A1 EXAM

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Feb 20, 2024

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INTRODUCTON TO POWER ENGINEERING Power engineers are skilled workers who operate and maintain the equipment in a power plant. When oil mixes with water in the boiler, the resultant effect is serious foaming. In a power plant, the power engineer may function as a supervisor who directs others in the _______ operation on a shift. safe Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency in Alberta not qualified to perform? As shift engineer, take charge of a power plant having a capacity of more than 10,000 kW. In Alberta, a Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than _______ kW as chief steam engineer and to supervise the engineers in that plant. 1,000 Which of the following is not characteristic of increased automation in power plants? A) computerised control stations B) increased mechanisation C) manual flame checking D) continuous monitoring of processes E) continuous monitoring of costs C) manual flame checking "Power plant" means: any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
In the early days, owners of power plants hired __________ workers, who started out doing manual labour and through acquired experience they were promoted to jobs with gradually increasing levels of skill. unskilled. In order to produce greater efficiency, higher boiler pressures were used and this led to __________ due to employing of unqualified operators in a power plant. serious accidents. A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency, qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer. 10, 000 kW. A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief steam engineer. 5,000 kW. Which of the following certificates of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of any power plant as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant and take charge of a shift in any power plant as shift engineer? A) Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency B) Building Operator's Certificate of Competency C) Pressure Welder's Certificate of Competency D) First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency E )Fireman's Certificate of Competency D) First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency
The IAO is an organisation who is primary concern with: A) lowering of maintenance costs through standardisation B) lowering of production costs through increased automation C) increase in safety awareness through public education D) lowering of insurance costs through standardisation E) increase in equipment quality through tougher government regulation D) lowering of insurance costs through standardisation A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of not more than __________ kW, as a shift engineer. 5,000kW. arly government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons: higher boiler pressures, safety, & efficiency Which of the following is not characteristic of increased automation in power plants? manual flame checking In the early days, owners of power plants hired __________ workers, who started out doing manual labour and through acquired experience they were promoted to jobs with gradually increasing levels of skill. unskilled In order to produce greater efficiency, higher boiler pressures were used and this led to __________ due to employing of unqualified operators in a power plant. serious accidents The holder of a Certificate of Competency, the classification of which authorises him or her to act as a engineer, may sketch, construct, install, operate,
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repair, and give advice on all things pertaining to any __________ in which that person is employed. power plant A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief steam engineer. 5000 Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to perform? Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of more than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer. The IAO is an organisation who is primary concern with: lowering of insurance costs through standardisation In Alberta, the Safety Codes Act established the following classes of Power Engineer's certificates (Other provinces and territories have also established the same structure for these certifications.) First, Second, Third, Fourth and Fifth Committees, who establish standards, are composed primarily of which of the following elements? experts from the industry, professional and insurance groups and all levels of government CHAPTER 36
c If an injured person is unconscious: a. Do not perform any first aid b. Notify EMS before doing anything c. Assume you have consent to provide first aid d. Do not survey the area until notifying EMS e. Identify yourself, regardless of the person's condition Play audio for this term b When the pulse is checked at the neck of the victim, it should be done on the side of the neck nearest you: a. So that it will not appear that you are choking the victim b. To prevent obstruction of the airway c. So that you can see the artery pulse d. So that you can simultaneously check for breathing e. In order to maintain visibility of your fingers d You notice that one of the men you are working with is lying on the ground. If you find that his breathing has stopped, you would: a. Give him something to drink and then send for help b. Send for a doctor c. Phone the shift supervisor d. Start artificial respiration immediately and send for help e. Cover him with a blanket and run for help b When performing abdominal thrusts on a choking victim, if the victim becomes unconscious your initial reaction should be to: a. Increase the rate of abdominal thrusts. b. Place the victim on his back and perform a finger sweep of his mouth. c. Give two quick breaths. d. Place the victim on his stomach and press into his back. e. Begin CPR at the rate of 15 compressions to 2 breaths.
