Cardiovascular Physiology AQ Answers

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Cardiovascular Physiology AQ Answers : Question 1 1a: The heart has two separate pumps: the left pump and the right pump. Where does the left side of the heart pump blood to, and where does the right side of the heart pump blood to? Answer: The left side of the heart pumps blood to the systemically (i.e., the body), while the right side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs. 1b: What is oxygenated and deoxygenated blood? Answer: Oxygenated blood is filled with oxygen from the lungs. In contrast, deoxygenated blood has had most of its oxygen removed and is returning to the lungs to become oxygenated. 1c: What vessels carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the pulmonary circuit? Answer: In the pulmonary circuit, the arteries carry deoxygenated blood and the veins carry oxygenated blood. 1d: What vessels carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circuit? Answer: In the systemic circuit, the arteries carry oxygenated blood and the veins carry deoxygenated blood. Question 2 2a: What are the four chambers of the heart? Answer: The right and left atria, and the right and left ventricles. 2b: What vessel does the right ventricle pump blood into? Answer: The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk, which leads to the pulmonary arteries. 2c: What vessel does the left ventricle pump blood into? Answer: The left ventricle pumps blood into the aorta, which leads to the systemic arteries. 2d: What are the three vessels that deliver blood to the right atrium? Answer: The inferior vena cava, the superior vena cava, and the coronary sinus. 2e: What are the vessels that deliver blood to the left atrium? Answer: The pulmonary veins. 2f: What are the five vessels that emanate from the aorta? Answer: The vessels that emanate from the aorta are the right and left coronary arteries, the left subclavian artery, the left common carotid artery, and the left brachiocephalic artery. Question 3 3a: What is the name for the valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle? Answer: The tricuspid valve (i.e., the right AV valve). 3b: What is the name for the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle? Answer: The bicuspid valve (i.e., the left AV valve or the mitral valve).
3c: What is the name of the valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk? Answer: The pulmonary semilunar valve (i.e., the pulmonary valve or the right semilunar valve). 3d: What is the name of the valve between the left ventricle and the aorta? Answer: The aortic semilunar valve (i.e., the aortic valve or the left semilunar valve). 3e: What is the name of the wall between the ventricles? Answer: The interventricular septum. 3f: What is the name of the wall between the atria? Answer: The interatrial septum. Question 4 You are microscopic, sitting atop a red blood cell and floating around inside the right atrium of a heart that is not beating. Once the heart begins beating, can you describe how you would travel through the heart and the entire cardiovascular system and arrive back in the right atrium? Answer: You start in the right atrium, travel through the right AV valve and are now in the right ventricle. From here, you are pushed through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary trunk, where then you will travel through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs. At the lungs, the arteries will branch into smaller arterioles, and these will feed into the capillary beds of the lungs. From the capillary beds, the blood will travel into venules and then into larger veins. These veins will bring the blood into the pulmonary veins, which deposit the blood into the left atrium. From here, the blood will travel through the left AV valve into the left ventricle. When the left ventricle contracts, the blood will be pushed through the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta. The aorta will branch into arteries, then arterioles, and finally into the capillaries in the organs. Once gas exchange has occurred in the capillaries, the blood will flow into the venules, then veins. The blood will flow through the vena cava to be dumped back into the right atrium, where this process will begin again. Question 5 5a: What do the left coronary artery and right coronary artery supply blood to? Answer: The left coronary artery supplies blood to the left side of the heart, and the right coronary artery supplies blood to the right side of the heart. 5b: What very important vessel is located in the interventricular sulcus? What is the purpose of this vessel? Answer: The left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery is located in the interventricular sulcus. It supplies blood to the front of the left side of the heart. 5c: Why is the LAD called the “widow maker”? Answer: Since the LAD carries fresh blood to the heart, if it is blocked, the heart can die very fast.
