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MICROBIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
1.
True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False.
Viruses are not living and as such are
not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
2.
What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell.
3.
At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules
- A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct.
4.
Animalia, Plantae, Fungi and Protista are all classification under what type of organism?
A. Bacteria
B. Eukarya
C. Archaea
D. Virus B. Only Eukarya contains animals, plants, fungi and protists.
5.
All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic.
False
—they are heterotrophic
6.
Microorganisms classified as _________ obtain most of their energy by converting light energy into chemical energy. Plantae
7.
Define catabolism. Catabolism is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources.
8.
Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes.
9.
What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to im turn, generate ATP.
10.
True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. True. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—
dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
11.
Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you
would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope. Select all that apply. A. Objective B. Condenser
C. Iris diaphragm
D. Eye piece
C.
The iris controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the objective lens. Thus, it can be adjusted (opened or closed) to alter the amount of light.
12.
What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math. 60 x 10 = 600x magnification
13.
Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.
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Scanning Electron Microscope Because it is only showing the outside of the cell and not showing any subcellular organelles Shows shell image no organelles are visible. Only TEM visualizes Subcellular organelles.
14.
True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media
. False.
LB agar is the most
basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes without restriction.
15.
What is agar used for in microbiology? Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
16.
True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure. False.
A new or sterilized loop is absolutely required for each phase. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions, regardless of whether or not the culture is pure.
17.
The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? Well Either deviation is acceptable in practice as long as the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual
colonies. Otherwise, the experiment need to be repeated.
18.
True or False. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow slower than normal non-pathogenic bacterial strains. False.
Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, which is why researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.
19.
20.
True or False. The causative agent of conjunctivitis can be either bacterial or viral. True. There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of the conjunctiva and ‘pink eye.’
21.
True or False. Although there is no cure for tetanus, it can be prevented through vaccination. True.
There is no cure for tetanus. However, tetanus is entirely preventable through vaccination.
22.
Describe the symptoms and treatment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens (also known as Gas gangrene) presents with muscle necrosis, swelling of infected areas, fever and intense gas production. Treatment entails removal of all infected tissue, often resulting in amputation of the affected areas, in conjunction with heavy antibiotic therapies.
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23.
Why does the alpha toxin (perfringolysin) produced during an infection of gas gangrene cause cell death? The toxin perforates the membrane. It forms pores in the plasma membrane of host cells resulting in uncontrolled ion fluxes and eventually cell lysis and death.
24.
The ________ surrounds the capsid of some viruses. Envelope.
25.
True or False. You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a plant cell. False. The
overwhelming majority of animal viruses are enveloped whereas the majority of plant or bacteria-infecting viruses are not.
26.
Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest: Orthomyxovirus Poliovirus Variolavirus
Variolavirus (~200nm) > Orthomyxovirus (100-150nm) > Poliovirus (~30nm)
27.
While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses? No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977. You would not need to worry about coming into contact with the virus.
28.
What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating (infecting) motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem or motor cortex? Polio, also known as poliomyelitis.
29.
Described the main underlining differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccine. The Salk vaccine contained an inactivated form of the virus and was injected while the Sabin vaccine contained a live attenuated (weakened) form of the virus and was administered orally.
30.
Which subtype of Influenza is the most virulent? Influenza A
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A virus is classified as a microbe.
True. Although viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms, they can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
2. True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule.
False. The smallest biological unit of life is the cell.
3. What are the 4 main types of macromolecules found in cells?
Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides
Answer Key
1. Animalia, Plantae, Fungi and Protista are all classification under what type of organism?
A. Bacteria
B. Eukarya
C. Archaea
D. Virus
B. Only Eukarya contains animals, plants, fungi and protists.
2. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic.
False—they are heterotropic.
3. Microorganisms classified as _________ obtain most of their energy by converting light energy into chemical energy.
Plantae
Exam Page 3
Answer Key
1. Define anabolism.
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Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small molecular units into much larger complexes.
2. In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active?
Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein.
Exam Page 4
Answer Key
1. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where?
The process of converting light energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane.
2. True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light.
False. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
Exam Page 5
Answer Key
1. Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope.
Select all that apply.
A. Objective
B. Condenser
C. Iris diaphragm
D. Eye piece
C. The iris controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the objective lens. Thus, it can be adjusted (opened or closed) to alter the amount of light.
2. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math.
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60 x 10 = 600x magnification
Exam Page 6
Answer Key
1. Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.
The image was captured using a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM). The above image shows the trademark ‘shell’ image (no subcellular organelles are visible) reminiscent of SEM. Only TEM is capable of visualizing subcellular substrucutres.
Answer Key
1. True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media.
False. LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes without restriction.
2. What is agar used for in microbiology?
Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
Exam Page 8
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Answer Key
1. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop is not required for each phase as long as the bacterial culture is pure.
False. A new or sterilized loop is absolutely required for each phase. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions, regardless of whether or not the culture is pure.
2. The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens?
Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be repeated.
3. True or False. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow slower than normal non-pathogenic bacterial strains.
False. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C,
which is why researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.
Exam Page 9
Answer Key
1. Match the following symptoms with their respective diseases:
1. Folliculitis D
A. Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose
2. Scalded-skin syndrome
E
B. Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue
3. Impetigo
A
C. Infection occurs at time of birth
4. Conjunctivitis
D. Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair
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B
5. Ophthalmia Neonatorum
C
E. Ruptured pustules; treated with Penicillin
2. True or False. The causative agent of conjunctivitis can be either bacterial or viral.
True. There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of the conjunctiva and ‘pink eye.’ Exam Page 10
Answer Key
1. True or False. Although there is no cure for tetanus, it can be prevented through vaccination.
True. There is no cure for tetanus. However, tetanus is entirely preventable through vaccination.
2. Describe the symptoms and treatment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens.
Clostridium perfringens (also known as Gas gangrene) presents with muscle necrosis, swelling of infected areas, fever and intense gas production. Treatment entails removal of all infected tissue, often resulting in amputation of the affected areas, in conjunction with heavy antibiotic therapies.
3. Why does the alpha toxin (perfringolysin) produced during an infection of gas gangrene cause cell
death?
The toxin perforates the membrane. It forms pores in the plasma membrane of host cells resulting in uncontrolled ion fluxes and eventually cell lysis and death.
Exam Page 11
Answer Key
1. The ________ surrounds the capsid of some viruses.
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Envelope.
2. True or False. You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a plant cell.
False. The overwhelming majority of animal viruses are enveloped whereas the majority of plant or bacteria-infecting viruses are not.
3. Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest:
Orthomyxovirus
Poliovirus
Variolavirus
Variolavirus (~200nm) > Orthomyxovirus (100-150nm) > Poliovirus (~30nm)
Exam Page 12
Answer Key
1. What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of Oct. 26, 1977) to be officially declared eradicated?
Smallpox (Variola virus). Although once a major cause of death in the world, a smallpox vaccine was developed in 1796 by Edward Jenner. Global vaccination efforts have prevented smallpox from appearing in humans since October 26, 1977, making smallpox the first infectious disease ever to be eradicated.
2. What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons?
Polio, also known as poliomyelitis.
3. By whom and where was the first Polio vaccine developed?
Jonas Salk and his research team developed the polio vaccine at the University of Pittsburgh in 1955.
4. Which subtype of Influenza is the most virulent?
Influenza A.
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BIOD 171
Quizzes
Final Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown B…
!
*
Some ques
!
ons not yet graded
Final Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown Browser +
Webcam
Due
No due date
Points
120
Ques
!
ons
30
Time Limit
90 Minutes
Requires Respondus LockDown Browser
Instruc
!
ons
A
"
empt History
A
"
empt
Time
Score
LATEST
54 out of 120 *
Score for this quiz: 54
out of 120 *
Submi
"
ed Feb 3 at 6:40pm
This a
"
empt took 87 minutes.
The Final Exam is composed of ques
!
ons based upon material presented in the en
!
re course. It will
assess your level of mastery of the course content and goals. The format of the exam is similar to past
module exams.
You are about to begin a !
med exam. Please make sure you are in a suitable, quiet place, free from
distrac
!
on.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 1
Match each of the following organelles with the correct descrip
!
on.
Nucleus
Contains genomic conten
Correct!
Correct!
Endoplasmic re
!
culum
Series of membrane-encl
Correct!
Correct!
Lysosomes
Contain hydroly
!
c enzym
Correct!
Correct!
Chloroplasts
Site of photosynthesis
Correct!
Correct!
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 2
Your Answer:
Briefly explain how a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) forms an
image of a microscopic specimen.
An image is formed from the electrons as they reflect o
ff
and not through
the surface of the microscopic specimen. They can be also coated with
gold to enhance electrons reflec
!
ons. This can be best seen in 3D-
rendering. Answer: An image is formed from the interac
!
ons of electrons as
they reflect o
ff
(not through) the surface of the specimen.
Samples are coated in either gold or palladium to enhance
electron reflec
!
ons. The reflec
!
on is seen in 3-D rendering.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 3
Match each of the following diseases to the correct bacterial family.
Legionnaires
Legionella
Correct!
Correct!
Wound botulism
Clostridium botulism
Correct!
Correct!
Impe
!
go
Staph aureus
Correct!
Correct!
Sep
!
cemic plague
Yersina pes
!
s
Correct!
Correct!
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 4
Your Answer:
Describe the primary dis
!
nc
!
on between prokaryo
!
c and eukaryo
!
c
cells.
The main di
ff
ernce is that prokaryo
!
c cells do not contain a nucleus.
Their gene
!
c material is located free-floa
!
ng in the cytoplasm. On the
other hand eukaryo
!
c cells have defined, membrane-bound nucleus that
contains gene
!
c materials. Answer: Eukaryo
!
c cells have a defined, membrane-bound
nucleus that contains the gene
!
c material. Prokaryo
!
c cells do
not contain a nucleus, and their gene
!
c material is found free-
floa
!
ng in the cytoplasm.
2 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 5
Match each of the following terms with the correct descrip
!
on.
Organotroph
Obtain their source of ca
You Answered
You Answered
Remove electrons
from organic
molecules
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
Phototroph
U
!
lize photons to genera
Correct!
Correct!
Heterotroph
Obtain their source of ca
Correct!
Correct!
Lithotroph
Remove electrons from o
You Answered
You Answered
Remove electrons
from inorganic
molecules
Correct Answer
Correct Answer
0 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 6
A researcher is asked to determine which human pathogen is present in a
sample. Clinical findings presented in the pa
!
ent consist of fever, chills,
lethargy, and s
!ff
neck. By limi
!
ng the nutrients, and varying the degree
of pH, what type of media would be expected to inhibit foreign microbes
and ensure the isolated growth of Neisseria meningi
!
des? Selec
!
ve Media Correct Answer
Correct Answer
Selec
!
ve and Di
ff
eren
!
al Media Enriched Media Di
ff
eren
!
al Media You Answered
You Answered
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 7
Your Answer:
Place the following viral life cycle steps in order
beginning with viral
a
"
achment (3points) and provide a descrip
!
on of “ENTRY”
(1 point).
Uncoa
!
ng:
Release:
Replica
!
on:
A
"
achment:
Entry:
New infec
!
on:
1- A
"
achment
2- Entry: virus fuses with host membrane then makes entry
3- Uncoa
!
ng
4- Replica
!
on
5- Release
6- New infec
!
on
Answer:
1-A
"
achment
2-Entry: the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the
cell
3- Uncoa
!
ng
4-Replica
!
on
5-Release
6-New infec
!
on
0 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 8
The Gram stain di
ff
eren
!
ates between bacteria based on the
composi
!
on of their _____________. Cell Wall Correct Answer
Correct Answer
Mitochondria Cell Membrane You Answered
You Answered
Nucleus 4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 9
Le
$
untreated, three percent of cases of Streptococcal pharyngi
!
s will
progress to which of the following?
Rheuma
!
c fever Correct!
Correct!
Rheuma
!
c fever occurs in approximately three percent of untreated cases of Streptococcal pharyngi
!
s, presen
!
ng approximately 2 to 3 weeks post-infec
!
on.
Laryngi
!
s Klebsiella pneumonia Conjunc
!
vi
!
s Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 10
Your Answer:
List the 4 nitrogenous bases found in RNA and describe how they pair
with one another.
Adenine (A)
Uracil (U) Cytosine (C) Guanine (G) A- pairs with U, and G pairs with C. Answer: The four nitrogenous bases found in RNA are Adenine
(A), Uracil (U), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). A pairs with U, and
G pairs with C.
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 11
Your Answer:
True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.
When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of alpha
hemolysis present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete
(par
!
al) lysis of red blood cells.
True - Alpha hemolysis presents as a greenish-brown color due to its par
!
al
lysis of red blood cells. Answer: True; Alpha hemolysis presents as a greenish-brown
color due to par
!
al lysis of red blood cells.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 12
Each of the following statements about the Electron Transport System is
true, except
:
The proton mo
!
ve force drives H+ back through the ATP synthase
complex
As electrons are passed down a chain of electron acceptors, protons are
pumped out of the membrane
Occurs mainly in the nuclear membrane of the cell Correct!