e The carotid artery is located: a. In the thigh area b. In the left side of the chest c. Just above the arm pit d. In the right temple e. In the neck b When the heart stops beating completely, it is termed: a. A heart attack b. Cardiac arrest c. A stroke d. Angina e. A seizure c The acronym, RICE, stands for Rest, Immobilize, Cold and Elevate. This would be the response used for: a. A stroke b. Severe bleeding c. A broken bone d. A heart attack e. Trauma shock b If a casualty is suffering ___________, the first aid response would be to rest, elevate, and direct pressure. a. A stroke b. Severe bleeding c. A broken bone d. A heart attack e. Trauma shock c The Xiphoid Process is: a. A method of aligning broken bones b. An area of the chest on which CPR is performed c. A series of small cartilage-like bones protruding from the bottom of the sternum d. A method of locating bones in the body e. A method for finding pulse d
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A substance that increases the likelihood of life- threatening blood clots: a. Cigarette tar b. Hemoglobin c. Carbon monoxide d. Nicotine e. CVD e Angina is a condition that occurs when: a. The pathway through which air moves to the lungs is blocked b. The body does not contain sufficient oxygenated blood c. There is an inadequate blood supply to the brain d. The heart stops completely e. The heart is not getting enough oxygen a A stroke is a condition that occurs when: a. There is an inadequate supply of blood to the brain b. The heart is not getting enough oxygen c. Body parts do not receive enough oxygenated blood d. Air is restricted to the lungs e. The heart stops beating completely a The term "pop or drop" refers to: a. Choking b. Angina attacks c. Dislocated joints d. Stroke symptoms e. Artificial resuscitation d One symptom that a person in shock may display is: a. Squeezing pain b. Strong but slow pulse c. Shortness of breath d. Cold and clammy skin e. Radiating chest pain e
To assess the condition of an unconscious casualty, the Canadian and American Medical Associations recommend following the: a. Pop or drop procedure b. EMS procedure c. RICE steps d. RED steps e. A, B, C system a A co-worker is experiencing shortness of breath, nausea, sweating, and is strongly denying that he/she is in need of attention. The worker is likely experiencing: a. A heart attack b. An angina attack c. Shock d. Cardiac arrest e. A stroke A Another name for Trachea is? A. Windpipe B. Throat C. Nose D. Mouth E. Atherosclerosis B The act of breathing for a non-breathing casualty A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Xiphoid Process D. Asphyxia E. Angina C Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Arteries D. Asphyxia E. Angina D
A decrease in oxygen level in the blood. It leads to damage or death of fundamental tissues and organs. A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Arteries D. Asphyxia E. Angina C A cardiovascular condition in which there is an excessive buildup of materials such as cholesterol and fatty acids in the vessels, causing a narrowing or "hardening" of the arteries. A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Atherosclerosis D. Asphyxia E. Angina A A situation in which the heart has stopped completely or beats too irregularly to pump any blood A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Atherosclerosis D. Asphyxia E. Angina E A serious condition that arises when all parts of the body cannot obtain an adequate supply of oxygenated blood A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Xiphoid Process D. Asphyxia E. Shock C Which one is NOT part of the EMS system? A. Paramedics B. Firefighters C. Police officer
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D. Doctors E. Nurses B Who are the most important people in the EMS system? A. Doctors B. First person at the scene C. Paramedics D. Firefighters E. Dispatchers C What does the left side and right side do in the heart? A. Left - pumps deoxygenated blood, Right - pumps blood to the entire body B. Left - pumps blood to the entire body, Right - pumps oxygenated blood C. Left - pumps blood to the entire body, Right - pumps deoxygenated blood D. Left - pumps oxygenated blood, Right - pumps blood to the entire body E. None of the above D A person that is feeling nauseous, dizzy, shortness of breath, and cold skin may have? A. Stroke B. Heart attack C. Cardiac Arrest D. Angina C How do you treat Angina? A. CPR B. Artificial Respiration C. Medication D. All of the above E How do you treat a hear attack? A. Rest B. Artificial Respiration C. Medication