Question 6 6a: What is atherosclerosis? Answer: Atherosclerosis is a condition in which plaque builds up inside the arteries. 6b: What is a thromboembolism? Answer: A blood clot, which can occlude blood vessels and cause stroke and myocardial infarction. Question 7 7a: Where is the foramen ovale in a fetus’ heart? Answer: In the interatrial septum. 7b: What is the function of the foramen ovale? Answer: It is a shunt that allows blood to shuttle straight from the right atrium to the left atrium, since lungs are not functional in a fetus. 7c: What does it become in an adult heart? Answer: The fossa ovalis. 7d: Where is the ductus arteriosus in a fetus’ heart? Answer: T he ductus arteriosus is located between the aortic arch and the pulmonary trunk. 7e: What is the function of the ductus arteriosus? Answer: It shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aortic arch, away from the lungs. 7f: What does it become in an adult heart? Answer: The ligamentum arteriosum in an adult heart. 7g: Some people have a “hole in their heart” and go through their entire lives without realizing it. What is this hole? Answer: The foramen ovale. 7h: Why does it cause problems for some people? Answer: For some people, the shunting of deoxygenated blood into the arterial system leads to poor oxygen delivery to organs. Question 8 8a: What are the three layers of the heart, from innermost to outermost? Answer: The three layers are the endocardium, the myocardium, and the epicardium. 8b: Which layer is much thicker in the left ventricle, when compared to the right ventricle, and why? Answer: The myocardium is thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle. The left ventricle needs to pump blood to the entire body, and therefore needs to generate a considerable amount of force. The right only pumps blood 6 inches away to the lungs. Question 9 9a: How does a cardiac muscle cell structurally differ from a skeletal muscle cell? Answer: Cardiac muscle cells have only one or two nuclei, while skeletal
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muscle cells are multinucleated. Cardiac cells are involuntarily controlled, while skeletal muscle cells are voluntarily controlled. Cardiac cells are interconnected by gap junctions. In cardiac cells, DHPR is also a channel; it is the L-type calcium channel. 9b: What are intercalated discs? Answer: Intercalated discs are regions in cardiac tissue where there is a high density of gap junctions. 9c: What does it mean that the heart is a functional syncytium? Answer: The heart is referred to as a functional syncytium because the cells are interconnected by gap junctions. The cells contract in unison. Question 10 10a: What is the sinoatrial (SA) node, and what is its purpose? Answer: The SA node is a small body of specialized muscle tissue that acts as a pacemaker by producing a contractile signal at regular intervals to generate heart rhythm. 10b: Where is it located? Answer: In the upper wall of the right atrium of the heart. 10c: What are internodal fibers, and what are their purpose? Answer: Internodal fibers are the cardiac conductile cells that emanate from the SA node, innervate the atrial myocardium and terminate at the AV node. Their function is to conduct the signal from the SA node to the myocardial cells of the atria. 10d: Where are they located? Answer: They are located in the atria. 10e: What is the atrioventricular (AV) node, and what is its purpose? Answer: The AV node electrically connects the right atrium and right ventricle . The AV node both generates and conducts action potentials. 10f: Where is it located? Answer: The AV node lies at the floor of the right atrium. 10g: What does it mean that pacemaker cells of the SA and AV nodes are self- excitable? Answer: The pacemaker cells are self -excitable or autorhythmic. They can spontaneously generate action potentials without innervation. 10h: What sends the signal to contract to the ventricular myocardium? Answer: Purkinje fibers. 10i: What is the function of the moderator band, and what would happen if it were severed? Answer: The moderator band is a muscular band of heart tissue found in the right ventricle of the heart. It helps prevent the right ventricle from being overstretched when the left ventricle contracts. It also carries part of the right bundle branch to the papillary muscle . If the moderator band was damaged, the AV valves would prolapse into the atria. Question 11 Beginning with the SA node, can you describe how the signal for the heart to contract travels through the cardiac conduction system?