Correct!
The end yield is approximately 34 ATP molecules Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 13
Your Answer:
Describe the TWO main characteris
!
cs of LYSOGENIC (temperate)
bacteriophage replica
!
on.
1) Integrated into the host genome but produc
!
on of viral proteins is
suppresed. 2) Exist in a non-replica
!
ve state that does not kill the host cell. Answer:
(1) Exist in a non-replica
!
ve state that does not kill the host cell
(2) Integrated into the host genome but produc
!
on of viral
proteins is suppressed
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 14
Your Answer:
Bacteria that have a round morphology are referred to as ______.
Spherical -cocci
Answer: Coccus
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 15
Your Answer:
Briefly explain why a researcher would use the simple stain technique.
How is this technique performed, and what does it iden
!
fy? Simple staining uses a solu
!
on of a posi
!
vely charged dye, for example
methylene blue or crystal violet. This binds and stain the nega
!
vely
charged membrane microorganism. This simple technique is used to
qucikly observe the size and shape as well as the organiza
!
on of the
cells. Step 1: add one stain to a fixed smear slide Step 2: let it sit Step 3: rinse it o
ff
Step 4: let it dry Final step: view under lenses
Answer: Simple staining uses a solu
!
on of a posi
!
vely charged
dye, such as methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin, or fuchsin, to
bind to and stain the nega
!
vely charged membrane of the
microorganism. This simple technique is o
$
en used to quickly
observe the size, shape, and arrangement of cells.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 16
What coronavirus-associated infec
!
on gave rise to quaran
!
ning and
travel restric
!
ons in 2020?
RSV COVID-19 Correct!
Correct!
ARDS SARS MERS 4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 17
Match each type of agar plate to the corresponding general
characteris
!
cs of each.
A mul
!
-purpose media
capable of growing a wide
variety of microorganisms.
Tryp
!
case Soy Agar
Correct!
Correct!
Also known as lysogeny
broth, it is a mul
!
-purpose
media capable of growing a
wide variety of
microorganisms.
LB Agar
Correct!
Correct!
Pale red in color and is both
selec
!
ve and di
ff
eren
!
al
media. The presence of
crystal violet and bile salts in
its formula
!
on restricts
Gram-posi
!
ve bacterial
growth. As such, only Gram-
nega
!
ve microbes can be
grown.
MacConkey Agar
Correct!
Correct!
This Agar is selec
!
ve for
Gram-posi
!
ve bacteria and
can di
ff
eren
!
ate members
of the Staphylococci family.
Mannitol Salt Agar
Correct!
Correct!
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 18
Your Answer:
True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.
Leprosy can move through the blood to other areas including the brain,
spine, and kidneys.
False- TB can move through the blood and other areas of the body that includes
the brain, spine and kidneys. Answer: False: TB is primarily considered a respiratory infec
!
on,
but once it fully colonizes the lungs, TB can move through the
blood to other areas including the brain, spine, and kidneys.
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 19
Your Answer:
True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.
Lipids are primarily composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbons.
True- Lipids are mainly composed of glycerol backbone, fa
"
y acid tails or
hydrophobic and phosphate group hydrophilic. Hydrocarbons are mainly
present in their most reduced form. Answer: False. Lipids are primarily composed of hydrophobic
hydrocarbons.
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 20
Your Answer:
You are working with a pa
!
ent who claims a friend “got the COVID-19
infec
!
on from the vaccine”. Explain why the viral vector vaccine used to
prevent the COVID-19 infec
!
on cannot transmit the actual infec
!
on.
The genome in the viral vector only can encode a spike protein and not
other components of the COVID-19 virus. New virons cannot be
replicated. Answer: The genome in the viral vector only encodes for a spike
protein and not the other components of the virus. Therefore,
new virions or virus par
!
cles cannot be made or replicated.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 21
Match each type of microscopy with the correct descrip
!
on.
The simplest form of light, or
op
!
cal, microscopes. Light,
most o
$
en emi
"
ed from a
standard halogen bulb,
enters the microscope from
the base (bo
"
om) and is
reflected via mirrors
towards the sample.
Bright Field Microscope
Correct!
Correct!
Incoming light is in the form
of the ultraviolet (UV)
spectrum.
Fluorescence Microscope
Correct!
Correct!
Can provide detailed images
of live cells without staining.
Phase Contrast Microsco
Correct!
Correct!
Use of beams of electrons
(rather than light) to
increase its resolu
!
on
capacity to less than 1nm—
that’s 200x.
Electron Microscope
Correct!
Correct!
Combines the usefulness of
fluorescence microscopy
with the ability to visualize
cells in 3-D
Confocal Microscope
Correct!
Correct!
This microscope reflects
light o
ff
of the specimen at
an angle rather than light
passing through the
specimen.
Dark field Microscope
Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 22
Which of the following reac
!
ons is an example of a hydrolase?
a. A + B →
A-B
b. A-B + H2O →
A-OH + B-H
c. A— + B →
A + B—
d. Ab + C →
A + Cb
a. d. b. Correct!
Correct!
c. Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 23
Your Answer:
Which region in a four phase dilu
!
onal streak contains the highest
concentra
!
on of a microbial organism? Describe the technique that is
used in pulling the sample from one phase to the next. The first phase of the quadrant streak contains the highest concentra
!
on
of microbial organisim. Step 1: use a new sterile loop
Step 2: pull part of the sample from the first region to region 2 This process is repeated each !
me using a sterile loop through the
remaining regions. Answer: The first phase of the quadrant streak contains the
highest concentra
!
on of a microbial organism. Using a new
Submission Details:
* Some ques
!
ons not yet graded
54 out of 120
*
Kept Score:
54 out of 120
1
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sterile loop, part of the sample is pulled from region 1 to region 2.
This process is repeated again each !
me using a new sterile loop
through the remaining regions.
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 24
Iden
!
fy the following disease based upon the physical manifesta
!
on:
Hansen’s disease Tetanus Anthrax Gas gangrene Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 25
Which of the following is/are true of Animalia? (Select all that apply)
Humans are an example Correct!
Correct!
They are autotrophic They can be unicellular or mul
!
cellular They possess the ability to move Correct!
Correct!
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 26
Each of the following statements about measles, mumps, and rubella is
true, except
:
Infect the CNS (central nervous system), leading to temporary or
permanent paralysis.
Correct!
Correct!