D. CPR E. A and D C If a person stops breathing, has no pulse, and becomes unconscious may have? A. Stroke B. Heart attack C. Cardiac Arrest D. Angina A How do you treat cardiac arrest? A. CPR B. Artificial Respiration C. Medication D. All of the above E How do you treat a stroke? A. Rest B. Artificial Respiration C. CPR D. Medication E. A and C B Act of breathing for casualties who, for some reason, are not able to breathe for themselves. A. Cardiac arrest B. Artificial respiration C. Atherosclerosis D. Asphyxia E. Angina D When a casualty is breathing, has a pulse, but is still unconscious, he or she should be placed? A. Lying down on his or her back B. Lying down on his or her stomach C. Seated in a chair D. Recovery position E. All of the above
E If a person is panicking, has a red face, or lips, eyelids and fingers tip turning blue could be caused by? A. Stroke B. Heart attack C. Cardiac Arrest D. Angina E. Choking D RED is used to treat? A. Shock B. Broken bones C. Chocking D. Bleeding E. Stroke B If someone is stung by an insect the stinger should be removed by? A. Tweezers B. Finger nail C. Pulling the stinger out D. All of the above CHAPTER 31 C What devices are used to isolate piping and vessels? A. Valves B. Blank flanges C. All of the above C Valves must be secured in either closed or open positions using? A. Blank flanges B. Double block C. Locked chains and wire seals D In situations where a explosion could occur in a pipe, what would be the best way of isolation? A. Bleed Assembly
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B. Blind Flange C. Double Block D. All of the above A What is the first step in isolation of a Pump and Driver? A. Close high pressure steam supply valve B. Close the turbine low pressure steam exhaust C. Open the turbine casing drain D. Close the pump discharge valve B Where does "DO NOT OPERATE" tags go to? A. Controls B. Valves C. Steam Turbine D. Pump A A Blind Flange must contain what information? A. Spacing to be installed, Date installed and by whom, Tag number B. Operator, Location, Manufacturer information C. Date removed and by whom, WHMIS label, Size of blind D. Date installed and by whom, Contact information, Location C What is the first step in isolating a steam boiler? A. Install a blind flange downstream of the fuel gas valve B. Install a blind flange downstream of the feedwater isolation valve C. Isolate motor for the forced draft fan D. Install a blind flange upstream of the blowdown valve B If a person is not sure a piece of equipment is safe to work on, they should? A. Ask the foreman if it is safe B. Ask a qualified worker to indicate and explain the points of isolation
C. check with a co-worker before proceeding D. rely fully on the permit information C Ensuring the complete isolation of a piece of equipment prior to maintenance is the responsibility of the? A. Plant Safety Committee B. Operations Department C. Operating and Maintenance Department D. Maintenance Department D After completing the isolation of equipment, you must A. Open the equipment drain valve B. Close the equipment outlet valve C. Notify the foreman D. Enter the completed isolations in the log book C In order to protect driven equipment from damage, the first step should be to? A. Close the discharge valve B. Place a lock on the drain valve C. Isolate the driver D. Remove the belts D When isolating a motor for maintenance, you should A. remove the fuses B. install a lockout clamp on the breaker handle C. place a DO NOT OPERATE tag on the breaker D. do all of the above A The first step to be followed to prepare a boiler for internal and external inspection is? A. isolate, drain and lock out boiler B. ventilate enclosed spaces C. notify boiler inspector D. cool down boiler for entry B
Portable gas cylinder capacity A. is expressed by the tare weight stamped on the cylinder B. must take into account liquid expansion due to temperature change C. is a function of the pressure within the unit at ambient temperature D. may be increased on approval from the DOT or CTC C Gas cylinder valves are normally constructed of A. steel B. poly carbonate C. brass D. lead D Before disconnecting an empty cylinder from a manifold system A. crack the connecting joint in order to purge it of excess gases B. check the area for gases with an analyzer C. unchain the cylinder D. close the cylinder valve to prevent air entering the cylinder D Pressure of the vapour above a liquid inside the cylinder when the temperature is at? A. 100C B. 50C C. 25C D. 38C D The type of information not stamped on the gas cylinder is the A. manufacturer symbol B. date the cylinder was tested for the first time C. ownership symbol D. date the cylinder was changed A