Answer: The signal begins at the SA node, and is sent through the internodal fibers to the AV node. The bundle of His transfers the signal to the right and left bundle branches. The signal is directed through the moderator band, which stimulates the papillary muscle in the ventricles, and then propagates up the Purkinje fibers. Question 12 12a: What is the normal rate of prepotentials generated by SA nodal cells? Answer: The normal rate of prepotentials generated by SA nodal cells is approximately 70 beats per minute. 12b: What is the normal rate of prepotentials generated by AV nodal cells? Answer: The normal rate of pre potentials generated by AV nodal cells is approximately 50 beats per minute. 12c: What is the normal rate of prepotentials generated by Purkinje fibers? Answer: The normal rate of pre potentials generated by Purkinje fibers is approximately 30 beats per minute. 12d: If the SA node is nonfunctional (i.e., “derailed”), what is this condition referred to? What autorhythmic cardiomyocyte takes over to replace the SA node? Answer: This is referred to as sick sinus syndrome. The AV node has control. 12e: If the AV node is nonfunctional (i.e., “derailed”), what is this condition referred to? What autorhythmic cardiomyocyte takes over to replace the AV node? Answer: This is referred to as complete heart block. The Purkinje fibers have control, since the SA node is derailed as well, being that it is attached to the AV node via internodal fibers. 12f: If the Purkinje fibers are firing signals rapidly, what is this condition referred to? Answer: This is referred to as ventricular tachycardia. Question 13 13a: What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) and threshold potential (TP) of a slow cell? Answer: The RMP is -60 mV and the TP is -40 mV. 13b: What is occurring at phase 4? Answer: At phase 4, the prepotential occurs via funny channels, which allows sodium to enter the cell. This causes threshold to be reached. 13c: What is occurring at phase 0? Answer: At phase 0, calcium is entering the cell via L-type calcium channels. 13d: What is occurring at phase 3? Answer: At phase 3, potassium is leaving the cell via voltage-gated potassium channels. Question 14
14a: What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) and threshold potential (TP) of a fast cell? Answer: The RMP is -85 mV and the TP is -55 mV. 14b: What is occurring at phase 0? Answer: At phase 0, sodium is entering the cell via voltage-gated sodium channels. 14c: What is occurring at phase 1? Answer: At phase 1, potassium is leaving the cell via voltage-gated potassium channels. 14d: What is occurring at phase 2? Answer: At phase 2, calcium is coming inside the cell via L-type calcium channels. This causes a plateau due to the balance of positive charges leaving and entering the cell. 14e: What is occurring at phase 3? Answer: At phase 3, potassium is leaving the cell via voltage-gated potassium channels. Question 15 15a: Can you explain how excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle cells fundamentally differs from that in skeletal muscle cells? Answer: In cardiac muscle, the contraction is triggered by electrical signals from neighboring cells. The ANS modulates the response. Excitation-contraction coupling is mediated by a phenomenon referred to as calcium-induced calcium release. 15b: What is calcium-induced calcium release? Answer: Calcium-induced calcium release is when calcium is able to enter the sarcoplasm via DHPR to bind to and activate RyR and cause calcium release into the sarcoplasm. Question 16 16a: What does it mean that semilunar valves are inherently one-way valves? Answer: Semilunar valves are inherently one-way valves meaning they only open in one direction, without the assistance of papillary muscles and chordae tendineae. 16b: How is it that the AV valves are not inherently one-way valves? Answer: AV valves are not inherently one-way valves because they require papillary muscles and chordae tendineae to function properly. 16c: How do papillary muscle, chordae tendineae, and the AV valves work in concert to achieve proper AV valve function? Answer: Papillary muscles contract prior to the ventricles contracting to reduce the travel of the AV valves so that they properly shut. The papillary muscles are attached to chordae tendineae, which are also attached to the flaps of the AV valves. 16d: What would happen if chordae tendineae were severed? Answer: If chordae tendineae were severed the AV valve would prolapse and potentially lead to atrial regurgitation.
