**Pedigree Chart Analysis**The following information pertains to a pedigree chart of a family, with some members exhibiting a dominant trait, indicated as \( W \). Individuals who possess this trait are marked with a dark square (male) or circle (female).### Pedigree Chart Breakdown**Generation I:**- Individual 1: Male, not affected (ww)- Individual 2: Female, affected (Ww)**Generation II:**- Individual 1: Male, affected (dark square)- Individual 2: Female, not affected (white circle)- Individual 3: Male, affected- Individual 4: Female, not affected- Individual 5: Female, not affected- Individual 6: Female, not affected- Individual 7: Male, not affected- Individual 8: Male, not affected**Generation III:**- Individual 1: Male, affected (dark square)- Individual 2: Female, not affected (white circle)- Individual 3: Male, not affected- Individual 4: Female, not affected**Generation IV:**- Individual 1: Male, not affected (white square)- Individual 2: Female, not affected (white circle)- Individual 3: Female, affected (dark circle)- Individual 4: Male, affected (dark square)**Question:**What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?- 50%- 100%- 75%- 0%*To determine the probability, consider the genotypes of IV-3 and IV-4 for the trait and apply Mendelian inheritance principles.*

This is an autosomal dominant trait. Since, it is present in all individuals, hence, dominant and both male and female individuals have this trait, it means it is autosomal.From pedigree, it is observed that- II-4 = Ww ( affected) II-5 = ww ( unaffected) so, if we cross Ww x ww, offspring- Ww ( affected) and ww (unaffected). IV- 3 is affected which means genotype of IV-3 must be Ww and IV-4 is unaffected which means genotype of IV-4 must be ww. So, progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will be- gametes w w W Ww Ww w ww wwHence, probability of being affected is 50% since the ratio of affected : unaffected = 1:1. Therefore, the answer is 50%.