MOLECULAR ASSESSMENT 03 key

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13SEP2021 MOLECULAR ASSESMENT REVIEW 03 1. Which statement is incorrect regarding restriction enzymes? ☐ All restriction enzymes cut DNA to create a 5’ or 3’ overhang. ☐ Cuts sugar -phosphate backbone on specific sites of each strand. ☐ They are molecular scissors having endonuclease activity. ☐ These enzymes recognize palindromic sequences. 2. What drug was first prepared using recombinant DNA technology? ☐ Human Insulin ☐ Hepatitis B-vaccine ☐ Penicillin ☐ Blood clotting factors 3. A biologist uses ddNTPs to terminate sequencing of the DNA strand. How does it terminate the process? ☐ ddNTPs forms bulky adducts that makes the polymerase to dissociate from strand. ☐ Breaks the hydrogen bonds between two strands. ☐ ddNTPs do not have a 3'-OH group to form a phosphodiester bond with the 5'-PO4 group of the next nucleotide. ☐ It forms DNA duplexes to unwind the strand. 4. Plasmids are extra chromosomes found in a bacterial cell. Why are plasmids commonly used as vectors in gene cloning techniques? ☐ Can act as shuttle between eukaryotes and prokaryotes. ☐ Easily integrates with chromosomal DNA. ☐ Have circular DNA owning a replication origin. ☐ Carry antibiotic resistance genes. 5. Which of the following label was used in the Maxam-Gilbert DNA Sequencing method? ☐ Labeled with 14C ☐ Labeled with 32P ☐ Labeled with 35S ☐ All of the above 6. Identify the method used in Sanger sequencing technique? ☐ Chain termination ☐ Immobilization of probes. ☐ Annealing of primers ☐ Chimera formation 7. Which of the following molecules are separated using the SDS-PAGE? ☐ RNA ☐ Proteins ☐ DNA ☐ Plasmids 8. Which of the following enzyme helps in the joining of the DNA fragments into the vector, in the recombinant technology? ☐ Transcriptase ☐ Polymerase ☐ Helicase

13SEP2021 ☐ Ligase 9. A student amplifies DNA using PCR technique and observes that the efficiency of cycles is reduced. Which among the following is not the probable reason? ☐ The substrate concentration is reduced. ☐ Inadequate sample pipetting. ☐ Improper denaturation of DNA. ☐ Enzyme is sufficiently same. 10. Which of the following is used in the detection of proteins in the western blotting technique? ☐ DNA ☐ Antibodies ☐ RNA ☐ Antigens 11. In which of the following step does primer attach to the single-stranded DNA in the PCR technique? ☐ Annealing ☐ Denaturation ☐ Extension ☐ Elongation 12. Name the enzyme which is used to make complementary DNA from mRNA in the process of constructing cDNA libraries? ☐ DNA ligase ☐ Restriction endonuclease ☐ DNA helicase ☐ Reverse transcriptase 13. The Southern blotting technique is used to detect which of the following molecules? ☐ RNA ☐ DNA ☐ Proteins ☐ All of the above 14. Which of the following is used as the chain terminator in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing? ☐ Dideoxynucleosides ☐ Deoxynucleotides ☐ Deoxynucleosides ☐ Dideoxynucleotides 15. Repeated DNA sequence that is seen at the end of the eukaryotic chromosome is known as ? ☐ Short arm ☐ Centromere ☐ Telomere ☐ Locus

