NRSC Learning and Memory_ Practice Quizzes

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Jan 9, 2024

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Unit One According to the neuron doctrine, neurons are - contiguous Camillo Golgi developed a method that allowed: - neurons to be visualized Not: - The whole brain to be imaged - Action potentials to be recorded - Memories to be measured - Both a and c Compare the single trace theory to the dual trace theory of forgetting curves. - Single trace theory proposes that the forgetting curve reflects the natural decay of the underlying memory trace. In contrast the dual trace theory proposes that the forgetting results from the decay of two memory traces. One decays rapidly; the other much slower. Hermann Ebbinghaus invented ______ to study memory - Nonsense syllables Korsakoff believed that amnesia could be the result of either a - retrieval failure or storage failure Nonsense syllables always have hidden meaning - False The Ebbinghaus retention curve remains stable for one hour. - False The idea that synapses can be modified by experience is called the - synaptic plasticity hypothesis What important insight was implied by Ribot’s hypothesis that memories dissolve in stages? - There are different categories of memory and they are supported by different neural systems. What is the purpose of nonsense syllables? - To separate what the subject has already learned from what they are asked to remember What property of the brain allows it to be modified by experience? - plasticity Which of the following ideas were proposed by Ribot? - old memories are more resistant to disruption than new memories

Not: - the memory trace evolves in three stages - amnesia can be due to either a retrieval or storage failure - the junction between the axon and dendrite is called the synapse - none of the above Why is the psychological approach described as operating at a single level of analysis? - Because the only dependent variable in the experiments is behavior. William James proposed that memories are established in three stages. Which of the following is the correct order? - After image—Primary memory—Secondary memory Not: - Perceived experience—Primary memory—Secondary memory - After image—Primary memory—Consolidated memory - Perceived experience—Recollection—Secondary memory - None of the above Camillo Golgi would agree with the neuron doctrine. - False Ebbinghaus observed that: - Spaced repetition was more effective than massed repetition - Recall rapidly declined over the first hour following training Not: - Performance was not affected by practice - Recall continued to decline after an hour but at a faster rate - None of the above Hermann Ebbinghaus invented nonsense syllables: - To study “pure memory" Not: - To study the unconscious learning that goes on - To accurately record how many syllables people remember - To prove that people remember meaningful syllables better - All of the above Learning and Memory can never be directly ________ - observed What did the Ebbinghaus forgetting curve reveal? - Recall rapidly declined within the hour, but remained stable thereafter. What do the concepts of learning and memory explain? - How behavior is changed by experience. What is a nonsense syllable?

- A nonsense syllable consists of a vowel placed between two consonants and it is meaningless. What property of the brain allows it to be modified by experience? - plasticity Which of these principles are parts of the neuron doctrine? - A and c Not: - neurons are contiguous with each other, but not continuous. - neurons are continuous with each other, but not contiguous. - the junction between the axon and dendrite is the synapse. - the junction between the dendrite and a blood vessel is the synapse. Why are learning and memory theoretical concepts? - Because they cannot be observed; they are inferred. William James was the first person to directly relate memory phenomena to specific brain regions. - false Briefly, what is Ribot’s Law? - Old memories are more resistant to disruption than new ones are. What did the Ebbinghaus forgetting curve reveal? - Recall rapidly declined within the hour, but remained stable thereafter. What is the order of memory loss according to Ribot? - 1. Recent 2. Autobiographical/Personal 3. Habits/Emotional memory Which of the following describe how psychological and neurobiological approaches differ? - psychologists only study behavior - neurobiologists manipulate the brain Not: - psychologists do not use experimental methods - neurobiologists do not use experimental methods - All of the above Who reported the first forgetting curve? - Herman Ebbinghaus William James was the first person to directly relate memory phenomena to specific brain regions - false

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Chapter 2 Describe the in vitro LTP preparation. - requires dissecting a very thin tissue slice from the hippocampus and sustaining its function by placing the sample in a chemical cocktail. A stimulating electrode is positioned to stimulate axons, and a recording electrode is positioned to record the field potential. Which of the following is true? - receptors and scaffolding proteins are located in the post synaptic density - when the post-synaptic neuron depolarizes positive ions enter the cell Not: - the space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron is empty - the extracellular matrix resides in the postsynaptic neuron - when the post-synaptic neuron depolarizes negative ions enter the cell Hebb referred to “diffuse circuits of connected neurons that develop to represent specific percepts or concepts” as _______ - cell assemblies __________ are protein complexes that transport receptors to and from the plasma membrane. - Endosomes Which of the following is true? - Hebb’s cell assembly view of memory is generally accepted - memories are stored in many brain regions Not: - the warehouse view memory is generally accepted. - when one cell (A) participates in firing another cell (B) the ease with which A can fire B will decrease The ionic composition of the intracellular and extracellular fluids become more alike when the neuron depolarizes. - True Phosphatases add phosphates to other proteins. - False Which of the following statements is true? - Shaffer collateral fibers connect CA3 connects to CA1 Not: - the flow of information through the trisynaptic circuit begins at CA3. - the perforant path connects CA3 to CA1 - mossy fibers connect the dentate gyrus to CA1

The process of __________ depends on the catalytic unit. - phosphorylation What is the structure of a kinase? - Two domains: an inhibitory domain and a catalytic domain. The field excitatory postsynaptic potential directly measures the - flow of positively charged ions out of the extracellular space. Not: - release of neurotransmitter from the postsynaptic neuron. - flow of negatively charged ions out of the neuron. - flow of positively charged ions into the neuron. - All of the above Which of the following statements about intracellular space is true? - Depolarization makes the intracellular space more positive and drives the neuron towards generating action potentials. Not: - Hyperpolarization makes the intracellular space more positive and drives the neuron toward generating action potentials. - When the neuron hyperpolarizes, the intracellular fluid becomes more similar to the extracellular fluid. - Depolarization makes the intracellular space more negative and drives the neuron toward generating action potentials. - None of the above Why is the resting membrane potential negative? - There are more negatively charged ions inside the neuron. What is LTD? - It is the reduction in the field potential produced by a weak, long-lasting inducing stimulus. When a neuron depolarizes the composition of inside of the cell becomes less like that of the extracellular fluid. - False Synaptic vesicles contain __________. - neurotransmitter When the membrane potential becomes more negative, the neuron is said to be __________. - hyperpolarized Which of the following statements is true? - Kinases modify other proteins via phosphorylation. - Phosphatases remove phosphates from proteins.

Not: - Kinases are directly activated by first messengers. - both a and b - Both b and c The extracellular recording directly measures - positive ions leaving the field surrounding the electrode Not: - positive ions leaving the neuron - the flow of negative ions out of the neuron - The flow of positive ions into the neurons - none of the above Where are glutamate receptors found? - Along the membrane of dendritic spines. What are the two types of proteins targeted by second messengers? - Kinases and phosphatases Memories evolve in four overlapping stages. What are they? - 1) Generation; 2) Stabilization; 3) Consolidation; 4) Maintenance To induce LTP in CA3 neurons, the stimulating electrode should be placed near the __________. - mossy fibers Memory is a result of experience modifying synaptic connections between neurons that are activated by the experience. - True In an LTP experiment, which of the following is false ? - The independent variable is the intensity of the intensity of the electrical current Not: - The test stimulus is set to about 35–50% of maximal response. - The inducing stimulus is used to establish a baseline. - The dependent variable is the fEPSP. An extracellular electrode used to measure a field potential detects a single depolarizing synapse. - False Describe the in vitro LTP preparation. - requires dissecting a very thin tissue slice from the hippocampus and sustaining its function by placing the sample in a chemical cocktail. A stimulating electrode is positioned to stimulate axons, and a recording electrode is positioned to record the field potential.

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Why is the resting membrane potential negative? - There are more negatively charged ions inside the neuron. What are the functions of phosphorylation? - 1) Change a protein’s location; 2) Change a protein’s ability to associate with other proteins; 3) Change a protein’s enzymatic activity The extracellular recording directly measures - positive ions leaving the field surrounding the electrode Not: - the flow of positive ions into the neuron - the flow of negative ions out of the neuron - positive ions leaving the neuron - none of the above Synaptic vesicles contain __________. - neurotransmitter Which of the following is true? - second messengers target phosphatases - second messengers change the state of kinases from inactive to active. - glutamate is a first messenger Not: - the inhibitory unit of kinases phosphorylates proteins - second messengers are proteins Calcium is a second messenger. - True Initial change in the strength of synapses depends on __________; however, enduring changes require __________. - post-translation processes; new protein (transcription and translation processes) Glutamate receptors involved in LTP are found along the axon. - False Describe the simple form of an LTP experiment! - The experiment has three stages. 1) A weak stimulus is applied to establish a baseline. 2) Then a strong inducing stimulus is presented to induce LTP. 3) The weak stimulus is then presented again to determine if the synapses were strengthened. Second messengers can be quickly synthesized. - True Which of the following is correct?