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A gas cylinder hydro static test will A. result in a new test date being stamped on the cylinder B. subject the cylinder to a pressure equal to its working pressure C. subject the cylinder to a pressure of one and one half times its working pressure D. remove any dents the cylinder may contain B Propane is a liquid at atmospheric pressure and temperature below? A. -20C B. -40C C. -30C D. -50C C Vapour pressure is a number indicating the pressure of the vapour at the A. Bottom of a container B. Side of a container C. Top of a container D. Middle of a container D Butane vapour pressure at 37.8C A. 270 kPa B. 280 kPa C. 285 kPa D. 275 kPa A Propane vapour pressure at 37.8C A. 1310 kPa B. 1320 kPa C. 1330 kPa D. 1340 kPa B Vapour pressure of a type 100 container A. 680 kPa at 37.8C B. 690 kPa at 37.8C
C. 670 kPa at 37.8C D. 660 kPa at 37.8C C What information is NOT marked on a gas cylinder? A. size or capacity B. service pressure C. WHMIS label D. inspector's official marking D What information is NOT marked on a gas cylinder? A. Metal specifications under which they were made B. Tare weight C. Serial number D. Temperature Limits C Cylinders must be manufactured to rigid specifications set by the? A. CTC B. DOT C. All of the above D. None of the above A DOT-4BA-240 stands for? A. Department of transport, construction specifications, service pressure B. Department of transport, service pressure, construction specification C Number indicating how much the cylinder weighs when empty, including all permanently attached fittings except the valve protecting cap. A. Cylinder weight B. Cylinder mass C. Tare weight D. Vapour weight B This marking identifies the purchaser of the cylinder and is registered with the Bureau of Explosives
A. Manufacture's Symbol B. Ownership Symbol C. Inspector's Official Marking D. None of the above A Identifies the container and cannot be duplicated. It provides a control record of each cylinder which is registered and maintained by the Bureau of Explosives A. Serial Number B. Manufacture's Symbol C. Ownership Symbol D. None of the above C This marking indicates who performed or supervised the original test of the cylinder. A. Original Test Date B. Manufacturer's Symbol C. Inspector's Official Marking D. None of the above B Shows the date of the first test performed on the cylinder, as well as the month and year the cylinder was manufactured. A. Manufacture Test Date B. Original Test Date C. Service Test Date D. None of the above A Indicates who made the cylinder A. Manufacturer's Symbol B. Inspector's Official Marking C. Ownership Symbol D. None of the above C What is the most common part that is damaged on gas cylinders? A. Filler Valves B. Vapour Valves
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C. Cylinder Valves D. None of the above A When moving cylinders always use? A. Hand Trucks B. Hand Gloves C. Steel Toe Boots D. Safety Glasses C Cylinders must be stored A. Sideways B. Leaning against the wall C. Upright D. Upside Down B A gauge that indicates when the maximum safe filling limit is reached A. Pressure Level Gauge B. Liquid Level Gauge C. Gas Level Gauge D. None of the above D Which of the following is NOT part of a manifold: A. Tee Block B. Manual C. Automatic throw over D. Pigtails A Which one is NOT a procedure for changing a cylinder? A. Full and empty cylinders must be loaded on trucks sideways B. Hand truck should be used to carry cylinders C. Cylinders should not be dropped D. Before disconnecting the cylinder, the cylinder valve must be closed C Which one is NOT a procedure for changing a cylinder? A. Proper hand wrenches must be used when changing