13SEP2021 16. The spread of cancer cells from the point of origin to other parts of the body is known as _________? ☐ Apoptosis ☐ Tumor ☐ Angiogenesis ☐ Metastasis 17. Which of the following bond exist between two amino acids? ☐ Metallic bond ☐ Peptide bond ☐ Phosphate bond ☐ Hydrogen bond 18. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are present in RNA molecules? ☐ Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thymine ☐ Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Uracil ☐ Adenine, Guanine only ☐ Cytosine, and Uracil only 19. tRNA contains the anticodon arm to recognize the codons in mRNA needed for polypeptide synthesis. Identify the region of the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached? ☐ Phosphate in the tail at 5'-end ☐ Dihydroxyuridine loop ☐ CCA tail at 3'-end ☐ Anticodon loop 20. Which of the following term is used to specify a particular location of a gene on a chromosome? ☐ p arm ☐ q arm ☐ Centromere ☐ Locus 21. The translation is the process of the formation of proteins from mRNA. Identify the order of components that begins and ends with the formation of initiation complex in bacteria during the translation process? ☐ mRNA; tRNA; large ribosomal subunit; small ribosomal subunit ☐ small ribosomal subunit; large ribosomal subunit; tRNA; mRNA ☐ small ribosomal subunit; mRNA; tRNA; large ribosomal subunit ☐ large ribosomal subunit; mRNA; small ribosomal subunit; tRNA 22. After RNA splicing, which of the following RNA will be moved from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for the translation stage during the protein synthesis process? ☐ Precursor messenger RNA with introns and exons ☐ Precursor messenger RNA with exons only ☐ Mature messenger RNA with exons only ☐ Mature messenger RNA with both introns and exons 23. A Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disease. The characteristic feature of this condition is anemia, sickle shaped red blood cells, and repeated infections. What causes sickle cell anemia? ☐ Glutamic acid is replaced by valine at the 6th position of the beta globin chain.

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13SEP2021 ☐ Valine is replaced by histidine at 3rd position of the alpha globin chain. ☐ Aspartic acid is replaced by glutamic acid at the 6th position of the beta globin chain. ☐ Aspargine is replaced by lysine at the 3rd position of the alpha globin chain. 24. How do cancer cells differ from normal cells? ☐ Defective checkpoints in the cell cycle of tumor cells. ☐ The tumor cells remain more time in the G0 phase and suddenly enter the G2 phase. ☐ Unlike normal cells, tumor cells are damaged cells that easily enter apoptosis. ☐ The tumor suppressor genes convert normal cells to tumor cells. 25. Life forms are made up of matter and 96 % of life depends on the basic elements. Identify the basic elements that are essential for life forms. ☐ Carbon, mercury, oxygen, nitrogen, and Phosphorus ☐ Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and Phosphorus ☐ Carbon, calcium, oxygen, nitrogen, and Phosphorus ☐ Carbon, lead, oxygen, nitrogen, and Phosphorus 26. In which of the following genetic disorder, an extra copy of chromosome at position 21 (trisomy 21) occurs? ☐ Patau syndrome ☐ Turner syndrome ☐ Edwards syndrome ☐ Down syndrome 27. Which among the following statements is true about the biosynthesis of proteins? ☐ During transcription, RNA formed from DNA undergoes splicing to form mRNA needed for protein synthesis. ☐ Only a small portion of the single stranded tRNA synthesized from large DNA is used for protein synthesis. ☐ Two strands of mRNA are formed during transcription that is used during protein biosynthesis. ☐ All the information coded on DNA is transferred to mRNA thereby codes for proteins. 28. How does the chromosome fit compactly inside the nucleus? ☐ Histone proteins bound to the nuclear envelope forms loops around the DNA. ☐ DNA coils around histone proteins to form nucleosomes. ☐ The chromosomes are equally distributed between the nucleus and mitochondria. ☐ Half of the chromosome fits inside the nucleus while the other half surrounds the nucleus bound to histone proteins. 29. A biologist finds a particular mutation that makes the cell replicate DNA unsuccessfully. He observed that the DNA strand was separated, primer is added but the new strands are not formed. Identify the protein or enzyme involved in the replication process that is mutated? ☐ DNA primase ☐ DNA ligase ☐ DNA polymerase ☐ DNA helicase 30. Identify the process that happens after the replication of DNA in parent and daughter strands? ☐ DNA polymerase involves in the methylation of the parent strand. ☐ All methylation is lost after replication in both strands. ☐ Methylation enzymes act to correctly methylate new daughter strands after replication. ☐ Unmethylated DNA is found in the nucleus while methylated DNA is found in the cytoplasm.