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Question 17 17a: What is an electrocardiogram (ECG) a measure of? Answer: An ECG is a measurement of the heart’s electrical activity. 17b: What is occurring during the P wave? Answer: During the P wave, there is a depolarization of the atria. 17c: What is occurring during the QRS complex? Answer: During the QRS complex, there is a depolarization of the ventricles and a repolarization of the atria. 17d: What is occurring during the T wave? Answer: The T wave represents a repolarization of the ventricles. 17e: What is occurring during the PR segment? Answer: During the PR segment, the atria contract. 17f: What is occurring during the ST segment? Answer: During the ST segment, the ventricles contract. 17g: What is occurring during the TP interval? Answer: During the TP interval, the ventricles passively fill with blood. 17h: What does the RR interval represent? Answer: The RR interval is equivalent to the heart rate. Question 18 18a: How is tachycardia clinically defined? Answer: Tachycardia is a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute. 18b: How is bradycardia clinically defined? Answer: Bradycardia is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute. 18c: Can someone be clinically bradycardic and still considered to have a normal heart rate? If so, explain. Answer: Yes, you can be clinically bradycardic and be considered to have a normal heart rate. A slow heart rate does not cause any problems. Bradycardia can be a sign of being very fit. Healthy young adults and athletes often have heart rates of less than 60 beats per minute. 18d: How would you describe an ECG tracing of tachycardia and bradycardia? Answer: During tachycardia, the RR interval decreases in length. During bradycardia, the RR interval increases in length. 18e: How would you describe an ECG tracing of PVC and PAC? Answer: During a PVC, the ventricles contract before the ST segment, making the QRS complex abnormal. During a PAC, the TP segment is shorter because the P wave is occurring prematurely. 18f: How would you describe an ECG tracing of ventricular fibrillation and atrial fibrillation? Answer: During ventricular fibrillation, the QRS complex decreases in size and the signal is noisy. During atrial fibrillation, the P waves in the ECG are absent and the signal is noisy. 18g: How would you describe an ECG tracing for complete heart block? Answer: In complete heart block, QRS complexes may be missing and the signal is conducting slowly due to a blockage.
18h: How does an ST segment elevation clinically differ from an ST segment depression? Answer: An ST segment elevation is transmural, or full thickness, ischemia and indicative of a myocardial infarction. An ST segment depression results from subendothelial partial thickness ischemia, indicative or coronary artery disease. Question 19 19a: What do atrial and ventricular systole mean? Answer: Atrial and ventricular systole are the contraction phases of the heart. 19b: What are atrial and ventricular diastole? Answer: Atrial and ventricular diastole are the relaxation phases of the heart. 19c: Does the heart spend more time during systole or diastole? Answer: The heart spends more time in diastole (specifically, the heart spends 2/3 of the cardiac cycle in diastole). 19d: Can you describe the six events of a cardiac cycle? Be sure to describe how the changes in chamber size affects pressure. Answer: The cardiac cycle begins with atrial systole, where the atria contract and fill the ventricles. Then, the heart moves into atrial diastole, where the atria relax. Next, early ventricular systole occurs, where the ventricles contract isovolumetrically. This means that, although the ventricle contracts, pressure within the ventricle is not great enough to open the semilunar valve. Then, late ventricular systole occurs, which is the rapid ejection phase. Following this, early ventricular diastole occurs. Here, the ventricles relax isovolumetrically. The atria is filling with blood, but the pressure is not great enough to open the AV valve so that blood can passively fill into the ventricles. Finally, late ventricular diastole allows for passive ventricular filling. 19e: What happens during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? Answer: During isovolumetric ventricular contraction, although the ventricle contracts, pressure within the ventricle is not great enough to open the semilunar valve. 19f: What happens during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation? Answer: During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, the atria is filling with blood, but the pressure is not great enough to open the AV valve so that blood can passively fill into the ventricles. 19g: What happens during rapid ejection? Answer: During rapid ejection, blood is ejected from the ventricles into the pulmonary trunk or aorta. 19h: What happens during passive ventricular filling? Answer: During passive ventricular filling, blood passively fills the ventricles from the atria. Question 20