Caused by linear, single-stranded enveloped RNA virus Immunity provided by inocula
!
on with a vaccine Spread via airborne par
!
cles while coughing, sneezing, etc. Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 27
Your Answer:
There has been an outbreak of Staph Aureus within a local cleaning
business. The employer Is trying to determine which of two companies
has not been using sterile precau
!
ons when cleaning. To help determine
who is responsible for unsanitary prac
!
ces, a researcher streaks the
isolated bacterial samples from each company onto MSA agar. A
$
er
incuba
!
ng the samples overnight at 37°C., briefly explain how he will
interpret the result of his samples.
There will be a sample showing only colorless colonies growing on red
agar. This will mean the presence of non-pathogenic bacteria, while the
sample will show a dis
!
nct yellow agar which would indicate the
presence of Staph aureus. Answer: A sample showing only colorless colonies growing on
red agar would indicate the presence of non-pathogenic bacteria,
while a sample showing a dis
!
nct yellow agar would indicate the
presence of Staph aureus.
Not yet graded / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 28
Your Answer:
True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.
The metabolism of a lipid-derived carbon atom will yield more ATP than a
molecule of glucose.
True
Answer: True
4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 29
Giemsa staining is used to detect each of the following, except
:
Chlamydia trachoma
!
s Neisseria Gonorrhea Correct!
Correct!
Malaria Histoplasma 4 / 4 pts
Ques
!
on 30
What STD is caused by a Gram-nega
!
ve spirochete that can lead to
paralysis, blindness, and demen
!
a?
Lyme disease Syphilis Correct!
Correct!
Chlamydia Ophthalmia Neonatorium Quiz Score: 54
out of 120
"
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BIOD 171 Final Exam
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1.
True/False. A virus is considered a microorganism.
False
(Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.)
2.
What is the smallest biological unit of life?
A cell
3.
What are the four main types of macromolecules found in cells?
Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic Acids, Car-
bohydrates
4.
How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins?
20
5.
Define an essential amino acid.
An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the envi-
ronment through alternative sources (i.e) food.
6.
What are the two major types of nu-
cleic acids and their roles?
There are two major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is re-
sponsible for the inheritable char-
acteristics of living organisms. RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins.
7.
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Complete the following DNA strand, and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair:
3' GGTCATCG 5'
5' CC______AGC 3'
3' GGTCATCG 5'
5' CCAGTAGC 3'
There are 2 bonds formed between A and T, and 3 bonds between G and C.
8.
The plasma membrane (select all that are true):
A. Only restricts movement of mate-
rials into the cell
B. Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids
C. Cannot prevent essential nutri-
ents from escaping
D. Contains hydrophobic tails point-
ing inward
B. Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids
D. Contains hydrophobic tails point-
ing inward
9.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms come together to form what primary macromolecule? Give an ex-
ample.
Carbohydrates.
Any sugar is acceptable: Glucose, sucrose, fructose, galactose, lac-
tose, maltose, etc. Also options: Starch, glycogen, cellulose, or chitin
10.
True or False: Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus.
False
(Eukaryotic cells do have a nucleus (prokaryotic cells do not)).
11.
True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Ar-
chaea.
True
12.
True or False: Archaea, a eukaryotic class of microorganisms, is capable of surviving harsh environments.
False
(Archaea are prokaryotic bacteria 2 / 32
BIOD 171 Final Exam
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capable of surviving harsh environ-
ments).
13.
Which of the following microorgan-
isms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply.
A. Animalia
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Protista
All of the above
(Animalia, plantae, fungi, and pro-
tista)
14.
Microorganisms classified as _________ obtain most of their en-
ergy by converting light energy into chemical energy.
Plantae
15.
A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also con-
tain chitin? Select all that apply.
A. Mushrooms
B. Bacteria
C. Yeast
D. Molds
Mushrooms, yeast, and molds
16.
True or False: A defining character-
istic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers.
True
17.
The function of the lysosome is (se-
lect all that apply):
A. Lipid synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. To produce energy (ATP)
D. Protein modification and distribu-
tion
Waste disposal via hydrolytic en-
zymes
(Lysosomes are membrane-en-
closed organelles capable of de-
grading unwanted cellular debris).
3 / 32
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E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic en-
zymes
18.
Identify the following cellular com-
ponents by matching the number with the description.
1. Nucleus
2. Lysosome
3. Plasma membrane
4. Golgi apparatus
5. Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
19.
The combination of the cell mem-
brane and the outer membrane is re-
ferred to as the (select all that apply):
A. Cell wall
B. Capsid
C. Cell envelope
D. Outer leaflet
Cell envelope
The cell wall is also know as the 'out-
er membrane' and does not apply. A capsid is relative to a virus. The outer leaflet is only a partial description of the cell membrane.
20.
The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply):
A. Lipid synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. To produce energy (ATP)
D. Protein modification and distribu-
tion
E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic en-
zymes
Protein modification and distribution (Within the Golgi complex, proteins are modified and then distributed throughout the cell).
21.
True of False. All multicellular mi-
croorganisms classified as Animalia are heterotrophic.
True
4 / 32
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22.
True or False: As movement requires energy, metabolism can be defined as a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in only motile organisms in order to maintain life.
False
(Metabolism occurs in all living or-
ganisms, not just those that move).
23.
True or False: Enzymes slow down chemical reactions to conserve en-
ergy.
False
(Enzymes catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions).
24.
What is the term for metal ions that assist enzymes during the catalysis reaction?
Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzymes during the catalysis reactions.
25.
Define anabolism.
Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromole-
cules from small molecular units into much larger complexes.
26.
In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active?
Catabolism would be active as pro-
teins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein.
27.
Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP.
ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can ac-
cept energy in the form of a phos-
phate group. Thus, ATP can be de-
phosphorylated (ATP ö ADP + Pi), while ADP can be phosphorylated into ATP (ADP + Pi ö ATP).
28.
From what source do chemotrophs acquire energy?
Chemotrophs acquire energy from preformed chemicals found in the environment.
29.
An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemen-
Lithotroph
5 / 32
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tal sulfur would be classified as a __________?
30.
This phosphorylation process oc-
curs in the mitochondria of chemotropic eukaryotes.
A. Substrate-level phosphorylation
B. Photophosphorylation
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
Oxidative phosphorylation
31.
The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 dis-
tinct transitions?
The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fer-
mentation or Respiration and final-
ly through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC).
32.
What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose?
The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fer-
mentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP.
33.
Identify the reactants of the follow-
ing chemical equation:
Glucose + 2NAD+ ’ 2 NADH + 2 Pyru-
vate + 2 ATP
The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+
34.
What are the main two roles of glu-
cose-6-phosphate in the cell?
Glucose-6-phosphate, also known as G6P (1) prevents glucose from diffusing out of the cell as well as (2) serves as the signal molecule to the cell that glycolysis is about to begin
35.