13SEP2021 31. Metal ions are essentially needed for all human beings. The protein hemoglobin is responsible for the formation of red blood cells. Identify the metal ion is present in the hemoglobin protein of red blood cells? ☐ Sodium ☐ Iron ☐ Calcium ☐ Lead 32. Why does DNA mostly exist as double and not as single stranded? ☐ DNA easily pairs with proteins to form a double stranded structure. ☐ Replication occurs easily with double stranded DNA. ☐ Double stranded DNA is a more stable structure. ☐ The DNA in the double stranded form can easily be repaired. 33. Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of genetic disorder? ☐ Mitochondrial disorder ☐ Multiple gene disorder ☐ Chromosomal disorder ☐ Single gene disorder 34. Which of the following strand of DNA will be transcribed to mRNA during the transcription process? ☐ The leading strand of DNA serves as a template strand ☐ The sense strand of DNA serves as a template strand ☐ Both sense and antisense strands of DNA serves as a template strand ☐ The antisense strand of DNA serves as a template strand. 35. If cancer occurs due to a mutation in the gene, then this gene mutation occurs at which phase of the cell cycle? ☐ G1 phase ☐ G2 phase ☐ M phase ☐ S phase 36. Which among the following disease is an example for autosomal dominant inheritance. ☐ Achondroplasia ☐ Sickle cell anemia ☐ Duchenne muscular dystrophy ☐ Hypophatemic rickets 37. The Escherichia coli contains an rRNA, this particular rRNA has the dual function of ribozyme and structural RNA. ☐ 18S rRNA ☐ 23S rRNA ☐ 5S rRNA ☐ 5.8S rRNA 38. Identify the level of protein structure that is considered the first stage in the process of protein folding. ☐ Quaternary structure ☐ Secondary structure ☐ Primary structure ☐ Tertiary structure

13SEP2021 39. Identify the term used to refer to the non-protein molecules present in the enzymes. ☐ Inhibitors ☐ Co-factors ☐ Substrate ☐ Prosthetic groups 40. The structural composition of ribonucleic acid has the presence of uridine, is a ________. ☐ nucleotide ☐ purine ☐ nucleoside ☐ pyrimidine 41. which is the cell organelles that contain it is own DNA and can pass from mother to offspring. ☐ Mitochondria ☐ Golgi apparatus ☐ Endoplasmic reticulum ☐ Lysosome 42. The enzyme ____________ is involved in the binding of amino acids to specific tRNAs. ☐ Aminoacyl tRNA synthase ☐ Depolymerization I ☐ Aminoacyl mRNA synthase ☐ Aminoacyl rRNA synthase 43. For amino acids, there are 61 distinct codons. Out of these which of the following are the start codon and the stop codon in the genetic code for the process of translation? ☐ Start codon – AAG, stop codon - UAG ☐ Start codon – AUG, stop codon - AAU ☐ Start codon – ACG, stop codon - UCA ☐ Start codon – AUG, stop codon – UGA 44. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor for_________ and made from ________ specifically in the eukaryotic cell? ☐ mRNA, RNA polymerase III ☐ tRNA, RNA polymerase II ☐ mRNA, RNA polymerase I ☐ mRNA, RNA polymerase II 45. In aqueous solutions, the folded forms of globular proteins are predominantly stabilized by: ☐ Hydrophobic interactions ☐ Phosphodiester bonds ☐ Hydrogen bonds ☐ Disulfide bonds