20a: Can you describe the conformations of the four valves of the heart during early ventricular systole? Answer: The AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are closed. 20b: Can you describe the conformations of the four valves of the heart during late ventricular systole? Answer: The AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open. 20c: Can you describe the conformations of the four valves of the heart during early ventricular diastole? Answer: The AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are closed. 20d: Can you describe the conformations of the four valves of the heart during late ventricular diastole? Answer: The AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed. Question 21 21a: What does Wiggers diagram show? Answer: Wiggers diagram shows the pressure changes within the heart during the cardiac cycle. 21b: How does Wiggers diagram of the right heart differ from the left heart? Answer: In the right ventricle, not as much pressure is generated, since the blood from the right ventricle is only being delivered to the lungs, rather than the entire body. 21c: At what points of the cardiac cycle do heart sounds occur? What are these heart sounds? Answer: Heart sounds occur when the AV valve closes (Lubb) and when the semilunar valve closes (Dupp). 21d: When do these sounds occur on Wiggers diagram? Answer: Lubb occurs at 3, and Dupp occurs at 6. Question 22 22a: What is mitral valve prolapse? Answer: Mitral valve prolapse is a condition in which the two valve flaps of the mitral valve do not close smoothly or evenly, but instead bulge upward into the left atrium. 22b: What is atrial regurgitation? Answer: Atrial regurgitation is leakage of blood through AV valves from the ventricles back into the atria. 22c: What is a heart murmur? Answer: A heart murmur is the sound of atrial regurgitation heard with a stethoscope. Question 23 23a: How would you define cardiac output? Answer: Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. The heart pumps about 5 L of blood to the body per minute. 23b: How is cardiac output calculated, in relation to stroke volume and heart rate?
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Answer: CO = SV x HR. 23c: How would you define heart rate? Answer: Heart rate is how many times the heart beats per minute. The heart beats about approximately 75 beats per minute. 23d: How would you define stroke volume? Answer: Stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped during each beat. This is approximately 70 mL. 23e: How is stroke volume calculated, in relation to EDV and ESV? Answer: SV = EDV – ESV. 23f: How would you define end-diastolic volume (EDV)? Answer: EDV is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of passive ventricular filling. This is approximately 120 mL. 23g: How would you define end-systolic volume (ESV)? Answer: ESV is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end rapid ejection. This is approximately 50 mL. Question 24 24a: How does the ANS affect heart rate? Answer: The ANS modulates the heart rate by the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. Stimulation of the sympathetic branch increases heart rate, and stimulation of the parasympathetic branch decreases heart rate. 24b: What is a funny channel? Answer: The funny channels are activated by repolarization and cAMP. Sympathetic innervation increases cAMP, which binds to funny channels and increases the probability that they are open. Parasympathetic innervation decreases cAMP, which is now unbound to funny channels and therefore decreases the probability that they are open. 24c: There is a “vagal brake” on the heart. What does this mean and how does the brake work? Answer: The SA node is innervated by the vagus nerve. It drips acetylcholine onto the pacemaker, slowing heart rate. When vagal tone to the heart’s pacemaker is high, a baseline or resting heart rate is produced. In other words, the vagus nerve acts as a restraint, or brake, limiting heart rate. Question 25 25a: Stroke volume is regulated in two ways: via changes in contractility and the Frank-Starling effect. What is contractility, and how does it affect stroke volume? Answer: Contractility in how hard and fast myocardial cells are contracting. Increases in contractility increase stroke volume. 25b: What is the Frank-Starling effect, and how does it affect stroke volume? Answer: The Frank –Starling law of the heart states that the stroke volume increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart. Increases in preload will increase stroke volume.