True or False: In the absence of oxy-
gen fermentation produces 2 ATP.
False
(Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+.)
36.
What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply.
NADH and FADH2
6 / 32
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A. NAD+
B. NADH
C. FADH2
D. FAD
(The TCA cycle produces an abun-
dance of reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH2.))
37.
True or False. The products of the TCA cycle enter and fuel the electron transport system.
True
(The high volume production of re-
duced electron carriers from the TCA cycle is used by the ETC to drive ATP production.)
38.
In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as al-
ternative energy sources? Select all that apply.
A. Lactose
B. Nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Fatty acid chains
Nucleic acids
39.
For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following en-
zymes are used? Select all that ap-
ply.
A. Lipases
B. Transferases
C. Ligases
D. Proteases
Lipases and proteases (Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids.)
40.
True or False. The ²-oxidation path-
way catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids.
True
41.
Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll.
Both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthe-
sis. Chloroplasts are the double 7 / 32
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membrane-enclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll.
42.
True or False: Chloroplasts are spe-
cific to algae and plants.
True
43.
The process of carbon fixation be-
gins with which of the following re-
actants? Select all that apply.
A. CO2
B. H2O
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
D. ATP
E. NADPH
CO2, H2O, ATP, NADPH
(Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbo-
hydrates.))
44.
What is true pertaining to the light reactions of photosynthesis? Select all that apply.
A. It is the second step of photosyn-
thesis
B. Results in the formation of NADP and ADP
C. Process results in a proton con-
centration gradient
D. It is known as the Calvin cycle
E. It is the first step of photosynthe-
sis F. Results in the formation of carbo-
hydrates
G. Process results in carbon fixation
C. Process results in a proton con-
centration gradient
E. It is the first step of photosynthe-
sis H. Results in the formation of ATP and NADPH
I. Occurs in the membrane
J. It converts light energy into chem-
ical energy
L. It is known as photophosphoryla-
tion
8 / 32
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H. Results in the formation of ATP and NADPH
I. Occurs in the membrane
J. It converts light energy into chem-
ical energy
K. Does not depend on sunlight
L. It is known as photophosphoryla-
tion
45.
True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light.
False
(The term 'dark reactions' (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in pho-
tosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.)
46.
How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to gen-
erate one molecule of glucose?
6
47.
Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated.
__CO2 + __ATP + __NADPH + __ H20 ’ C6H12O6 + __ADP + __NADP+
1. 6
2. 18
3. 12
4. 12
5. 18
6. 12
6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 --> C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+
48.
Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme:
1. Hydrolases
2. Isomerases
9 / 32
BIOD 171 Final Exam
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1. AB+H2O’AOH+BH
2. AB’BA 3. A+B’AB 4. AB’A+B
3. Ligases
4. Lyases
49.
True or False: A nanometer (10-9) is longer than a micrometer (10-6).
False
(A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer.)
50.
Resolution and contrast are two criti-
cal factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each.
Resolution refers to the distance be-
tween two objects at which the ob-
jects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one.
Contrast is the difference in light ab-
sorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multi-
ple objects difficult. For instance, try-
ing to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast).
51.
Assuming a fixed ocular, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to enhance the magnification of a sample.
A. Eyepiece
B. Condenser
C. Objective
D. Iris diaphragm
Objective (Only the oculars (eyepiece) and the objectives contribute to the magnifi-
cation of the sample. Since the eye-
piece is fixed, only the objectives could be altered.)
52.
20 x 15 = 300x magnification
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What is the total magnification (rela-
tive to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 20x objective and a 15x eye-
piece? Show your math.
53.
True or False: A cell that is adher-
ent, flat (thin), and unstained is eas-
ily identified using bright field mi-
croscopy.
False
(Adherent, flat cells are almost invis-
ible due to the limits on both resolu-
tion and contrast.)
54.
Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? Select all that apply.
A. Skin cell with diameter of 1500 ¼m
B. Protozoa with diameter of 150 ¼m
C. Virus with a diameter of 0.2 ¼m
D. Bacteria with diameter of 24 ¼m
B. Protozoa with diameter of 150 ¼
m
D. Bacteria with diameter of 24 ¼
m
(The unaided eye can, on average, clearly resolve objects > 100 ¼
m.)
55.
Label the following unmarked micro-
scope components (numbered ar-
rows) by matching it with the compo-
nents provided (letters).
1. Eyepiece
2. Neck
3. Fine adjustment knob
4. Objective
5. Stage
6. Base
56.
This type of microscope utilizes ultraviolet (UV) light to illuminate stained objects.
A. Phase-Contrast
B. Confocal
Fluorescence
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C. Fluorescence
D. Dark Field
57.
This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining.
A. Confocal
B. Dark Field
C. Fluorescence
D. Phase-contrast
Phase-contrast
58.
This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast be-
tween samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen.
A. Phase-Contrast
B. Confocal
C. Dark Field
D. Fluorescence
Dark field
59.
This type of microscope uses neither halogen nor UV light sources but rather lasers to illuminate stained cells in high resolution.
A. Phase-Contrast
B. Fluorescence
C. Dark Field
D. Confocal
Confocal
60.
Identify what type of electron mi-
croscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.
The image was captured using a Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM). The above image shows the trademark 'shell' image (no subcel-
lular organelles are visible) reminis-
cent of SEM. Only TEM is capa-
ble of visualizing subcellular sub-
strucutres.
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61.
Gram-Positive cells appear ____ in color due to a ____ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.
Purple; thick
62.
Gram-Negative cells appear ____ in color due to a ____ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.
Pink; thin
63.
True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bac-
teria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane.
True
64.
Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide.
Any of the following are true: Paraformaldehyde, ethanol or methanol.
65.
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easi-
est staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.
Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin.
66.
You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.
You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
67.
True
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True or False: A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria.
(Pathogenic bacteria would appear pink while non-pathogenic bacteria would appear purple.)
68.
Identify what type of electron mi-
croscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.
The above image is captured via a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Even at 20nm resolution (inset image), subcellular substruc-
tures are still visible. The image lacks the outside 'shell' only appear-
ance of SEM.
69.
A simple stain has been attempt-
ed on an unknown sample with no success. Given this property, which stain should be attempted next?
A. Giemsa
B. Nigrosin
C.Safranin
D. Acid-fast staining
Nigrosin
70.
Select the type of microscopy used to generate the image:
A. Fluorescence microscopy
B. Bright field
C. Confocal
D. Phase contrast microscopy
E. Dark field microscopy
Phase contrast microscopy
71.