- translation requires the presence of mRNA - post-translation processes modify existing protein - the activation of a kinase would be an example of a post-translation modification. Not: - kinases activate second messengers - all of the above. The region of the spine where the membrane is thickened and contains scaffolding proteins and receptors is called the __________. - postsynaptic density (PSD) Second messengers are proteins. - False What is LTD? - It is the reduction in the field potential produced by a weak, long-lasting inducing stimulus. The performant path connects the entorhinal cortex to _________ - Dentate gyrus What is the composition of the postsynaptic density? - It contains several hundred proteins that include glutamate receptors, ion channels, signaling enzymes, scaffolding proteins, and adhesion molecules. What is glutamate? - It is the excitatory neurotransmitter that binds to glutamate receptors. The field excitatory postsynaptic potential directly measures the - flow of positively charged ions out of the extracellular space. Not: - release of neurotransmitter from the postsynaptic neuron. - flow of negatively charged ions out of the neuron. - flow of positively charged ions into the neuron. - All of the above Where is the postsynaptic density located? - In the area of the postsynaptic spine that receives neurotransmitter. In the area of the postsynaptic spine that receives neurotransmitter. - mossy fibers Shaffer collaterals terminate onto _________ - CA1 neurons Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter. - True

Ionotropic receptors protrude outside and inside the cell. - True What are the three components of the synapse? - 1) Presynaptic component; 2) Postsynaptic component; 3) Synaptic cleft What is an excitatory synapse? - A synapse with a postsynaptic component that has dendritic spines containing glutamate receptors. When a neuron hyperpolarizes the - intracellular fluid become more negatively charge - likelihood of an action potential decreases Not: - likelihood of an action potential increases - membrane potential becomes more positive - A and d What kind of a neurotransmitter is glutamate?________ - Excitatory The dependent variable in a typical LTP experiment is _____ - The fEPSP A major feature of the postsynaptic membrane in excitatory synapses is __________. - PSD The material that fills the synaptic cleft is called __________. - extracellular matrix Where would you place the extracellular recording electrode to measure the field potential if you stimulated mossy fibers? - in the CA3 region Not: - in the entorhinal cortex - none of the above - in the dentate gyrus region - in the CA1 region Excitatory synapses respond to the neurotransmitter called __________. - Glutamate Kinases are put into the active state by __________. - second messengers As the intensity of a __________ increases, so does the __________ of LTP.

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- high-frequency inducing stimulus; duration Competitive antagonists, such as APV, can replace a ligand and cause conformational changes in the receptor. - False Where is the extracellular matrix located? - The extracellular space separates the pre- and postsynaptic components of the synapse. What is glutamate? - It is the excitatory neurotransmitter that binds to glutamate receptors. What are the two functions of the postsynaptic density? - 1) Alignment of glutamate receptors located on the postsynaptic component with the presynaptic neurotransmitter release zone. 2) Positioning of other signaling molecules needed to modify synapses near glutamate receptors so that they can be rapidly activated. Which of the following statements does not describe a second messenger? - It is a type of protein with active and regulatory domains. Not: - It relays signals from receptors to target molecules inside the cell. - It is readily made inside the cell. - It can activate kinases and phosphatases. - None of the above describes a second messenger What is the function of a kinase? - To phosphorylate proteins and change their function. What is the cytosol? - Fluid inside the cell AMPA receptors influx mainly Na+; NMDA receptors influx both Na+ and Ca2+. - True Why is glutamate a first messenger? - Because it binds to a cell surface receptor and initiates intracellular activity. The __________ domain of a kinase adds phosphate groups to other proteins. - Catalytic Chapter 3 What is APV, and what is its function?

- It is a competitive NMDA antagonist, and it prevents glutamate from binding to NMDA receptors. Which of the following are shared by NMDA and AMPA receptors? - Both bind to glutamate Not: - both have a magnesia binding site - both require depolarizing in order to open the channel - both are voltage gated NMDA receptors are necessary for the __________ of LTP, but not for the __________ of LTP - induction; expression Which of the follow is true? - the opening of NMDA receptors is voltage dependent - NMDA receptors are not necessary for the expression of LTP - calcium influx is necessary to induce LTP Not: - NMDA receptors requires only the binding of glutamate to open their channel - AMPA receptors are necessary to induce LTP but not necessary for the expression of LTP What are the two conditions that must be met for Ca2+ ions to flow into the neuron? - Ligand binding (glutamate); 2) Synaptic depolarization Why would an increase in the population of AMPA receptors increase the fEPSP? - Because with more AMPA receptors available to bind to glutamate, more sodium ions would leave the extracellular fluid. Why should inhibiting AMPA receptors prevent the expression of LTP? - Because no sodium would leave the extracellular fluid to enter the spines PSD-95 is critical to the trapping of AMPA receptors in the PSD. - True What were Collingridge’s results that established the importance of the importance of NMDA receptors to our understanding of LTP? - He found that inhibiting NMDA receptors prevented the induction of LTP but did not influence its expression. CaMKII is important in the delivery of AMPA receptors to the PSD because it phosphorylates Stargazin. - True

Which of the following events are necessary for the lateral diffusion of AMPA receptors into the PSD? - CaMKII must phosphorylate Stargazin - Calcium must enter the spine Not: - CaMKII must phosphorylate NMDA receptors - CaMKII must phosphorylate PSD95 - All of the above A major mechanism for the expression of LTP involves increasing the __________ in the membrane at synapses. - Number of AMPA receptors The degradation of the actin cytoskeleton depends on spectrins degrading calpains. - False Which of the following terms apply to glutamate? - All of the above Not: - Neurotransmitter - First messenger - Ligand - Both a and b What is the role of calpain in the generation of LTP? - It degrades spectrins which binds action to the plasma membrane. This allows AMPA receptors to enter the PSD. Stargazin is critical to the opening of the AMPA receptor. - False Why is the NMDA receptor an ionotropic glutamate receptor? - Because it binds to glutamate and allows ions to enter the cell. What molecule traps AMPA receptors in the PSD___________ - PSD-95 The opening of NMDA receptor channels require synaptic depolarization. - True AMPA trafficking is regulated __________ and by __________. - constitutively; synaptic activity Which of the following steps is required to degrade the actin cytoskeleton? - calcium must activate calpain - calpain must degrade spectrins

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Not: - calpain must activate NMDA receptors - spectrin must degrade AMPA receptors - All of the above You could block the expression of LTP by __________ AMPA receptors. - inhibiting Competitive antagonists, such as APV, can replace a ligand and cause conformational changes in the receptor. - False NMDA receptors but not AMPA receptors influx calcium - True Antagonizing NMDA receptor after LTP is established prevents LTP expression. - False Constitutive AMPA receptor trafficking is primarily a diffusion process. - True The delivery of AMPA receptors produced by LTP induction involves both lateral diffusion and the exocytic processes. - True Which of the following statements about LTP is false ? - Both b and d Not: - NMDA and AMPA receptors are required for the induction of LTP. - CNQX can inhibit induction, but not expression, of LTP. - APV can inhibit induction, but not expression, of LTP. - To express LTP, NMDA and AMPA channels are crucial. Why should inhibiting NMDA receptors prevent the degradation of the actin cytoskeleton? - Many reasons. This would prevent the entry of calcium into the spine to activate the protease calpain. CaMKII would not be activated. The exocytotic delivery of AMPA receptors depends on calcium. Why should inhibiting AMPA receptors prevent the generation of LTP? - Because the opening the of NMDA receptor depends on sodium coming into the cell (via AMPA receptors) to depolarize the spine and expel the Mg plug Chapter 4

Application of a low frequency stimulus within a day after the TBS-inducing stimulus is sufficient to interrupt the development of a long-lasting LTP. - False The observation that people with amnesia can recall events that took place long ago, but often times not ones that occurred within minutes of the accident indicates - That new memories are more vulnerable to disruption than older memories. How can a weak stimulus (low frequency) be used to prevent the development of a long-lasting LTP? - If it is applied within a minute of the TBS-inducing stimulus. When cofilin is phosphorylated, F-actin is more likely to remain in its filament state. - True Low frequency stimulation delivered 15 minutes after LTP induction has _______ effect of stabilization - No Which of the following is true? - actin can exist as both a monomer and a polymer - the kinase LIMK phosphorylates cofilin - in a phosphorylated state cofilin permits actin polymerization Not: - in a phosphorylated state cofilin severs actin filament - None of the above When cofilin is phosphorylated, F-actin is more likely to remain in its filament state. - True The delivery of low frequency stimulation prior induce LTP has no effect on its generation but _______ LTP stabilization. - Prevents In its inactive state CaMKII _______ actin filaments. - Bundles The severing properties of cofilin are initially important to stabilization, however, it is important this this function be terminated. How does this normally happen. - Normally LIMK would phosphorylate cofilin. What is an “adhesive zipper”? - When a N-cadherin dimer from the presynaptic domain contacts an identical dimer from the postsynaptic domain When cofilin is phosphorylated, F-actin is more likely to remain in its filament state.

- True What is a benefit of larger spines? - They can endure for days. Neutralizing the response of β integrins to extracellular ligands prevents enduring LTP normally produced by TBS, but it has no effect on the initial induction of LTP. - True How can a weak stimulus (low frequency) be used to prevent the development of a long-lasting LTP? - If it is applied within a minute of the TBS-inducing stimulus. The generation but not the stabilization of LTP depends on the reorganization of N- cadherins. - False The stabilization but not the generation of LTP depends on the reorganization of N- cadherins. - True Which of the following supports the hypothesis that actin polymerization is critical to stabilizing LTP? - inhibiting actin polymerization before but not about 15 min following LTP induction prevents LTP from enduring Not: - low frequency stimulation following LTP induction prevents LTP from enduring - inhibiting NMDA receptors prevents LTP from enduring - inhibiting actin polymerization prior to LTP induction does not prevent the generation of LTP - none of the above One role for inactive CaMKII is? - bundle actin filaments The state of cofilin regulates actin __________ and __________. - polymerization; depolymerization In Harou Kasai’s study of single spine enlargement what was the effect of the actin polymerization inhibitor, latrunculin - Spine enlargement was initiated by could not be sustained. Describe how actin filaments are broken down into smaller units. Why is this beneficial? - Myosin IIb motor proteins use actin as tracks, and when they move, they exert a shearing force, breaking filaments into smaller segments. In its unphosphorylated