Question 26 26a: How would you define ejection fraction (EF)? Answer: EF is the fraction of blood ejected from a ventricle of the heart with each heartbeat. A normal ejection fraction value is approximately 55%. Below that indicates heart failure. 26b: How is ejection fraction calculated? Answer: EF = SV / EDV. 26c: What is HFrEF? Answer: Heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction occurs when the ejection fraction is below 40%. The heart is too weak to pump properly. 26d: What is HFpEF? Answer: Heart failure with a preserved ejection fraction occurs when the heart is too stiff to pump properly. The ejection fraction, in this case, is normal. Question 27 27a: What is preload and what is afterload? Answer: Preload is the blood return venously to the heart. Afterload is the blood within the arteries that blood being pumped from the heart has to push against. 27b: How do changes in preload and afterload affect EDV, ESV, and SV? Answer: An increase in preload will increase EDV, decrease ESV, and increase SV. An increase in afterload will decrease SV and increase ESV. 27c: How do changes in contractility affect ESV and SV? Answer: An increase in contractility will decrease end systolic volume and increase stroke volume. Question 28 Can you, in general, compare and contrast the anatomy of arteries and veins? Answer: Arteries have 3 layers, prominent smooth muscle, no valves and are deeper in the subcutaneous tissue. Veins have 3 layers, valves and are more superficial in the subcutaneous tissue. Question 29 29a: What is microcirculation? Answer: It is the part of the vascular system and consists of the small vessels called arterioles, capillaries, and venules. 29b: What is the function of arterioles? Answer: The arteriole is involved in resistance. 29c: What is the function of venules? Answer: The venule is involved in capacitance. 29d: What is the function of capillaries? Answer: Capillaries are involved in exchange.
Question 30 30a: When blood pressure is taken, it is reported as a “top number” and a “bottom number.” What do these numbers represent? Answer: The top number represents the systolic blood pressure, and the bottom number represents the diastolic blood pressure. 30b: What is a normal blood pressure value? Answer: 120/80. 30c: Can you describe how blood pressure is taken using a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope? Answer: The cuff is inflated above 120 mmHg to stop arterial blood flow. As the cuff is deflated, Korotkoff sounds are generated by turbulent blood flow through the brachial artery. The first instance of these sounds is systolic blood pressure. Korotkoff sounds are absent when the brachial artery is fully patent, and flow is laminar. When the Korotkoff sounds cease, that is diastolic blood pressure. 30d: What are the Korotkoff sounds? Answer: Korotkoff sounds are the sound of blood flowing turbulently through the artery. 30e: How is pulse pressure calculated? Answer: Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. 30f: How is pulse measured and what is a typical value? Answer: Pulse is typically measured by placing the tips of your index and middle finger on the radial artery at the wrist. A typical value of a pulse is 60-100 beats per minute. Question 31 31a: Why does chronic hypertension lead to heart failure? Answer: Chronic high blood pressure results in heart failure by causing left ventricular hypertrophy, a thickening of the heart muscle that results in less effective muscle contraction, and relaxation between heart beats. 31b: What are some of the antihypertensive medications, and what are their specific functions to alleviate high blood pressure? Answer: ß 1 blockers decrease heart rate, which decrease blood pressure. α 1 blockers decrease the frequency of vasoconstriction. Diuretics increase urination, which decrease the volume of blood, due to water leaving through the urinary tract. Ca 2+ channel blockers allow the heart to contract less strongly. ACE inhibitors and ARBs both inhibit important processes in RAAS, which is a process in the kidneys that increases blood pressure. Question 32 32a: What is mean arterial pressure? Answer: MAP is defined as the average pressure in a patient's arteries during one cardiac cycle. 32b: How is mean arterial pressure calculated? Answer: MAP = (2/3*diastolic) + (1/3*systolic). MAP = CO * TPR.