As the lead technician in the Mi-
crobiology Department's core Mi-
1. A slide stained withcrystal violet simple stain to observe the arrange-
14 / 32
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croscopy lab, you are given a list what different scientists would like to observe in their samples. You must match these samples with ap-
propriate type of microscopy.
1. A slide stained with crystal violet simple stain to observe the arrange-
ment of cells
2. The swimming motility of living mi-
croalgae cell
3. An unstained sample that cannot be visualized with bright field be-
cause microorganism absorbs very little light
4. The localization of a protein of interest under experimental condi-
tions in a cell
5. Builds a 3-dimensional image of a cell
ment of cells: bright field
2. The swimming motility of living mi-
croalgae cell: phase contrast
3. An unstained sample that cannot be visualized with bright field be-
cause microorganism absorbs very little light: dark field
4. The localization of a proteinof in-
terest under experimental conditions in a cell: fluorescence
5. Builds a 3-dimensional image of a cell: confocal
72.
True or False: Growth media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria.
False
(Growth media is designed to simply support (and not restrict) microbial growth.)
73.
A researcher is asked to deter-
mine which of two vials contains E coli and which contains salmonel-
la. Knowing both are Gram-negative while only one of them is capable of fermenting lactose, which type of media would be best suited?
Differential media
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A.Differential media
B. Selective media
C. Growth media
D. Non-selective and non-differential media
74.
What are the requirements of a fas-
tidious microbe?
A fastidious microbe is an organism with complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not grow. Enriched medias thus contain these specific and essential nutrients re-
quired for the growth of a particular subset of microorganisms.
75.
True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media.
False
(LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes with-
out restriction.)
76.
What is agar used for in microbiolo-
gy?
Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
77.
Blood agar is which type of medium? Select all that apply.
A. Selective and Differential
B. Enriched
C. Differential
D. Selective
Enriched and differential
(Blood agar can be used to differen-
tiate between species based on its hemolytic activity.)
78.
Match the following hemolytic class with its description of activity.
1. Alpha hemolysis 2. Beta hemolysis 3. Gamma hemolysis 1. Alpha hemolysis: greenish-brown color 2. Beta hemolysis: distinct zone of clearing
3. Gamma hemolysis: no change
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A. No change
B. Greenish-brown color
C. Distinct zone of clearing
79.
Columbia CNA agar is used to iso-
late:
A. Gram-Positive
B. Mycobacteria
C. Gram-Negative
D. Gram-positive and Gram-negative
Gram-Positive (CNA agar restricts Gram-Negative microbes therefore only Gram-Posi-
tive microbes will grow.)
80.
True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to pro-
duce an enriched media.
False
(Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that ac-
tually comes from the presence of 'cooked' (lysed) red blood cells in the media.)
81.
A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the re-
searcher can't remember if E. coli is Gram-positive or Gram-negative. Would a Gram stain be necessary to confirm? Why or why not?
No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only Gram-Negative microbes will grow on MacConkey agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Nega-
tive microbe.
82.
In an attempt to detect the pres-
ence of the pathogenic strain of E. coli O157:H7, a researcher spread a culture onto a MacConkey agar with failed results. What type of agar should they (correctly) try next? Based upon what you know about the formulation of differential plates, explain why you chose this specific agar.
The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol-MacConkey agar) as it is specifically formulated to detect O157:H7. Pathogenic E. coli (O157:H7) cannot ferment sorbitol while non-pathogenic E. coli can ferment both soribitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be differentiated from non-fer-
17 / 32
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menters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic).
83.
In Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar, what color indicates the presence of E. coli?
Metallic green
84.
Mannitol salt agar will turn what col-
or in the presence of the pathogenic strain Staphylococcus aureus?
Yellow
(Pathogenic Staph aureus will turn the agar from red to yellow.)
85.
What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish called?
Plating
86.
Describe the primary advantage of using a petri dish over growing a liq-
uid culture?
The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies.
87.
True or False: The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have multiplied ~2-3 times.
False
(When an individual colony is visible on agar the bacterial cell has multi-
plied often a million times over.)
88.
True or False. The purpose of a quad-
rant streak is to expand a bacterial population.
False
(The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure) bacterial sample can be isolated.)
89.
Which of the following are correct in order to be considered a pure cul-
ture? Select all that apply.
A. Free from contaminants
B. Obtained by a serial dilution 18 / 32
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A. Free from contaminants
B. Obtained by a serial dilution method
C. Obtained by pour plate serial dilu-
tion method
D. Obtained by a 4-phase dilution streak method
E. Long lifespan
F. Single organism
G. Multiple species
method
C. Obtained by pour plate serial dilu-
tion method
D. Obtained by a 4-phase dilution streak method
F. Single organism
90.
When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what?
A dilution gradient is formed. The re-
sulting gradient should always con-
tain within it the growth of individual colonies.
91.
In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4?
P4 (Phase 4) would contain the low-
est concentration of bacteria. The phases rank (from highest to low-
est), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4.
92.
True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase.
True
(Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions.)
93.
True/False: (If false make true) The number of phases (3 or 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs multiple times) is acceptable provid-
ed it contains the growth of individ-
ual colonies.
True
94.
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True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a re-
searcher might decrease an incuba-
tor from 37°C to 25°C.
True
(Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth.)
95.
When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why?
1. MSA agar
2. LB media containing ampicillin and neomycin
3. MacConkey agar
4. Blood agar
Blood agar. All other options (1, 2 and 3) are all forms of selective me-
dia, meaning they may potentially in-
hibit the growth of the unknown sam-
ple. Although blood agar is consid-
ered a differential media, it is, most importantly, a non-selective media. Given the alternatives, this is the best option.
96.
Define the concept of universal pre-
cautions.
Universal precautions means any and all samples, whether known or unknown, are to be treated as po-
tentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials.
97.
List at least 3 observations a re-
searcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown micro-
bial sample.
A lab researcher would be certain to note:
1. Size and shape
2. Any observable motility
3. Gram status (positive or negative)
4. The presence of any chemical re-
actions
5. Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media
6. Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above
98.
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While observing an unknown sam-
ple of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following ob-
servations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why?
You must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motil-
ity requires a wet mount, while Gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. If one were to begin with the Gram stain the heat fixa-
tion process would kill the organism, making any observations regarding motility impossible. The correct ap-
proach would be to place the liq-
uid culture on a glass slide and de-
termine its motility status. Next, the same liquid culture can be heat fixed and Gram stained.
99.
A facultative anaerobe is a microor-
ganism capable of growth under what conditions?
A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic (with oxygen) and anaerobic (without oxygen) con-
ditions.
100.
As Streptococcus is catalase nega-
tive would it thrive or die in the pres-
ence of peroxides? Why?