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13SEP2021 46. What is the syndrome and its karyotype which is associated with dwarfism in girls and resulting in infertility caused by the absence of a chromosome from the actual chromosomal set? ☐ Turner syndrome, 45, X ☐ Mosaicism, 46, XX ☐ Mosaicism, 45, X ☐ Klinefelter syndrome, 47, XXY 47. Identify the nonpolar amino acid that is formed using GGG as its codon in the messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) during the process of translation in eukaryotes. ☐ Valine ☐ Glycine ☐ Alanine ☐ Phenylalanine 48. Gene regulation occurs at different stages of gene expression. In eukaryotic cells, a process known as RNA interference causes gene silencing after transcription and thus prevents translation. Identify which of the following type of RNA causes this post-transcriptional gene silencing? ☐ Micro RNA ☐ Transfer RNA ☐ Messenger RNA ☐ Ribosomal RNA 49. Which among the following is the disorder caused by autosomal recessive inheritance pattern? ☐ Hemophilia (chromosome 4) ☐ Fragile X syndrome (chromosome 8q11) ☐ Marfan syndrome (chromosome 15) ☐ Cystic fibrosis, (chromosome 7q31) 50. Identify the subunit of RNA polymerase that is considered as an initiation factor and is responsible for dissociation of core enzyme after the process of initiation during transcription in prokaryotes. ☐ Alpha ☐ Sigma ☐ Beta ☐ Omega 51. DNA methylation is a popular technique for gene silencing. DNA is generally methylated on ____________ nucleotides in a certain dinucleotide pattern by methyltransferase enzymes. ☐ Thymine ☐ Cytosine ☐ Guanine ☐ Adenine 52. p53 protein is a transcriptional factor that regulates various cellular processes that include cellular metabolism, DNA repair and maintaining genome stability. Considering that which is not true about p53 protein? ☐ p53 prevents the progression of tumours by arresting the damaged DNA from dividing. ☐ p53 is also called as guardian of the genome. ☐ p53 activation results in the removal of damaged cells by triggering apoptosis under various extrinsic and intrinsic stress signals. ☐ p53 protein is required for normal cell division

13SEP2021 53. In given which one of the following is a right-handed double helix, and dehydrated DNA takes on a shape that shields this from harsh conditions like desiccation. Protein binding also effectively eliminates the solvents from DNA, allowing it to take on the shape? ☐ C-DNA ☐ A-DNA ☐ B-DNA ☐ Z-DNA 54. How many genes does this mitochondrial DNA possess? ☐ 23 genes ☐ 36 genes ☐ 37 genes ☐ 48 genes 55. Cancers are grouped based on the type of cells and the region in which they arise. Identify the type of cancer that begins in blood vessels, tendons, fats, and lymph vessels. ☐ Leukemia ☐ Carcinoma ☐ Lymphoma ☐ Sarcoma 56. Which of the following type of chromatin are found in telomeric as well as centromeric regions of chromosomes? ☐ Facultative and constitutive heterochromatin ☐ Euchromatin ☐ Constitutive heterochromatin ☐ Facultative heterochromatin 57. Find the incorrect statement regarding DNA methylation ☐ DNA methylation is associated with gene silencing ☐ It occurs in CpG islands of DNA. ☐ A methyltransferase methylates cytosine nucleotides ☐ Methylation is a weak modification 58. Chromosomes can be seen inside the nucleus of every cell. What is the total number of autosomal chromosomes in a human? ☐ 23 pairs ☐ 22 pairs ☐ 1 pair ☐ 2 pairs 59. The genetic disorder, Klinefelter syndrome is ☐ The X-linked dominant genetic disorder ☐ An autosomal dominant genetic disorder ☐ The X-linked recessive genetic disorder ☐ An autosomal recessive genetic disorder

13SEP2021 60. The two main processes for the conversion of the gene into protein are transcription and translation. Identify the enzyme which is involved during the synthesis of mRNA of eukaryotes? ☐ RNA polymerase II ☐ RNA polymerase IV ☐ RNA polymerase III ☐ RNA polymerase I 61. A molecular diagnostic method that requires only a low concentration of the samples to detect the pathogens is. ☐ Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). ☐ Western blotting. ☐ Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). ☐ Southern blotting. 62. Which is the common genetic disorder that causes nerve cells in the brain to degenerate? ☐ Cystic fibrosis ☐ Down syndrome ☐ Thalassemia ☐ Huntington’s disease 63. Which among the following statements adhere to Chargaff's rule? ☐ The amount of bases varies among species, and also between individuals of the same species ☐ The amount of Thymine is always equal to Guanine ☐ The amount of Adenine is always equal to Cytosine ☐ The amount of bases varies among species, but not between individuals of the same species 64. Telomeres are made up of which class of repetitive sequences of? ☐ Recombinant DNA ☐ Complementary DNA ☐ Non-coding DNA ☐ Coding DNA 65. How many histone proteins are present inside a structure of nucleosome along with DNA? ☐ 2 ☐ 4 ☐ 6 ☐ 8 66. Which of the following restriction enzyme can produce a blunt end? ☐ Sma I ☐ HhaI ☐ BamHI ☐ EcoRI 67. Which of the following is not an example of target amplification? ☐ Reverse transcription PCR ☐ Transcription mediated amplification ☐ Branched chain DNA amplification ☐ Polymerase chain reaction

