet the agreed-upon scope criteria and quality standards. Asking
for sign-off means requesting formal acceptance and approval of the project deliverables from the
stakeholders.
QUESTION 81
Which of the following is a test that is done on an existing system to ensure the previous functionality still works
after a change has been made?
A.
Smoke testing
B.
Regression testing
C.
Unit testing
D.
User acceptance testing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Regression testing is a type of testing that is done on an existing system to ensure that the previous
functionality still works after a change has been made. Regression testing is a process of retesting or verifying
that a software system or application still performs as expected after it has been modified or updated with new
features, bug fixes, patches, etc. Regression testing can help to detect any errors or defects that may have
been introduced by the change and ensure that no functionality has been broken or degraded.
been broken or degraded.
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