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state cofilin severs actin filaments. These segments then can be used to assemble filaments elsewhere in the spine. When cofilin is phosphorylated actin polymerization is prevented - False How could prevented the polymerization of actin filament normally produced in an LTP experiment. - Prevent the phosphorylation of cofilin or apply a drug such as latrunculin and cytochalasin. Drugs like latrunculin and cytochalasin prevent actin polymerization - True The Rho-ROCK GTPase pathway phosphorylates __________. - LIMK In its non-phosphorylated state cofilin can sever actin filaments. - True When actin polymerization is inhibited the actin cytoskeleton will enlarge. - False Inhibiting NMDA receptors will prevent spine enlargement. - True Stabilization of LTP depends on the regulation of actin dynamics. - True In its normal non-phosphorylated state cofilin _______ and _______ - severs actin filament and prevents actin polymerization In Harou Kasai’s study of single spine enlargement what was the effect of antagonizing NMDA receptors? - There was no spine enlargement In Harou Kasai’s study of single spine enlargement what was the effect of the actin polymerization inhibitor, latrunculin - Spine enlargement was initiated by could not be sustained The severing properties of cofilin are initially important to stabilization, however, it is important this this function be terminated. Why? - Because ultimately stabilization depends on the actin polymerization In its active state, LIMK __________ cofilin. - phosphorylates

Why is non-phosphorylated cofilin important to the subsequent enlargement of the spine? - In this state cofilin severs actin filament to make more strands available for polymerization one cofilin is phosphorylated. When in a phosphorylated state cofilin no longer __________ F-actin. - depolymerizes __________ phosphorylates cofilin. - LIMK In its normal non-phosphorylated state cofilin _______ and _______ - severs actin filament and prevents actin polymerization Which of the following observations were revealed by single spine imaging studies? - spines did remain enlarged if cofilin was not phosphorylated - proteins known to stabilize actin initially vacate the spine - the protein composition of single spines rapidly changes in response to glutamate Not: - inhibiting polymerization prevents initial spine enlargement - all of the above Chapter 5 What two general processes are necessary for memory consolidation? - Translation and transcription According to the de novo protein synthesis (DNPS) hypothesis long lasting memories require that the learning experience generate new proteins. - True To ensure consolidation new__________ must be generated. - Protein Which of the following observations support the idea that the fundamental consolidating event is the construction of an enlarged stable spine? - preventing actin polymerization prevents LTP from enduring - preventing cofilin phosphorylation prevents LTP from enduring Not: - inhibiting NMDA receptors prevent LTP induction - inhibiting actin polymerization prevents the generation of LTP - none of the above. In the soma-to-nucleus cascade, __________ are assumed to open __________. - repetitive action potentials; voltage-dependent calcium channels (vdCCs)

To ensure a consolidated memory the __________ must initiate translation processes to generate new protein. - inducing stimulus The consolidated outcome is likely the building of an enlarged stable actin cytoskeleton. - True Why has anisomycin been used to study LTP? - Anisomycin is a general protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used to test the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis. Why is emetine important? - It is the protein synthesis inhibitor Bradshaw and Bliss used to implicate local protein synthesis in the generation of long-lasting LTP. Anisomycin causes LTP produced by intense, high-frequency stimulation to resemble LPT produced by a weak-induction stimulus. - True Where is mRNA found in the neuron? - Nucleus; soma; dendrites Calcium dependent calcium release refers to extracellular calcium entering the cell. - False Provide experimental support for the soma-to-nucleus model. - S-LTP can be converted into L-LTP by initiating action potentials without strongly stimulating synapses. First, CA1 neurons are weakly stimulated and then action potentials are initiated in the same CA1 cells antidromically. These action potentials alone also were sufficient to phosphorylate ERK and CREB protein. Pretreatment with __________, a protein synthesis inhibitor, prevents the strong stimulus from producing L-LTP. - anisomycin Where is intracellular calcium found? - Smooth ER Which of the following is true? - transcription depends on post-translation modifications - genomic signaling can be initiated by synaptic activity - transcription processes generate mRNA Not: - all the above - transcription directly produces new proteins

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The __________ hypothesis is supported by experiments that separate dendrites in the CA1 region of the hippocampus from their cell bodies. - local protein synthesis The synapse-to-nucleus hypothesis proposes that - genomic signaling is initiated directly in the synapse - genomic signaling molecules translocate from the synapse to the nucleus Not: - genomic signaling is the result of calcium entering the soma from voltage depend calcium channels - all the above - none of the above Genomic signaling can occur via two pathways: __________ and __________. - synapse-to-nucleus; soma-to-nucleus The fact that anisomycin has no effect on short-lasting LTP implies that it require new protein to be generated. - False Applying a protein synthesis inhibitor to the slice prior to LTP induction would - prevent LTP from enduring Not: - prevent the induction of LTP - prevent both the induction of LTP and prevent LTP from enduring - all of the above - none of the above Local protein synthesis depends on already existing mRNA. - True The first of the two waves of protein synthesis depends on genomic signaling. - False The fact that S-LTP is not blocked by protein synthesis inhibitors indicates that it depends - only on post translation modification processes. Not: - on transcription processes. - on transcription and translation. - on extracellular pathways. - Both a and b What is the major assumption in the soma-to-nucleus signaling model? - Action potentials produced when a cell depolarizes open voltage dependent calcium channels near the soma that signal the nucleus.

Which of the following statements about IP3 is true? - IP3 is regulated by mGluRs. Not: - IP3 requires calcium to enter the cell. - IP3 is regulated by NMDA receptors. - IP3 binds to RYRs. Name the two receptors that can release calcium from the ER into the dendritic compartment. What do they bind to? - 1) IP3Rs, which respond to the second messenger IP3; 2) RyRs, which bind to calcium. Transcription refers to the creation of new protein - False Local protein synthesis depends on already existing mRNA. - True Describe the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis. - New protein is synthesized by processes initiated by the inducing stimulus. Pretreatment with __________, a protein synthesis inhibitor, prevents the strong stimulus from producing L-LTP. - Anisomycin Why has anisomycin been used to study LTP? - Anisomycin is a general protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used to test the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis. When the protein synthesis inhibitor emetine was applied to the entire hippocampal slice, it __________ L-LTP, but when applied to only the soma it __________ L-LTP. - prevented; did not block Which of the following observations support the idea that the fundamental consolidating event is the construction of an enlarged stable spine? - preventing actin polymerization prevents LTP from enduring - preventing cofilin phosphorylation prevents LTP from enduring Not: - inhibiting NMDA receptors prevent LTP induction - inhibiting actin polymerization prevents the generation of LTP - none of the above. Both transcription and translation depend on post-translation modifications of existing protein. - True

Describe the influence of the protein synthesis inhibitor on anisomycin on LTP. - Applying anisomycin prevents the strong stimulus from producing L-LTP but leaves S-LTP intact. CREB is an important translation factor found in dendrites. - False Pretreatment with __________, a protein synthesis inhibitor, prevents the strong stimulus from producing L-LTP. - anisomycin Give two reasons why the ER is important in the context of synaptic plasticity. - 1) It is a calcium sink that can rapidly sequester or store free Ca2+. 2) It is a calcium source that can release Ca2+ in response to second messengers. Calcium dependent calcium release occurs when calcium entering via NMDA receptors binds to RyRs on the endoplasmic reticulum. - True Which of the following statements about the protein synthesis inhibitor emetine is true? - when applied selectively to the soma of stimulated neurons, it did not influence LTP. - when applied selectively to the apical dendrites, it prevented LTP from enduring in those dendrites. Not: - when applied selectively to the basal dendrites, it did not influence LTP in those dendrites. - both a and b - None of the above What are the calcium sources important for LTP? - Answer: enters the dendritic spines through NMDA receptors and enters the soma through vdCCs. The other source is intracellular Ca2+ stored in the ER. It can be released when calcium binds to the RyRs located on the ER in the spine or when IP3 binds to IP3Rs located on ER in the dendrite. To produce mRNA, signaling molecules enter the nucleus to phosphorylate transcription factors. - True A strong stimulus initiates two rounds of protein synthesis; they are - 1) local translation and 2) genomic signaling cascades that transcribe new mRNA that can then be translated.

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Genomic signaling refers to processes initiated by synaptic events that lead to the transcription of new mRNA. - True Which of the following statements are true? - calcium can be released from the endoplasmic reticulum. - IP3 receptors are located primarily on endoplasmic reticulum in the dendritic region - RYRs are located primarily on endoplasmic reticulum protruding into the spine. Not: - NMDA receptors are located on the endoplasmic reticulum. - All the above Describe the order of events in the synapse-to-nucleus signaling model. - 1) the stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron first activates second messengers, which 2) can then activate protein kinases, which 3) can translocate into the cell nucleus where 4) they can phosphorylate CREB protein, and transcription is initiated. Dendritic protein synthesis (local protein synthesis) is not sufficient to produce relatively long lasting LTP. - False Type: MR Which of the following statements is true? - Ionotropic receptors respond faster than metabotropic receptors. Not: - Only NMDA receptors influx calcium. - NMDA receptors have an ion channel. - mGluRs have an ion channel. Why is the activation of CREB a post-translation modification? - Because it is a protein and is activated when phosphorylated. Which of the following statements about LTP is true? - All of the above are true Not: - S-LTP depends solely of post-translation modifications. - L-LTP depends on transcription and translation processes. - L-LTP depends on post translation modifications, transcription, and translation processes. Why does separating the dendrites from the soma provide evidence for local protein synthesis?