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13SEP2021 68. In forensic testing, DNA fingerprinting can identify individuals with high accuracy because: ☐ Human genes are highly conserved ☐ Only a small amount of sample is needed ☐ Human gene loci are polymorphic ☐ DNA is stable and not easily contaminated 69. Which of the following is not a possible explanation for poor DNA transfer onto a Southern blot? ☐ Transfer time was too short ☐ Weight at the top of the stack was too light ☐ Presence of air bubbles in the “sandwich” ☐ Power conditions used were too high 70. In the presence of salt, DNA is precipitated from solution by: ☐ 10mM Tris, 1mM EDTA ☐ Alkaline buffers, such as 0.2 N NaOH ☐ Alcohols, such as 95% ethanol or isopropanol ☐ 0.1% sodium dodecyl sulfate (0.1% SDS) 71. An order sequence of evens makes up the cell cycle. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of events starting at G1? ☐ G1, G2, S, M ☐ G1, S, G2, M ☐ G1, M, G2, S ☐ G1, S, M, G2 72. Purified DNA remains stable indefinitely when stored as: ☐ Small aliquots at 4°C ☐ A single aliquot at 25°C ☐ Small aliquots at -70°C ☐ A single sample at -20°C 73. An advantage of amplification technologies for clinical laboratories is: ☐ They lend themselves to automated methods ☐ Each target molecular sought requires a unique set of primers ☐ They require inexpensive test reagents ☐ Contamination is not a concern when performing these assays 74. RT-PCR is used for: ☐ Diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection ☐ Detection of gene mutations for cystic fibrosis ☐ Presence of minimal residual disease in certain malignancies ☐ Viral load testing for HIV and HCV 75. One method to prevent “false positive” PCR results includes the use of dUTP in the reaction mix resulting in PCR products containing U in place of T. The enzyme used to decrease contamination is: ☐ Uracil-N-glycosylase ☐ Taq polymerase ☐ S1 nuclease ☐ DNAse 76. What temperature is used in the denaturing step of PCR? ☐ 35°C

13SEP2021 ☐ 55°C ☐ 75°C ☐ 95°C 77. Which of the following is characteristic of DNA chips (ie. DNA microarrays)? ☐ Allow detection and discrimination of multiple detection and discrimination of multiple gene sequences at the same time ☐ Thousands of oligonucleotide probes are labeled and placed on a glass or silicon surface ☐ Unlabeled target sequences within the patient sample are detected by hybridization to labeled probes ☐ All of the above 78. Which of the following statements best describes characteristics of RNase? ☐ it degrades mRNA but not rRNA ☐ it is found in large concentrations on hands ☐ its activity can be eliminated by autoclaving ☐ its activity occurs in a limited temperature range between 25 and 65 degrees C 79. The Klenow fragment of E coli DNA polymerase I is used: ☐ to make cDNA from RNA template ☐ to label DNA probes by random primer labeling ☐ in quantitative real time PCR ☐ to label a DNA probe by nick translation 80. Which condition has the highest stringency for washing a Southern blot after hybridization has been completed? ☐ low temperature, low salt concentration ☐ high temperature, low salt concentration ☐ high temperature, high salt concertation ☐ low temperature, high salt concentration 81. When quantifying the amount of RNA in a sample by spectrophotometry, an OD 260 of 1.0 corresponds to what concentration of RNA? ☐ 10 µg/mL ☐ 20 µg/mL ☐ 40 µg/mL ☐ 50 µg/mL 82. A common use for pulsed-field gel electrophoresis is: ☐ DNA fingerprinting ☐ mitochondrial DNA typing ☐ epidemiological typing of bacterial strains ☐ tumor cell phenotyping 83. What is the best method to rule out the possibility of genomic DNA giving a false- positive result in an RT-PCR reaction? ☐ use of upstream and downstream primers that span an exon-intron-exon region of the target ☐ treatment of RNA that will be used in the RT reaction with RNase ☐ addition of uracil-N-glycolase to the RT reaction ☐ omission of Taq DNA polymerase from the PCR reaction