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32c: What is a typical value for the mean arterial pressure? Answer: 70 to 110 mmHg. Question 33 33a: How do changes in cardiac output affect mean arterial pressure? Answer: They have a direct relationship, so an increase in cardiac output will increase mean arterial pressure. 33b: How do changes in total peripheral resistance affect mean arterial pressure? Answer: They have a direct relationship, so an increase in total peripheral resistance will increase mean arterial pressure. 33c: How are cardiac output and total peripheral resistance pharmacologically modulated to lower mean arterial pressure? Answer: Cardiac output is modulated by ß 1 blockers to reduce the cardiac output by weakening the pump. Total peripheral resistance is modulated by α 1 blockers to reduce total peripheral resistance by vasodilating blood vessels. Question 34 34a: What is the arterial baroreflex? Answer: The arterial baroreflex is the most important mechanism for moment-to-moment control of arterial blood pressure. 34b: Where are its components located? Answer: The components are located in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. 34c: How would this reflex respond to an acute bout of hypotension or hypertension? Answer: In a response to acute h ypotension, there would be an increase sympathetic activity to the heart and vasculature, and a reduction in parasympathetic activity to the heart. In a response to acute hypertension, there would be a decrease in sympathetic activity to the heart and vasculature, and an increase in parasympathetic activity to the heart. Question 35 35a: What is the arterial chemoreflex? Answer: The arterial chemoreflex senses changes in blood gases. 35b: Where are its components located? Answer: Its components are located in the carotid and aortic bodies. 35c: How would this reflex respond to an acute increase in plasma carbon dioxide or oxygen levels? Answer: A response to an acute elevation of carbon dioxide would include an increase sympathetic activity to the heart and vasculature, and a reduction in parasympathetic activity to the heart. A response to an acute increase in oxygen would include a decrease in sympathetic activity to the heart and vasculature, and an increase parasympathetic activity to the
heart. Question 36 What are the three different types of capillaries and where are their representative locations in the human body? Answer: The three types of capillaries are the continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoidal capillaries. Continuous capillaries are found in muscle, neural, and connective tissue. Fenestrated capillaries are found in the kidneys and intestines. Sinusoidal capillaries are found in bone marrow, the liver, and the spleen. Question 37 37a: Describe capillary hydrostatic pressure. Answer: This force pushes fluid out of the capillary due to the high pressure within the capillary. Pressure drops because of the change in resistance along the length of the capillary from 37 to 17 millimeters of mercury. 37b: Describe interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. Answer: This force pushes fluid into the capillary, but this force is very small, due to the fact that there is more pressure within the capillary than within the interstitial fluid. 37c: Describe capillary oncotic pressure. Answer: This force pushes fluid into the capillary, due to high amount of solutes within the capillary. 37d: Describe interstitial fluid oncotic pressure. Answer: This force pushes fluid out of the capillary, but this force is very small, since there are more solutes in the capillary than there are in the interstitial fluid. 37e: What is the only force that changes over the length of a capillary? Answer: Capillary hydrostatic pressure. Question 38 38a: If your lymphatic vessels were clogged, how much fluid volume would accumulate in your interstitial compartment each day? Answer: 3 L. 38b: How are lymphatic capillaries and veins anatomically similar? Answer: They both have one-way valves. 38c: What are the two pathways for the delivery of lymph into the venous system? Answer: The right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct. Question 39 39a: What is an edema? Answer: An edema is an accumulation of fluid in the tissues.
39b: Under what circumstances can an edema occur? Answer: An edema can occur with lymphatic system issues. These can be sprains, blockages, cancer, etc. 39c: What is lymphedema? Answer: Lymphedema refers to swelling that generally occurs in one of your arms or legs. 39d: Under what circumstances can lymphedema occur? Answer: Lymphedema is most commonly caused by the removal of or damage to your lymph nodes as a part of cancer. 39e: What is kwashiorkor, why does it occur? Answer: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein malnutrition characterized by edema. Fluid is dumped into the peritoneum as the blood colloid osmotic pressure drops due to the lack of proteins in the blood. 39f: Why can a person that suffers from alcoholism develop ascites? Answer: A person that suffers from alcoholism can develop ascites because they develop cirrhosis. Damage to the liver results in improper production of plasma proteins. Question 40 What are the mechanisms responsible for the return of venous blood to the right atrium? Answer: Venous return occurs because of a pressure gradient, inspiration, venoconstriction and the skeletal muscle pump.
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