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- If the dendrites are separated from the soma, there is no way synaptic activity can signal the nucleus and no way for new plasticity products generated in the nucleus to reach the stimulated synapse. The basic claim of the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis is that - memory consolidation depends on the learning experience generating new protein Not: - protein synthesis depends on post-translation modifications - memory consolidation requires proteins - protein synthesis requires transcription processes - none of the above Synapse-to-nucleus signaling but not soma-to-nucleus signaling depends on voltage gated calcium channels. - False What is a major feature of the genomic signaling hypothesis? - It assumes that transcripts (mRNA) needed to sustain LTP are produced as a direct consequence of neural activity associated with the stimulus that induces LTP. __________ produced by the weak stimulus depends only on __________ and __________ of existing protein. - S-LTP; post-translation modifications; rearrangements Extracellular calcium is derived from the endoplasmic reticulum. - False What two major findings illustrate the important role local protein synthesis plays in L- LTP? - 1) Stimulation delivered to the Schaffer collateral fibers can produce a relatively long-lasting LTP in dendrites separated from the soma. 2) Emetine selectively delivered to the soma does not influence L-LTP. NMDA receptors and voltage gated calcium channels allow extracellular calcium to enter the neuron. - True The presence of translation machinery and mRNA in the local dendritic region supports __________. - local protein synthesis If the IP3 receptor is antagonized a short lasting LTP1 can still be produced - True

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What are plasticity products (PPs)? - The new mRNA and protein generated as a result of neural activity. Calcium induced calcium release depends on - calcium entering the spine via NMDA receptors binding to ryanodine receptors - the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum Not: - IP3 binding to IP3 receptors on dendritic endoplasmic reticulum - voltage dependent calcium released into the soma - none of the above Metabotropic glutamate receptors have ion channels - False Antidromic stimulation can convert a short-lasting LTP produced by a weak induction into a long-lasting LTP. - True What is calcium-induced calcium release (CICR)? - The ER that protrudes into the spine contains ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which bind to calcium entering through NMDA receptors. Thus extracellular Ca2+ is amplified and some of the post-translation modifications necessary to induce LTP are triggered. Which of the following can be found in the dendritic region? - Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi elements - Ribosomal assemblies and mRNAs Not: - Transcription factors, ribosomal assemblies, and mRNAs - Golgi elements Extracellular Ca2+ can enter a dendritic spine through __________ and can enter the soma through __________. - NMDA receptors; vdCCs The idea that synaptic activity leads to the transcription of new plasticity product needed to build long-lasting LTP is called the - genomic signaling hypotheses. Not: - translation hypothesis. - post-translation modification hypothesis. - local protein synthesis hypothesis. - None of the above Activating four sources can increase calcium levels. What are these sources? - 1) NMDAR; 2) vdCCs; 3) RyRs; 4) IP3Rs

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Which of the following statements about metabotropic glutamate receptors is false ? - Metabotropic glutamate receptors are couple to G proteins. Not: - Metabotropic glutamate receptors have channels that allow IP3 to enter the cell. - Metabotropic glutamate receptors are activated by calcium. - Both c and d - All of the above are false Which of the following statements is false ? - NMDA receptors are located on the endoplasmic reticulum. Not: - Calcium can be released from the endoplasmic reticulum. - IP3 receptors are located primarily on dendritic endoplasmic reticulum. - RYRs are located primarily on dendritic endoplasmic reticulum. Chapter 6 Local protein synthesis can provide protein in the right places on demand. - True The general advantage of local protein synthesis is - It allows proteins to be translated on demand and in the right place Local protein synthesis occurs before mRNA is delivered to the dendritic spine region. - False mRNA depend on ________ and _______for delivery to the dendritic spine region - microtubules and motor proteins The role of microtubules is - to provide a substrate for motor proteins to cargo mRNA to the dendritic spine region Inhibiting NMDA receptors will __________ the relocation of mRNA in the dendritic spine region. - Prevent Stimulating spines regulate local dendritic spine dynamics by - changing the distribution of ribosomes and mRNA - initiating actin polymerization Not: - initiating genomic signaling - preventing the delivery of mRNA to the spine - all of the above

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Microtubules are an essential component of mRNA delivery to the dendritic spine region - True Applying antisense to Arc prevents __________. - BDNF-induced potentiation Discuss the significance of the concept of protein-on-demand system in relation to the classic central dogma view. - Compared to the central dogma view, the protein on demand system provides a very efficient and rapid means translating protein in the right place and at the right time. This is because the mRNA is already present and its translation can be initiated by synaptic events so that the protein is translated locally when and where it is needed . mRNA in the dendritic spine region are stationary. - False The _________________ assumes dendrite is a functional unit that contains all the machinery required to supply synapses with the proteins needed to ensure enduring change (local protein synthesis). - Synaptic Clustered plasticity model The role of microtubules is - to provide a substrate for motor proteins to cargo mRNA to the dendritic spine region Polyribosomes ________ mRNA into protein - Translate Inhibiting actin polymerization will _______ the capture of mRNA by stimulated spines. - Prevent What is the relationship between transcription repressor proteins, the UPS system, and enduring LTP? - Late stage LTP depends on transcription events, which can be prevented by repressor proteins. The UPS system must be active in order to degrade transcription repressor proteins so LTP can endure The BDNF->TrkB->mTOR signaling pathway initiates local protein synthesis by - removing the inhibitory influence of the TOP protein 4E-BP - allowing new functional ribosomal complexes to form Not: - signaling the nucleus to transcribe genes that support LTP - releasing calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum

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Blocking protein synthesis has_________ effect on mRNA distribution produced by glutamate release onto a spine - No What is an immediate early gene? - A gene that is transcribed rapidly in response to strong synaptic activity because its transcription does not require the prior translation of some other protein. Ubiquitin tags proteins for degradation. - True What is rapamycin? - It is a drug that interferes with or inhibits the mTOR complex? One advantage of clustered synapses is that it is easier for the glutamate release to depolarize the neuron. - True Which of the following statements is false , according to the synaptic tag and capture hypothesis? - Overlap in time refers to many synapses being potentiated at the same time. - Plasticity products can only be captured by strongly stimulated synapse Not: - Strong stimulation tags a synapse and generates a genomic signaling cascade. - The function of the tag is to capture the product. According to the Frey and Morris synaptic tag and capture hypothesis only _______ synapsis can capture plasticity products. - Tagged Inhibiting actin polymerization has no effect on the capture of mRNA by spines. - False The induction of LTP is accompanied by local movement of polyribosomes into the spine . - True Interfering with BDNF activating __________ receptors prevents the translation of TOP mRNAs and development of long-lasting LTP. - TrkB BDNF is synthesized, stored, and released from the presynaptic neuron, but it can also be released from dendrites. - True What are the sources of BDNF?

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- BDNF released from presynaptic neurons binds to TrkB receptors, found in the PSD of post-synaptic neurons, causing the additional release of BNDF from the postsynaptic cell. This results in a positive feedback loop that helps sustain BDNF in the local extracellular region. What is ubiquitination? - It is the process of tagging proteins targeted for degradation with a polyubiquitin chain and then directing them to proteasomes. Drugs such as -lactone can __________ proteasomes from __________ protein. - prevent; degrading What is the basic signal cascade that produces local protein synthesis? - BDNF->TrKB-mTOR-TOP Which of the following are advantages of a “protein on demand system”? - proteins can be translated when and where they are needed - the relevant mRNA are already available in the dendritic spine region - new protein can be rapidly produced Not: - protein translation depends on genomic signaling - all of the above Proteasomes tag proteins for degradation. - False The idea that the capture of Arc by inactive CaMKII in unstimulated spines helps preserved potentiated spins is called the ___________. - Inverse tag hypothesis What is the function of a synaptic tag and what is its physical basis? - Spines compete for the protein needed to sustain them. A tagged spine is more successful in this competition than spines that have not been tagged. It is likely that that the physical basis of the tag is spine with an enlarged actin cytoskeleton that can interact with other proteins such as microtubules to capture protein . What are some advantages of LTP being induced in clusters of spines? - Fewer synaptic inputs would be necessary to depolarize the neuron to produce action potentials. Clusters of spines would be able to share in the locally synthesized proteins produced in a small area. Stimulated spines have______ polyribosomes than unstimulated spine. - More According to the synaptic tag and capture hypothesis,

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- synapses tagged by either a weak or strong stimulus can capture plasticity products. - over time a synapse can lose its tag Not: - only weak stimuli produce plasticity products. - plasticity products are trafficked from the spine to the nucleus - Both a and b Clustered spines can capture protein synthesized in their vicinity. - True The __________ methodology could be used to prevent the translation of a specific protein. - antisense What is the critical contribution of the mTOR complex in local protein synthesis? - It inhibits the interfering effect of the TOP protein 4E-BP. According to the synaptic Clustered plasticity model synapses capture protein that is _______ in the local region - translated locally What are primary steps to the initiation of local protein synthesis? - Ultimately local protein synthesis requires the upregulation of translation capacity in the dendritic spine region. One way this begins is with the BDNF-TrKB-mTOR way that removes the repressing effect of an initiation factor (4E-BP) so that translation factors (TOPs) can join small ribosomal subunits to create ribosomal complexes that can translated mRNA’s. Local protein synthesis requires the assembly of TOP proteins into functional ribosomal complexes. - True Drugs such as β-lactone can __________ proteasomes from __________ protein. - prevent; degrading The mTOR–TOP pathway is critical for the induction of LTP. - False What are TOP mRNAs? Explain how they enhance translation capacity? - Terminal oligopyrimidine tract RNAs that encode for proteins such as ribosomal proteins and elongation factors, which are part of the translation machinery. They are needed to synthesize other proteins that have specific synaptic functions. Inhibiting the UPS system inhibits LTP induction and prevents the late enduring phase of LTP.