13SEP2021 84. Monitoring the load of HIV circulating in a patient’s plasma would best be accomplished using which method? ☐ PCR ☐ DNA sequencing ☐ NABSA ☐ bDNA 85. Which of the following types of mutation causes the premature termination of protein synthesis? ☐ Missense ☐ Nonsense ☐ Insertion ☐ Frame shift 86. Which statement bet describes a DNA polymorphism? ☐ A point mutation arising in a gene ☐ Any change in DNA that is associated with abnormal function ☐ A change in the base sequence of DNA that Is translated into an abnormal protein ☐ A variation in DNA that occurs with a frequency of at least 1% 87. Which formula predicts the number of PCR products that can be produced? ☐ 2 n where n is the number of cycles ☐ N 4 where N is the number of cycles ☐ P 2 + 2pq +q2 = 1 where p and q are the number of primers ☐ N 2 /2 where N is the number of cycles 88. In microarray and macroarray analysis, which molecules are labeled? ☐ The immobilized DNA molecules ☐ The sample DNA ☐ Both target and sample molecules ☐ The substrate matrix 89. How can cell proliferation be explained by the BCL 2 translocation t(14;18) that occurs in up to 90% of persons with follicular B-cell lymphoma? ☐ p53 is under expressed ☐ A hybrid protein is made that up-regulates the cell cycle ☐ Transcription of the BCL 2 oncogene is increased by the translocation ☐ The BCL 2 gene joins with the p21 gene, making it inactive 90. Which oncogene is involved in the etiology of Burkitt’s lymphoma? ☐ ABL ☐ Myc ☐ Ras ☐ HER/neu 91. A cell population is positive for surface markers CD45, CD3, CD4, and Tdt. Which type of leukocytes are these? ☐ Lymphocytes ☐ Granulocytes ☐ Monocytes ☐ Early myeloid precursors

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13SEP2021 92. What is the clinical significance of K-ras testing? ☐ K-Ras mutations make tumor cells more susceptible to chemotherapy ☐ K-Ras is a tumor suppressor gene and mutations are associated with increased lifetime risk of malignancy ☐ K-Ras mutations result in treatment resistance to growth factor receptor inhibitors ☐ K-Ras is sued to identify the tissue of origin 93. Highest-resolution HLA typing is needed for which of the following transplants? ☐ Heart ☐ Liver ☐ Kidney ☐ Bone marrow 94. The majority of cases of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy are caused by which type of genetic damage? ☐ Point mutation ☐ Insertion ☐ Deletion ☐ Trinucleotide repeats 95. FISH can distinguish each of the following chromosomal abnormalities except: ☐ Aneuploidy ☐ Translocation ☐ Deletion ☐ Trinucleotide repeats 96. Which real-time PCR parameter can be used to detect the presence of a contaminant? ☐ Threshold cycle ☐ Baseline ☐ Melting temperature ☐ Relative fluorescent intensity 97. Which locus is used to identify the gender of the individual from whom a DNA sample is obtained? ☐ amelogenin ☐ CSF1PO ☐ TPOX ☐ vWa 98. A translocation in which chromosome pair creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene produce associated with CML? ☐ 11;18 ☐ 14;18 ☐ 9;22 ☐ 9;24

13SEP2021 99. Infection rate is highest for laboratory professionals exposed to blood and body fluids containing: ☐ Hepatitis A ☐ Hepatitis B ☐ CMV ☐ HIV 100. How much DNA can you expect to extract from 1mL of whole blood? ☐ 25 to 50 ng ☐ 25 to 50 ug ☐ 2 to 5 ng ☐ 2 to 5 ug

MOLECULAR ASSESSMENT 03 key

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