Streptococcus would not survive in the presence of peroxides—it is un-
able to breakdown peroxides (cata-
lase negative). Left unchecked, per-
oxides would damage the cellular integrity of Strep causing lysis/cell death.
101.
Streptococcus is most often streaked onto:
A. Blood agar
B. Spirit Blue agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. EMB agar
Blood agar
(Strep is often cultured on Blood agar plates to determine its he-
molytic properties, which aids in the classification (and differentia-
tion) process.)
102.
True or False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma-hemolytic Strepto-
coccus.
False
(The Lancefield groupings are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic Strep.)
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103.
Greater than 90% of all human strep-
tococcal infections belong to:
Group A (Group A is the causative agent be-
hind > 90% of all Strep infections.)
104.
Rheumatic fever displays ______ he-
molytic activity and occurs when _______ is left untreated.
Beta; Strep. Pharyngitis
(Strep throat (also known as strep. Pharyngitis) can lead to Rheumatic fever if left untreated and displays beta-hemolytic activity.)
105.
True or False. Under most cir-
cumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~80% of human population where it remains non-symptomatic.
False
(Staphylococcus in only found (non-symptomatic) in ~30% of the human population.)
106.
Define commensal bacteria.
The bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients.
107.
Match the step of infection to its de-
scription.
1. Entry
2. Evasion
3. Attachment A. Pathogen uses antigen mimicry to avoid host immune cells
B. Adhesin factors are used to bind to a particular host tissue
C. Mucus membranes are used to gain access to a host's tissues.
Evasion: Pathogen uses antigen mimicry to avoid host immune cells
Attachment: Adhesin factors are used to bind to a particular host tis-
sue
Entry: Mucus membranes are used to gain access to a host's tissues.
108.
Match the following diseases with their respective symptoms:
1. Folliculitis: Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair
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1. Folliculitis
2. Scalded-skin syndrome
3. Impetigo
4. Conjunctivitis
5. Ophthalmia neonatorum
2. Scalded-skin syndrome: Ruptures pustules treated with penicillin
3. Impetigo: Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose
4. Conjunctivitis: Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue
5. Ophthalmia neonatorum: Infection occurs at time of birth
109.
True or False. Staphylococcus is the only causative agent of conjunctivi-
tis.
False
(There are bacterial (staph) and viral forms of conjunctivitis, both resulting in the inflammation of the conjuncti-
va and 'pink eye.')
110.
True or False. Tuberculosis is best identified by a Gram stain.
False
(Mycobacterium show poor Gram staining and should be screened via an acid-fast stain.)
111.
True or False. Although TB must be inhaled and reside in the lung in or-
der to cause infection, TB can also spread to the brain, spine, and kid-
neys.
True
(TB can move systemically through the blood to infect other areas (brain, spine and kidney). However, when located outside of the lung, TB tends to be non-infectious.)
112.
Identify the disease based on the fol-
lowing (select all that apply):
It is a small, acid-fast rod usually re-
maining asymptomatic for up to 20 years. It affects the skin, nerves, up-
per respiratory tract, and eyes of in-
Hansen's disease and Leprosy
(B and D. Hansen's disease is simply another name for Leprosy. Leprosy is characterized by its ability to re-
main dormant for up to 20 years as well as the effects observed relative 23 / 32
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fected individuals.
A. Scalded-skin syndrome
B. Hansen's disease
C. Bacterial conjunctivitis
D. Leprosy
E. Tuberculosis
to the patients skin, nerves, lungs and eyes.)
113.
True or False. Only directly ingest-
ing the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults.
True
(The mature (adult) microbiota is ca-
pable of killing the bacteria/spores.)
114.
While visiting his grandparents, a 10-year-old child has green beans for dinner that were harvested from his grandparents' garden and canned the previous year. Severe ill-
ness sets in and the child is taken to the hospital. Botulism is suspected, but what form - foodborne, infant, or wound botulism?
Explain why it would NOT be classi-
fied as the other two options.
Foodborne botulism. The child is too old (> 6 months) to be considered for infant botulism and wounds were not present. The green beans were likely improperly canned and under the low-acidic, anaerobic conditions, bacterial growth was encouraged.
115.
True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus.
True
(Although the symptoms can be treated it is only to manage the dis-
comfort not to cure.)
116.
Describe the symptoms and treat-
ment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens.
Clostridium perfringens (also known as Gas gangrene) presents with muscle necrosis, swelling of infect-
ed areas, fever and intense gas pro-
duction. Treatment entails removal of all infected tissue, often resulting in amputation of the affected areas, 24 / 32
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in conjunction with heavy antibiotic therapies.
117.
The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is as-
sociated with which medical condi-
tion caused by Gram-positive anaer-
obic bacteria?
Gas gangrene
(The bacterium that produces the alpha toxin perfringolysin is aptly named Clostridium perfringens.)
118.
You develop a fever, chills, and pneu-
monia after recently using a warm midst vaporizer in an attempt to open your sinuses. What bacterial disease would a doctor suspect is causing your symptoms? Would the doctor suspect you contracted it from touching (potentially) contami-
nated doorknobs?
Legionnaires. No—legionella cannot be spread simply by direct con-
tact between people. Legionella can only be transmitted through droplets small enough to be breathed in.
119.
True or False. Bubonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes.
True
120.
Which form of the plague is highly virulent? What does it target?
Pneumonic plague is highly virulent and targets the respiratory (lungs) system.
121.
Identify the following disease:
Lyme disease
(Lyme disease. The trademark 'bulls-eye' rash is a clear indicator.)
122.
Diplococcic bacteria
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Gonnorrhea is caused by:
A. Diplococcic bacteria
B. Staphylococcus bacteria
C. Gram-Negative spirochete
D. RNA virus
123.
True or False. Chlyamida is an ob-
ligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone.
False
(An obligate parasite requires a host (viable cells) to be present for its growth.)
124.
Match the following diseases with their respective symptoms if left un-
treated:
1. Gonorrhea
2. Syphilis
3. Chlamydia A. Paralysis, blindness and dementia
B. Painfully swollen lymph nodes
C. Cardiac and neurological compli-
cations D. Respiratory failure associated with lock-jaw E. Infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease.
F. Sore throat, ocular discharge and fever
Gonorrhea: Cardiac and neurologi-
cal complications Syphilis: Paralysis, blindness and dementia
Chlamydia: Infertility and pelvic in-
flammatory disease.
125.
True or False. Although viruses may contain their genome within an en-
closed space (much like the nucleus of a cell), it is considered neither eu-
karyotic nor prokaryotic.
True
126.
Describe the two basic components of a virus.