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- False Inhibiting proteasome function has no effect on the long-lasting LTP. - False How does the UPS work? - Post-translation modifications bond a ubiquitin molecule to a protein (ubiquitination). A polyubiquitin chain marks the protein for delivery to the proteasome and subsequent protein degradation. The antisense methodology allows researchers to directly prevent transcription. - False The antisense methodology allows researchers to prevent the translation of specific mRNA into protein - True The application of BDNF can produce long lasting LTP even if the translation of Arc is prevented by antisense. - False The synaptic tag and capture hypothesis was proposed to explain how plasticity products (mRNA and protein) get targeted to the correct synapses. - True What are the sources of BDNF? - BDNF released from presynaptic neurons binds to TrkB receptors, found in the PSD of post-synaptic neurons, causing the additional release of BNDF from the postsynaptic cell. This results in a positive feedback loop that helps sustain BDNF in the local extracellular region. Only untagged synapses can capture plasticity products produced by a strong stimulus. - False Which of the following statements are true? - Proteasomes degrade ubiquitin tagged proteins - Inhibiting the UPS system prevents enduring LTP. Not: - Proteasomes tag proteins for degradation. - Ubiquitin molecules degrade proteins. - All of the above are true What is an antisense oligonucleotide? How is it used to study LTP? - It is a synthesized strand of nucleic acid that will bind to mRNA and prevent its translation. It was used to inhibit Arc to study its effects in LTP.

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The synaptic tag and capture hypothesis is based on three assumptions. What are they? - 1) A strong stimulus (SS) both tags a synapse and generates a genomic signaling cascade that leads to transcription and translation of proteins. 2) The function of the tag is to capture the protein. 3) A weak stimulus (WS) will tag a synapse but cannot generate a genomic signaling cascade. All tagged synapses participate in the generation of new plasticity products. - false Explain how a weak stimulation can produce L-LTP? - If a strong stimulus (SS) is delivered to synapses belonging to the same neuron, the synaptic tags produced by the weak stimulus will capture plasticity products (PPs) generated by the strong stimulus. How does the UPS contribute to protein synthesis and consolidation? - In order for local protein synthesis and transcription to occur repressor proteins have to be removed. One function of the UPS system is to degrade these proteins. Which of the following are benefits of strengthening synapses in clusters? - clustered spines can share in locally synthesized protein - stimulating clustered spines is more likely to depolarize the dendritic spine region than stimulating the same number of distributed spines Not: - clustered spines will not compete for synaptic proteins as well as distributed spines - glutamate is not required to activate spine clusters - a and c Chapter 7 Memories outlast the molecules that support the initial synaptic changes - True PKMζ mRNA is prevented from translation by a __________ protein. - translator repressor Explain how PKMζ self-perpetuates. - Once translated, PKMζ interacts with other proteins to remove the translator repressor and thereby facilitates translation of PKMζ mRNA in dendritic spines where it was initially translated. CaMKII does not have self-perpetuating properties. - False

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What is ZIP’s function? - ZIP functions as the missing inhibitory domain for PKMζ and thus can return it to an inactive, non-catalytic state in which it no longer can phosphorylate other proteins. PKMζ is perpetually active, and it self-perpetuates. - True Which of the following is true? - memories outlast the molecules that produce them - there is no one memory molecule - memory molecules have the property of self-perpetuation Not: - the molecules that produce a memory outlast the memory - none of the above According Crick, even though memory molecules decay they can be replaced in one at a time so that the existing structure can survive. - True John Lisman’s candidate maintenance kinase was _________ - CaMKII Describe the two general ways in which PKMζ maintains potentiation. - 1) It facilitates the release of non-synaptic pools of GluA2 AMPA receptors for insertion into the PSD, and 2) it interferes with the endocytic cycle that normally removes these receptors from the synapse. ____________ maintains memories by interfering with endocytic removal of GluA2 receptors. - PKMζ A crucial experiment by Sacktor’s group (Tsokas et al., 2016) revealed that antisense to PKMζ erased LTP in the wildtype and but not the PKCι/λ. Mutant mouse. - True How is PKMζ different from PKC? - It lacks an inhibitory domain, so once translated it is persistently active, and it does not require a second messenger to become active. If ZIP is applied to the slice 5hours after LTP is induced it will ________ LTP - Reverse Which of the following statements is false? - ZIP prevents late stage LTP but not initial induction.

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- ZIP prevents GluA2 AMPA receptors from being trafficked into the PSD. Not: - ZIP is to PKMζ as the catalytic unit is to PKC. - PKMζ and PKC are activated by second messengers. - Both a and b An _________ actin cytoskeleton is critical to memory maintenance - Enlarged Potentiated synapses endure because there is no pressure to return to their basal unpotentiated state . - False The kinase_______ can maintain LTP in the absence of PKMζ - PKCι/λ If the gene for PKMζ is deleted LTP will ______ be maintain. - Not Which of the following describe PKMζ? - it lacks a regulatory unit - it is translated locally - it is a protein Not: - it is a second messenger - it is a kinase PKMζ is translated _______. - Locally in the dendritic spine region At the synaptic level, how does ZIP reverse LTP maintenance? - By removing GluA2 receptors from the PSD. ______ is a polypeptide used to inhibit PKMζ function - ZIP Interfering with a memory maintenance molecule 24 hours after the memory is formed should have no effect on the ability to retrieve the memory. - False PKMζ is the only “memory maintenance” molecule. - False Genomic signaling processes can contribute to memory maintenance because - proteins including PKMζ ultimately degrade and will need to be replace Not:

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- endocytic processes will remove GluA2 - spine dynamics require new protein - PSD-95 molecule clustering depends directly on new genes. - none of the above. Kinases such as __________ require a second messenger (SM) to become active. PKMζ has no __________ so it does not require a second messenger to be catalytic and it is __________. - PKC; inhibitory domain; perpetually active Even though CaMKII has self-perpetuating properties this kinase does not appear to be a memory maintenance molecule. - True PKMζ lacks an inhibitory unit, so it is always inactive. - False What is the molecular turnover problem? - How can memories outlast the molecules that initially produce them? PKMζ serves three general functions. They are ______, _______, and _____ - release pools of GluA2s, inhibit GluA2 endocytosis, and clusters PSD-95 What was Crick’s solution to the molecular turn over problem? - Molecules in synapses interact in such a way that they can be replaced with new material, one at a time, without altering the overall state of the structure An enlarged spine supports LTP maintenance because - all the above Not: - it attracts synaptic proteins - spine size contributes to the selective distribute of synaptic proteins to stimulated spines - large spines attract microtubules that deliver mRNA to where it is needed What was Mary Kennedy’s view of “memory maintenance molecules? - She believed that there was no single molecule and the maintenance was a result of the mutual interactions of whole networks of proteins. ZIP is used to inactivate PKMζ. - True What two forces operate to return synapses to their basal unpotentiated state? - 1) Molecular degradation, and 2) constitutive, endocytic processes that operate to cycle AMPA receptors out of the synaptic region.

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A combination of many molecules is required to translate of PKMζ . - True PKMζ differs from most kinases because it has no______. - inhibitory unit ZIP application prior to induction will prevent late phase LTP but not initial LTP expression. - True If PKMζ is directly apply to a slice it will ________ synapses. - Potentiate PKMζ is a kinase, what is its general function? - To phosphorylate other proteins. PKMζ is the only “memory maintenance” molecule. - False The fact that ZIP is nonselective in eliminating LTP suggest that there may be more than one maintenance kinase. - True Name the molecules necessary for the initial translation of PKMζ. - The kinases—CaMKII, P13, MAPK, PKA, mTOR—as well as actin filaments. Inhibiting PKMζ prevents LTP maintenance because - it interferes with the release of GluA2 receptors into the synapse - it interferes with PSD-95 clustering in the postsynaptic density Not: - it interferes with NMDA receptor function - it interferes with the endocytic removal of AMPA from the PSD - None of the above Where is PKMζ mRNA found and translated? - In regions of dendritic spines; it is locally translated in the dendritic spine region. Does ZIP applied two- or five-hours following induction have any effects on LTP expression? - Yes, it will reverse late-phase LTP. Which of the following statements about PKMζ is true? - All of the above statements are true Not: - It can traffic AMPA receptors into the PSD and stay in a perpetually active state. - It can phosphorylate other proteins.

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- It has an inhibitory binding site. - It can be synthesized in one synapse and captured in another. PKMζ supports LTP maintenance because - it contributes to the release of pools of GluA2 receptors - it contributes to the trafficking of PSD-95 into the postsynaptic density - it interferes with the endocytic removal of AMPA receptors from the PSD Not: - it activates the UPS. - none of the above Chapter 8 Initial potentiation of synapses requires that cofilin must be phosphorylated and actin filaments be crosslinked. - False Integrin receptors are activated during stabilization, and they respond to molecules in the extracellular matrix. - True List in correct order at least five events involved in potentiating a synapse. - 1) Glutamate binds to AMPA and NMDA receptors; 2) calcium levels increase in the spine and lead to depolarization; 3) the Mg2+ - plug is removed from NMDA receptors; 4) influx of calcium is amplified by calcium released from the ER; 5) calmodulin is modified and it activates CaMKII; 6) CaMKII phosphorylates the TARP Stargazin; 7) Stargazin binds to PSD-95 proteins to trap GluA1 receptors in the PSD; 8) CaMKII phosphorylates GluA1 receptors, enabling them to influx calcium. The __________ pathway facilitates interactions between ribosomes and mRNAs and enables the local translation of other mRNAs. - mTOR Actin filaments are not necessary for the initial synthesis of PKMζ. - False Which of the following occur during the stabilizing of a potentiated synapse? - Phosphorylated GluA1 receptors are able to influx calcium. - The UPS is active and limits the extent of potentiation. Not: - The depolymerization function of cofilin is enhanced. - Calpain proteins are activated. - Both c and d Spine size is largely determined by the __________ - actin cytoskeleton

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What is an important role of actin in the spine? - Actin filaments enlarge spines and provide tracks for motor proteins. Learning spines are larger than memory spines. - False What is the role of calpains? - To degrade actin networks so that GluA1 receptors can enter the PSD. __________ has emerged as the major maintenance molecule. - PKMζ PKMζ’s main function is to reconfigure the trafficking of __________. - GLuA2 AMPA receptors Which of the following is not part of the consolidation phase? - PKMζ reconfigures the trafficking of GluA2 AMPA receptors Not: - Activation of G-protein-coupled mGluR receptors - BDNF positive feedback loop - Activation of the mTOR pathway - All of the above are part of the consolidation phase Stabilization processes require about 15 minutes to complete. - True What are the two main goals of the consolidation stage? - 1) To initiate the synthesis of new proteins; 2) to consolidate the net gain in AMPA receptors. Transcription and translation inhibitors do not influence the initial generation and stabilization of LTP. - True Four hours after LTP is induced, it can no longer be reversed by disrupting protein synthesis, transcription, the BDNF–TrkB pathway, or the translation of Arc into protein. - True What would be the effect of inhibiting the translation of Arc during the consolidation period? - It would return potentiated synapses to their unpotentiated stage. Why does inhibiting the UPS interfere with consolidation? - Because the UPS is needed to degrade transcription inhibitors in the nucleus.

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Why is it likely that memory maintenance molecules other than PKMζ exist? - Because genetic knockout mice lacking PKMζ display enduring LTP that can be prevented by ZIP. How do actin dependent spine morphology changes create a more stable synapse? - Regulation of calcium is altered because the broad head and short neck allow the spine to more rapidly diffuse or eliminate the increased calcium resulting from NMDA receptor activation. The initial potentiation of a synapse does not depend on either __________ or the __________. - transcription; translation of new proteins The induction stimulus sets in motion a set of processes that __________ and __________ existing proteins during the stabilization phase. - modify; rearrange A sustained increase in intracellular calcium is associated with the __________ pathway. - BDNF–TrkB Which of the following occur during the stabilizing of a potentiated synapse? - Phosphorylated GluA1 receptors are able to influx calcium. - The UPS is active and limits the extent of potentiation. Not: - The depolymerization function of cofilin is enhanced. - Calpain proteins are activated. - Both c and d __________ has emerged as the major maintenance molecule. - PKMζ Which of the following occur during the stabilizing of a potentiated synapse? - Phosphorylated GluA1 receptors are able to influx calcium. - The UPS is active and limits the extent of potentiation. Not: - The depolymerization function of cofilin is enhanced. - Calpain proteins are activated. - Both c and d Which of the following statements is false ? - Integrin molecules are activated during initial induction. Not: - No spine growth is observed during the generation stage. - Cofilin is phosphorylated during stabilization. - Myosin IIb motor proteins are activated during stabilization.

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- All of the above are true Chapter 9 Studies of LTP provide a foundation for uncovering memory molecules - True The existence of a memory trace is inferred when the __________ influences behavior. - training experience Describe three methods for influencing brain function? - 1) Experimentally damaging a particular region of the brain; 2) injecting drugs; 3) genetic engineering LTP is memory. - False Forgetting the location of a book or a coffee cup, only to remember it later, is an example of __________. - retrieval failure Which of the following statements about memory and the mind is true? - Memories result from behavioral experiences. - Behavior is the window to the mind. Not: - An LTP inducing stimulus produces a memory. - Memories are directly observable. - Both b and d

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In inhibitory avoidance conditioning, it is assumed that the strength of the memory trace is reflected in the __________. - response latency Amnesia for events experienced prior to the blow to the head that caused it is an example of __________. - retrograde amnesia What is the difference between amnesia due to a retrieval failure versus a storage failure. - Memories can be recovered if the amnesia is a retrieval failure but not if it is a storage failure. Studies of LTP provide a foundation for uncovering memory molecules - True On a probe test in the Morris water task the hidden platform is removed. - True In the object in context task animals memory is demonstrated if the animal explores the object in that was present in the training context. - False Why is test behavior considered the window to the memory trace? - Because without a measurable behavioral test response, there would be no evidence that the training phase produced a memory trace. When the response measure is at its maximum, researchers should be wary of the __________. - ceiling effect

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If amnesia is due to a retrieval failure it can be recovered. - True Explain the floor effect. - When a treatment is hypothesized to impair the memory processes that produce avoidance behavior, but the performance measure was too low to be further reduced by the drug. If the experimenter wants to study a drug that might interfere with memory then the floor effect would be a problem to avoid. - True Which of the following is true? - b ehavior is the window to memory - many component systems contribute to behaviors used to test memory retrieval - emotional processes can interfere with memory retrieval Not: - behavioral tests are perfect indicators of memory - None of the above Studies of LTP provide a foundation for uncovering memory molecules - True What is a time-limited retrograde amnesia? - A failure to remember an experience that happened just prior to the occurrence of the disrupting event, yet maintaining memories of older experiences.

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Which of the following are true about are inhibitory avoidance conditioning and fear conditioning? - both are measures of aversive learning - only one trial is needed to produce the memory Not: - crossover latency is the dependent variable in both tasks - freezing is the dependent variable in both tasks List three differences between a short-term memory trace and a long-term memory trace. - 1) Duration, 2) state, and 3) vulnerability to disruption/decay rate Long-term memories are more vulnerable to disruption than short-term memories. - false An advantage of the inhibitory avoidance task is that only one trial is needed to produce a behavioral change. - True Which of the following is true? - both DREADDs and optogenetic methods depend on viral vector delivery systems - viral vector systems delivery genetic material Not: - DREADDS but not optogenetic method depend on viral vector delivery systems - when activated by light channelrhodopsins the neuron hyperpolarizes - all of the above Activation of Channelrhodopsin by blue light will allow sodium to enter the channel. - True What is the function of channelrhodopsin and halorhodopsins? - When activated by blue light, channelrhodopsins (channel proteins) could be stimulated to open and close with millisecond precision and conduct positive ions with the result of depolarizing the neuron. Halorhodopsins, when stimulated with green light, conduct negatively charged chloride ions and thereby hyperpolarize the neuron. An advantage of the inhibitory avoidance task is that only one trial is needed to produce a behavioral change. - true Which of the following statements about inhibitory avoidance conditioning is true? - Longer latencies reflect a stronger memory trace.

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- The dependent variable is crossover latency. - As shock intensity increases, so does response latency. Not: - None of the above. If damage to a particular brain region impairs test performance, we can assume that regions contained memory neurons. - False When the response measure is at its maximum, researchers should be wary of the __________. - ceiling effect What is the consolidation period? - The time it takes to increase the resistance or a newly formed memory to disruption The time it takes to increase the resistance or a newly formed memory to disruption - True Amnesia is always due to a storage failure. - False Damage to a particular brain region, X, impaired performance on a memory test. This result is consistent with the hypothesis that X is a memory storage region.

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- True The DREADD methodology takes more time to activate of inhibit neurons than optogenetics. - True How is the visible-platform task used to evaluate results observed in the place-learning task? Explain why. - If a treatment has no effect on performance on the visible-platform task, then one would be more confident about concluding that the treatment influenced some aspect of memory. This is because the task makes no demand on spatial memory of the platform location. The existence of a memory trace is inferred when the __________ influences behavior. - training experience __________ allows scientists to control one type of cell without altering other types. - Optogenetics Which of the following statements about memory is false ? - short-term memory traces are in the inactive state and are easy to disrupt. - Time limited retrograde amnesia is more likely to affect long-term memory.

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Not: - Long-term memory traces are in the inactive state and are hard to disrupt. - Time limited retrograde amnesia is more likely to affect short-term memory. Explain why genetic engineering is believed to be more precise than applying drugs in manipulating the molecules involved in memory. - Drugs are said to be “dirty,” meaning they are not highly selective to the intended target, and it is hard to control for the spread of the drug to other regions. Moreover, by using biotechnology to directly influence the genome, it is possible to modify or delete the gene for a particular protein or to transfer new genes into the genome. Viral vectors are not part of the optogenetics methodology. - False Activation of Channelrhodopsin by green light will allow sodium to enter the channel. - False Which of the following is a feature of the place-learning task? - The platform remains in the same location in each trial. Not: - The platform is visible to the rodent. - The rodent is always released from the same location inside the pool.

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- Both a and b - All of the above Activation of Channelrhodopsin by blue light will allow sodium to enter the channel. - True Short-term memories decay more rapidly than long-term memories. - True Which of the following are true about are inhibitory avoidance conditioning and fear conditioning? - both are measures of aversive learning - only one trial is needed to produce the memory Not: - crossover latency is the dependent variable in both tasks - freezing is the dependent variable in both tasks List three differences between a short-term memory trace and a long-term memory trace. - 1) Duration, 2) state, and 3) vulnerability to disruption/decay rate Long-term memories are more vulnerable to disruption than short-term memories. - False Behavior is the product of many subcomponent systems. - True Memories are the product of organisms __________ with their __________. - interacting; environments

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Consolidation refers to the process of converting strong memories in to weak ones. - False Consolidation refers to the process of increasing the memory trace’s resistance to disruption. - True _______ operate on a much longer time frame than optogenetics. - DREADDS If amnesia is due to a storage failure it can be recovered. - False In fear conditioning, the duration of the __________ is an indicator of the __________ of the memory. - freezing response; strength A ceiling effect can occur because if the response measure is already at the maximum. - True Fear conditioning provides the opportunity measure both context learning and auditory- cue learning. - True Place learning in the Morris water task uses a visible platform. - False In fear conditioning, the duration of the __________ is an indicator of the __________ of the memory.

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- freezing response; strength In the object recognition test memory is demonstrated if the animal spends more time exploring the new object. - True The advantage of stereotaxic surgery it that the experimenter can precisely place the electrode or cannular in desired location. - True What are the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned stimulus, and the conditioned response in fear conditioning? - Electrical shock, auditory stimulus, freezing Viral vectors are used to delivery drugs to specific regions in the brain. - False Viral vectors are used to deliver mRNA constructs to specific regions in the brain. - True The ECS methodology did not advance our understanding of memory because it was already known that - newly acquired memories are vulnerable to disruption Which of the following statements about memories is true? - Old memories are more resistant to disruption than new memories. Not: - Newly established memories are more resistant to disruption than older memories.