A virus has (1) genomic material comprised of either DNA or RNA 26 / 32
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and (2) a capsid, a membrane-like protective structure that contains the genetic material, similar to the nucle-
us of a eukaryotic cell.
127.
The ________ surrounds the capsid of some viruses.
Envelope
128.
True or False. You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infect-
ing a bacterial cell.
False
(False. The overwhelming majori-
ty of animal viruses are enveloped whereas the majority of plant or bac-
teria-infecting viruses are not.)
129.
Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest:
Orthomyxovirus
Poliovirus
Variolavirus
Variolavirus (~200nm) > Orthomyxovirus (100-150nm) > Poliovirus (~30nm)
130.
True or False: Highly infectious viruses undergo genome replication prior to viral attachment and entry.
False
(The viral genome is never replicat-
ed before attachment and entry re-
gardless of its level of infectivity.)
131.
Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral at-
tachment and provide a description of each step.
Uncoating:
Release:
Replication:
Attachment:
Entry:
New infection:
1-Attachment: viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell
2-Entry: the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell
3- Uncoating: the viral capsid disas-
sembles
4-Replication: the viral genome is the 'blueprint' to make copies of itself
27 / 32
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5-Release: New virus particles are produced and leave the cell
6-New infection: newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells.
132.
A virus that infects bacteria is called a ____ and contains a ____ -sided polygon capsid.
Bacteriophage; 20
133.
True or False. Structurally, bacterio-
phages are distinct from viruses that infect plant or animal cells.
True
134.
Identify the following components of a bacteriophage.
1-Capsid
2- Collar
3- Tail
4- Base plate
5- Tail fibers
135.
Describe the main differences be-
tween lytic and temperate phages.
Lytic bacteriophages replicate with-
in the host bacteria until it rup-
tures, whereas temporate (or lyso-
genic) phages primarily exist in a non-replicative state that does not kill the host cell.
Lytic phages replicate all viral pro-
teins needed for the assembly of new virus particles whereas lyso-
genic phage genomes are integrat-
28 / 32
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ed into the host genome but produc-
tion of viral proteins is suppressed.
136.
Based on the following image, would you expect the viral titer to be high or low? Why?
Low. As turbidity is a function of the number of intact bacterial cells present in the media, the amount of virus contained within the above tube must be low. As the lytic cycle continues more and more bacteri-
al cells will be destroyed, effectively clearing the media.
137.
Which of the following can be spread via airborne particles:
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
(Measles, mumps and rubella can all be spread via airborne particles formed while coughing, sneezing, etc.)
138.
True or False. A patient infected with rubella is only considered infectious when the trademark rash is visible.
False
(A patient infected with Rubella is infectious one week before and one week after the appearance of the rash.)
139.
A patient diagnosed with German measles may additionally experi-
ence what disease? Select all that apply.
Conjunctivitis and influenza-like symptoms
(A patient may experience a com-
bination of symptoms such as 29 / 32
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A. Impetigo
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Influenza-like symptoms
fever, flu-like symptoms (influen-
za), cough, conjuctivitis, and a red blotchy skin rash.)
140.
Which of the following diseases does a linear, double-stranded DNA virus cause?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Rubella
D. B and C
E. None of the above
None of the above
(Measles, mumps and rubella are all linear, single-stranded RNA virus-
es.)
141.
What disease is best characterized by painful swelling of the paratoid?
Mumps. A patient infected with mumps (aka epidemic paratitis) has swelling in the paratoid (salivary glands) located in the neck.
142.
You go to visit a friend who has chickenpox. While visiting what are 2 things you will be sure to avoid so that you don't also become infected?
(1) You would want to be sure to keep a distance especially if your friend is coughing or sneezing as chickenpox can be transmitted through air-borne droplets (sneez-
ing/coughs). (2) You would also be absolutely certain to avoid direct contact with the blisters of an infect-
ed individual.
143.
True or False. The development of shingles is most often seen in an old-
er adult population (> 60 years old).
True
(The most common age for VZV reactivation and shingle diagnosis tends to occur in people around 60 years of age.)
144.
True or False. Unlike chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles are localized and limited to small areas.
True
(While chickenpox blisters often cov-
30 / 32
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er the entire body, the blisters as-
sociated with shingles are localized and limited to small areas.)
145.
A person who has neither previously had chickenpox nor been adminis-
tered the VZV vaccine is exposed to someone with an active VZV (shin-
gles) outbreak and becomes infect-
ed. Explain why (or why not) the per-
son will only develop shingles.
The infected individual will not devel-
op shingles, but will develop chicken-
pox. Unvaccinated and unexposed individuals must first develop chick-
enpox, as shingles is the reactivation of the dormant VZV virus from the chickenpox infection.
146.
While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into con-
tact with either the Variola major or Variola minorviruses?
No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977. You would not need to worry about coming into contact with the virus.
147.
What small (~30nm) single-strand-
ed, non-enveloped RNA virus tar-
gets the CNS (central nervous sys-
tem), causing potentially catastroph-
ic damage to motor neurons?
Polio
148.
Describe the main underlining differ-
ences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccine.
The Salk vaccine contained an inac-
tivated form of the virus and was in-
jected while the Sabin vaccine con-
tained a live attenuated (weakened) form of the virus and was adminis-
tered orally.
149.
Which subtype of Influenza is the most virulent?
Influenza A
150.
A drug company is trying to devel-
op a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral par-
ticles. Would the drug company tar-
get hemagglutinin proteins or neu-
raminidase proteins? Why?
Neuraminidase (N) proteins are di-
rectly involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus be the correct target. Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would not be advisable targets as they are 31 / 32
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directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell.
151.
Explain why the flu shot given each year may not be 100% effective at preventing the flu?
It is possible to receive a flu vaccine and yet (unfortunately) still get the flu in the same season if you are exposed to a viral strain that was not included in the vaccine. There are a large number of variants and the flu vaccine is unable to vacci-
nate against all subtypes. Medical researchers predict and then dis-
tribute flu vaccines based current trends and the available data rela-
tive to the most common circulating strains. Unfortunately, this model is not always 100% accurate.
152.
True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is dumbbell shaped and con-
tains ~2,000 copies of the viral pro-
tein p24.
False
(The HIV capsid is conical (cone) shaped.)
153.
The HIV surface glycoprotein gp120 binds what host cellular receptor?
CD4
154.
An individual infected with HIV is placed on anti-retroviral medication. What is the general purpose of this medication?
As the name suggests, anti-retrovi-
rals are intended to inhibit (anti) the life cycle of retroviruses (retro). By inhibiting steps in the HIV's lifecycle, anti-retroviral medications effective-
ly block the production of new virus particles and lower the viral load of the patient.
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