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- Old memories have a shorter decay time than new memories. - Both a and c - All of the above are true In fear conditioning, shocked rats display more __________ than rats that were not shocked. - Freezing When memories are consolidated - they become resistant to disruption - they decay at a slower rate Not: - they can no longer be retrieved - they decay at a faster rate - All of the above What is the significance of the learning–performance distinction? - It recognizes the challenge the researcher has in being sure that the treatment exerted its effect by its influence on the memory component rather than some other component process that could also influence performance. When investigating a drug or some other manipulation that is hypothesized to strengthen a memory trace, researchers should use lower intensity shock to avoid the __________. - ceiling effect The __________ is often used as a control task to evaluate alternative interpretations of the effect of brain manipulation on performance in the place-learning task. - visible-platform task Which of the following statements about inhibitory avoidance conditioning is true?

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- Longer latencies reflect a stronger memory trace. - The dependent variable is crossover latency - As shock intensity increases, so does response latency. Not: - None of the above Which of the following statements about memory and the brain is true? - Memories result from behavioral experiences. - Studies of synaptic plasticity provide hypotheses about what molecules are involved in memory Not: - Synaptic changes recorded as LTP are memories - Memories are directly observable. - None of the above In fear conditioning, the duration of the __________ is an indicator of the __________ of the memory. - freezing response; strength Which of the following statements about opsins is true? - Channelrhodopsin can excite neurons by depolarizing them. - Halorhodopsin can inhibit neurons by hyperpolarizing them. Not: - Channelrhodopsin can inhibit neurons by hyperpolarizing them. - Halorhodopsin can excite neurons by depolarizing them. Which of the following statements about inhibitory avoidance conditioning is true? - Longer latencies reflect a stronger memory trace. - The dependent variable is crossover latency - As shock intensity increases, so does response latency. Not: - None of the above

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Chapter 10 The formation of a memory trace begins when a behavioral experience activates a neuronal ensemble that represents the experience. - True The formation of a memory trace begins when a __________ activates a set of __________ neurons. - behavioral experience; weakly connected Morris used genetically engineered mice in the first study that investigated the role of NMDA receptors in memory formation. - False Every functional NMDA receptor has __________ subunits. - GluN1 Deleting the GluA1 subunit ______ working memory but has _____ effect of reference memory - prevents no AMPA receptors are needed only for memory acquisition, but NMDA receptors are required for both acquisition and retrieval. - False To influence NMDA function, Morris - All of the above Not:

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- used a pharmacological approach. - infused APV into the brain. - implanted a cannula into a cerebral ventricle. - tested rats in the space-learning swim task. An important step in the generation of a memory is the release of glutamate onto dendritic spines. - True Morris was the first to find a possible role for NMDA receptors in memory formation. What was his essentially methodology? - He implanted a cannular into a ventricle to delivery an NMDA receptor antagonist. He assessed the effect by studying its effect on the hidden platform version of the water task. GluN1 subunits are necessary to form functional NMDA receptors. - True Tonegawa deleted the __________ in __________ in the CA1 field of the mouse hippocampus. - GluN1 subunit; pyramidal cells What are ampakines? - Ampakines bind to a site on AMPA receptors and increase the duration of the channel opening when glutamate also binds to the receptor. Describe the composition of the NMDA receptor. - Each receptor has four subunits, and they are some combination of the two classes GluN1 and GluN2.

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Ampakines are neither agonists nor antagonists. - True The CA1KO mouse was able to display LTP in the CA1 regions but not in the dentate gyrus. - False Why would infant mice display stronger LTP than older mice? - Because the ratio of GluN1-GluN2B to GluN1-GluN2A receptor complexes is higher in the infant mice, and GluN1-GluN2B receptor pass more calcium. NMDA receptors are required for both the acquisition and the retrieval of memories - False Explain why it is possible to induce LTP in the dentate gyrus of the CA1KO mouse, but not in the CA1 region of the brain. How does this affect the mouse’s performance in the place-learning task? - The genetically engineered deletion targeted the NMDA receptors in CA1 pyramidal cells but not the dentate gyrus. The mouse’s memory was impaired, and it could not learn to swim to the platform. Working memory cannot be studied in animals because they cannot communicate what problems they are trying to solve. - false Is it reasonable to expect that behavioral experiences that produce memories would engage the LIMK signaling pathway? Why? - Yes, because actin polymerization is necessary for synaptic changes in LTP.

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When __________ subunits dominate, it is easier to induce LTP than when __________ subunits dominate. - GluN2B; GluN2A GluN1 subunits are not required to form functional NMDA receptors. - False Roberto Malinow’s laboratory (Rumpel et al., 2006) used two strategies to prove that fear conditioning drives AMPA receptors into amygdala neuron synapses. What were they? - 1) In one case, he created identifiable GluA1 receptors and infected neurons in the amygdala with these receptors to show that fear conditioning would drive them into synapses. 2) He created dummy receptors to compete with endogenous receptors and showed that their presence impaired fear conditioning The Doogie mouse was engineered to overexpress GluN2B receptors. - True If the GluA1 is deleted reference memory in the radial maze will be _______? - Normal. Richard Morris was the first researcher to directly investigate the role of __________ in memory formation. - NMDA receptors NMDA receptors are required for both the acquisition and the retrieval of memories - False When __________ subunits dominate, it is easier to induce LTP than when __________ subunits dominate.

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- GluN2B; GluN2A GluN1–GluN2A receptor complexes influx more calcium than GluN1–GluN2B receptor complexes. - False Is it reasonable to expect that behavioral experiences that produce memories would engage the LIMK signaling pathway? Why? - Yes, because actin polymerization is necessary for synaptic changes in LTP. GluN1–GluN2A receptor complexes influx more calcium than GluN1–GluN2B receptor complexes. - False Which of the following statements about NMDA receptors is true? - NMDA receptor channels allow calcium to enter the cell. Not: - NMDA receptors are activated by calcium. - NMDA receptors composed of the NR1/NR2A subunits remain open longer than those composed of NR1/NR2B subunits. - Early in development, the ratio of NR1/NR2B to NR1/NR2A containing NMDA receptors favors the NR1/NR2A complex. - None of the above are true Ampakines cross the __________ and bind to a site on the __________ receptor. - blood–brain barrier; AMPA Morris used a pharmacological treatment to study the role of NMDA receptors in memory formation. - True

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Ampakines are an example of a receptor modulator. - True GluA1 KO mice - display long-lasting LTP. - have impaired working memory. Not: - display short-lasting LTP. - have impaired reference memory. - both b and c GluN1-GluN2B receptors to GluN1-GluN2A ratio increases during development - False In the radial arm maze methodology, if a rat revisits an arm, it is making an __________ error. - working memory How did Tonegawa’s laboratory discover a role for the GluN1 receptor? - They deleted the gene for this receptor in the CA1 region in mice and found that it impaired performance in the hidden platform task. he Doogie mouse is genetically engineered to overexpress __________ subunits. - GluN2B Not: - GluN2A - GluN2C - GluN1 - Both b and d

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Which strategies did Malinow’s laboratory use to the role of AMPA receptors in memory formation? - he used a virus to delivery dummy AMPA receptors to the amygdala - he used a virus to deliver artificial AMPA receptors to the amygdala - he used a fear conditioning procedure Not: - he used the AMPA receptor inhibitor CNQX - he prevented calcium from entering NMDA receptors Remembering the plot of a book you read a few months ago is an example of working memory. - False Fear conditioning increased the presence of phosphorylated CaMKII in dendritic spines. This result means that the conditioning experience __________ this __________. - activated; kinase The CA1KO mouse was able to display LTP in the dentate gyrus region but not in the CA1. - True Malinow’s experiments showed that memory for the fear experience, as measured by the rat’s __________, depends on trafficking AMPA receptors with __________ into the membrane. - freezing response; functional GluA1 subunits A behavioral experience that produces a memory is likely to result in more phosphorylated cofilin and more autophosphorylated CaMKII. - True

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A behavioral experience that produces a memory is likely to result in more phosphorylated cofilin and more autophosphorylated CaMKII. - true As the nervous system develops, __________ subunits tend to be replaced by __________ subunits. - GluN2B; GluN2A NMDA receptors are required for both the acquisition and the retrieval of memories - False The Doogie mouse was engineered to overexpress GluN2A receptors. - False When glutamate and ampakines both bind to the AMPA receptor, the channel stays open __________. - longer The Doogie mouse was engineered to overexpress GluN2B receptors. - True In Malinow’s AMPA receptor trafficking experiment, what was the difference between the rats in the paired condition and the rats in the unpaired condition? - After the training, rats in the paired condition had more GluA1 receptors in the plasma membrane than rats in the unpaired condition. Provide an example of working memory. - Memorizing a list of groceries and discarding it from your memory once you are done shopping. Which of the following statements about the CA1KO mouse is true? - GluN1 subunits are absent in the CA1 region. - LTP can be induced in the dentate gyrus. Not: - GluN1 subunits are absent in the dentate gyrus. - LTP cannot be induced in CA1 in slices. - both b and d Describe how the radial arm maze can be used to study both working and reference memory.

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- 1) Working memory requires that the animal remember which arm was already visited; and 2) reference memory requires that the animal discriminate between the arms always baited and the arms never baited. Which of the following statements about true? - AMPA receptors are important in both the induction and expression of LTP. - NMDA receptors are important in the induction, but not the expression, of LTP. Not: - NMDA receptors are important in both the induction and expression of LTP. - AMPA receptors are important in the induction, but not the expression, of LTP. - Both a and d The __________ of __________ may be critical for the rapid formation of a memory, but other processes can compensate for this contribution when multiple training trials occur. - autophosphorylation; CaMKII Which of the following support the hypothesis that CaMKII is important for memory formation? - genetically deleting CaMKII prevents acquisition - preventing autophosphorylation of CaMKII interferes with one trial learning. Not: - inhibiting NMDA receptors prevent acquisition - fear condition was used to study memory - none of the above In the radial arm maze methodology, if a rat revisits an arm that was never baited, it is making an __________ error. - reference memory Which of the following is true? - reference memory and working memory both require glutamate receptor activation Not: - reference memory but not working memory requires rapid insertion of GluA1 AMPA receptors into the PSD - working memory but not reference memory requires rapid insertion of GluA2 AMPA receptors into the PSD. - working memory but not reference memory requires NMDA receptors - none of the above Chapter 11 Short-term memories are more vulnerable to disruption than long-term memories. - True When trying to assess the effect of a gene or drug on short-term memory, the retention interval is __________. - four hours or less What is the key independent variable manipulated to determine if a molecule is selectively involved in LTM but not STM? - Retention interval

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The decay rate for long-term memories is more rapid than the decay rate for short-term memories - False What is the retention interval? - The time between the training experience that establishes the memory and the test used to retrieve the memory. If _____ is inhibited BDNF will not be transcribed - C/EBPβ Which of the following statements about memory is false? - Blocking CREB translation impairs STM. - Neurons that overexpress CREB do not compete successfully for selection in the neuronal ensemble Not: - CREB deletion impairs LTM. - CREB overexpression can improve LTM under certain conditions. A memory may be considered consolidated when it is no longer vulnerable to transcription and translation inhibitors. - True Rapamycin ______ the function of the mTORC1 complex. - Inhibits The idea that a behavioral experience can generate the transcription of new genetic material is called the __________. - genomic signaling hypothesis To determine the role of a molecule in memory consolidation the experiment should use at least two retention intervals. - true If mTOR is inhibited by rapamycin 5 minutes after avoidance conditioning - memory retention would not be impaired at any retention interval - memory retention would not be impaired if the retention interval is 1 hour or less. Not: - memory retention would be impaired at all retention intervals longer than 1 hour - memory retention would be impaired at all retention intervals longer than 1 day - None of the above What is the importance of the two distinct peak levels of BDNF expression? - One peak of BDNF occurs 1 hour after training and is critical for fear response memory on 1-day and 7-day retention intervals. The second occurs 12 hours later and supports the memory on the 7-day retention test. Why what is the role of C/EBPβ in the autoregulatory loop?

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- It targets BNDF for transcription. C/EBPβ is critical to the first wave of protein synthesis - False What can be said about the contribution of molecule X to memory? - These results indicate that molecule X contributes to the consolidation of the long-term memory trace but is not required for short-term memory. The BDNF-TrkB pathway is critical to two waves of protein synthesis. - true According to the text - memory consolidation can depend on multiple waves of transcription and translation Not: - memory consolidation depends only on the translation of new proteins - memory consolidation does not require post-translation processes - memory consolidation is over in about 1 hour - None of the above Why is the rictor KO mouse useful? - It allows researchers to study the contribution of mTORC2 to consolidation. If the first wave of BDNF protein synthesis is blocked retention at both the 1- and 7-day interval will be impaired. - True How might sleep contribute to consolidation. - During sleep intrinsic neural processes might reactive the additional rounds of local proteins synthesis that use the mRNA and proteins provided by the autoregulatory loop. The decay rate for long-term memories is more rapid than the decay rate for short-term memories - False If a molecule is critical for long-term memory, it should also be critical for short-term memory. - False C/EBPβ is targeted by CaMKII for transcription - False Inhibiting protein synthesis should ______ effect short-term memory. - Not

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C/EBPβ is targeted by CREB for transcription - True The de novo protein synthesis hypothesis states that - long-term memory depends on behavior initiating the synthesis of new protein. Not: - short-term, but not long-term, memory depends on behavior initiating the synthesis of new protein. - long-term memory depends on post-translation modifications. - Both a and b - All of the above Inhibiting the mTORC1 complex - interferes with local protein synthesis - could interfere with consolidation Not: - interferes with actin polymerization - would have no effect on memory retention How did John Guzowski examine the importance of CREB for memory retention? - He used an antisense to CREB and tested rats at both a short and long retention interval. The mTORC1 complex regulates __________. - local protein synthesis The mTORC2 complex regulates processes that contribute to the regulation of __________. - actin C/EBPβ is targeted by CREB for transcription - true C/EBPβ is critical to the second wave of protein synthesis - True What are the differences between mTORC1 and mTORC2? - mTORC1 is sensitive to rapamycin and regulates protein synthesis; mTORC2 is insensitive to rapamycin and regulates actin polymerization. What is the evidence that proteins translated in response to the mTORC1 signaling are important for the consolidation of long-term memory but not for producing a short-term memory? - Inhibitory avoidance procedure revealed that rapamycin selectively impaired performance when the retention interval was 24 hours but not when it was only 3 hours. The TOP protein ______ normally interferes with the initiation of local protein synthesis - 4E-BP What is the evidence that the UPS is involved in memory consolidation? - 1) Behavioral experiences that induce lasting memories increase ubiquitination and proteasome activity; and 2) drugs that block proteasome activity also prevent long-term memory formation.

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What were the results and implications from systematically injecting the protein- synthesis inhibitor anisomycin prior to fear conditioning? - The drug had no effect at the 1-hour retention interval but impaired retention at the longer 6- and 24-hour tests. These results are consistent with the idea that a short-term memory trace can be formed that does not depend on protein synthesis, whereas a long-term memory trace requires new proteins. _____ it is critical to both the first and second waves of protein synthesis. - BDNF Which of the following statements is false? - Blocking CREB translation impairs STM. Not: - CREB deletion impairs LTM - C/EBPβ is a transcription factor - antisense against C/EBPβ - 5 hours but not 24 hours following to avoidance training interferes with long term retention - none of the above The TrkB receptor is activated by the first messenger glutamate. - False The decay rate for long-term memories is more rapid than the decay rate for short-term memories - False C/EBPβ is a transcription factor. - True Which of the following statements is true? - BDNF can initiate phosphorylation of CREB - A second wave of protein synthesis is necessary for a memory to last for 7 or more days - CREB targets C/EBPβ for transcription Not: - C/EBPβ targets CREB for transcription - C/EBPβ mRNA becomes detectable as soon as CREB is phosphorylated. Blocking protein synthesis interferes with the formation of short-term memories. - false That rapamycin administers just before training interfered with retention 2 and 7 days later indicates that the mTOR pathway is critically for at least two ways of protein synthesis. - True Disrupting either the mTORC1 or the mTORC2 complex will impair the development of long-term memory but have no influence on the formation of short-term memory. - True The mTORC2 complex regulates protein synthesis but the mTORC1 complex regulates actin polymerization. - False

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The mTORC2 complex regulates actin polymerization but the mTORC1 complex regulates protein synthesis - True The TOP protein 4E-BP normally interferes with the initiation of local protein synthesis - True Why would one vary the interval separating training and the administration of a protein synthesis inhibitor such as anisomycin? - This would be done to be sure that the effect was selective for proteins synthesized in response to the memory-inducing behavioral experience and not just a nonselective effect of blocking protein synthesis. Anisomycin administered just prior to training prevents retention at 2, 7, and 9-day intervals but If administered just a few minutes following training only impairs retention at the 7 and 9- day intervals. What does this collection of findings imply? - It implies that there is an initial wave of protein synthesis initiated almost immediately by the training and a second wave that is initiate some time later. It also indicates that the second wave depends on proteins synthesize by the first wave. Why what is the role of C/EBPβ in the autoregulatory loop? - It targets BNDF for transcription. Alberini’s laboratory found that inhibiting protein synthesis (with anisomycin) a few minutes after training did not interfere with retention 2 days after training but did prevent retention 7 and 9 days later 9. - False Rapamycin administer prior to training interfered with retention 1hour later. - False What is the role of BDNF in the autoregulatory loop? - it is critical to both the first and second waves of protein synthesis. The second wave of protein synthesis depends on genomic signaling initiated by the BDNF-TrkB pathway. - True What is the importance of the two distinct peak levels of BDNF expression? - One peak of BDNF occurs 1 hour after training and is critical for fear response memory on 1-day and 7-day retention intervals. The second occurs 12 hours later and supports the memory on the 7-day retention test. C/EBPβ’s primary role in the autoregulatory loop is to target _____ for transcription

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- BDNF C/EBPβ is targeted by CaMKII for transcription - False Describe two sources of evidence that BDNF is important for memory consolidation. - 1) BDNF protein levels are increased in the hippocampus by contextual fear conditioning and place learning and in the BLA by fear conditioning. 2) Interfering with BDNF function by either the BDNF scavenger TrkB–IgG or the TrkB receptor antagonist K252a impaired the development of long-term memory. How might sleep contribute to consolidation. - During sleep intrinsic neural processes might reactive the additional rounds of local proteins synthesis that use the mRNA and proteins provided by the autoregulatory loop. Rapamycin administer prior to training interfered with retention 2 and 7 days later. - true Inhibiting protein synthesis just prior to avoidance training - impairs retention at all retentions intervals longer than hour - has no effect on memory retention 1 hour following training Not: - impairs memory retention 1 hour following training - impairs memory retention at all retention intervals - All the above The initial round of protein synthesis - depends of post-translation processes - depends on BDNF->TrkB signaling - depends on both post-translation processes and BDNF signaling Not: - depends on genomic signaling - does not depend on post-translation processes

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