cylinders B. Cylinder connections should be disconnected slowly C. If a cylinder valve is damage, it should be replaced and not repaired D. When a new cylinder is installed it should be checked B Which one is NOT a procedure for changing a cylinder? A. Cylinders should be installed vertically on their foundations B. When checking for leaks on a cylinder a flame should be used C. If the gas supply needs to be shut off, it should not be turned on until valves and pilots have been turned off. D. Valve protection cap from a filled cylinder should be placed on the empty cylinder before moving it B Which one is NOT a procedure for a employee to follow? A. Cleaning and painting cylinders B. Repairing any damage cylinders C. Making inspections or pressure tests D. Disposing of fire damaged cylinders and fittings A Which one is NOT a procedure for a employee to follow on care and maintenance for a cylinder ? A. Placing a cylinder below ground level B. Inserting or replacing valves and gauges C. Purging cylinders of air D. Deodorizing cylinders C Discharge of safety valves on cylinders located outside should be located not less than? A. one foot B. one kilometer C. one meter D. two feet D Acetylene and oxygen cylinders should be stored how many meters from each other? A. 3
B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 B These fittings are used for product transfer into cylinders. They permit product to flow in, but check valve prevents backflow A. Vapour Valves B. Filler Valves C. Cylinder Valve Cap D. Pressure Relief Valve A These valves allow product flow only when a hose is connected and are equipped with a seat, disc and a spring device to prevent excessive flow of vapour in the event that a hose or pipe ruptures. A. Vapour Valves B. Cylinder Valve Cap C. Pressure Relief Valve D. Filler Valves D A metal screw on cap used when it is necessary to protect the gas outlet and pressure relief valves from operational or accidental damage A. Vapour Valves B. Filler Valves C. Pressure Relief Valve D. Cylinder Valve Cap C Part of the cylinder output valve and is used to release product if the pressure in the cylinder gets too high. It is commonly a spring loaded valve designed to vent horizontally away from the cylinder. A. Filler Valves B. Cylinder Valve Cap C. Pressure Relief Valve D. Vapour Valves A
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Used on gas cylinders to protect the outlet valve and relief valve from damage. A. Top Guard Ring B. Foot Ring C. Bottom Guard Ring D. Cylinder Ring B A reinforced metal ring welded to the bottom of the cylinder to keep it upright and protect the lower part of the cylinder from rust and damage. A. Top Guard Ring B. Foot Ring C. Bottom Guard Ring D. Cylinder Ring C When a cylinder has a specified weight, it is the weight of the? A. Gas only B. Gas plus tank C. Liquid Only D. Liquid plus tank CHAPTER 35 A Hydrogen sulphide is A. 1.189 times heavier than air B. always found in its pure form C. found near the top of tanks and rooms D. more difficult to ignite than natural gas C H2S burns with a A. black sooty B. red streaked C. light blue D. orange tipped D The degree of H2S concentration which allows a petroleum product to be considered "sweet" must not exceed ___ ppm A. 35
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B. 5 C. 25 D. 10 C A concentration of 15 ppm of H2S should not be tolerated for a time exceeding? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes D The safest way to extinguish a hydrogen sulphide fire is to? A. remove the O2 source B. remove the catalyst C. lower the temperature D. stop the gas flow A At concentrations above _____ ppm, H2S causes persons to appear to be intoxicated and impairs judgment A. 500 B. 125 C. 1000 D. 825 C H2S Autoignition temperature is? A. 240C B. 250C. C. 260C D. 270C A H2S color is? A. Colorless B. Blue C. Green D. Red B
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H2S Odour is? A. No Odour B. Strong rotten eggs odour C. Gas odour D. None of the above C H2S vapour pressure? A. 1494kPa at 20C B. 1594kPa at 20C C. 1794kPa at 20C D. 1894kPa at 20C D H2S boiling point? A. -30C B. -40C C. -50C D. -60C A H2S Melting point? A. -83C B. -73C C. -63C D. -53C B H2S Lower Explosive Limit? A. 3.3% B. 4.3% C. 5.3% D. 6.3% C H2S Upper Explosive Limit? A. 26% B. 36% C. 46% D. 56% D Burning 1kg of H2S is _____ kJ A. 14000kJ
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B. 15000kJ C. 16000kJ D. 17000kJ D Gases will dissolve in liquids depending on? A. temperature of the liquid B. pressure of the gas above the liquid C. solubility of the liquid D. All of the above A If a temperature of 20C and a pressure of 101kPa can be maintained, how much H2S can be absorbed in water? A. 3067 B. 3057 C. 3047 D. 3037 B If a temperature of 20C and a pressure of 101kPa can be maintained, how much H2S can be absorbed in crude oil? A. 340 B. 350 C. 360 D. 370 D If water is added to H2S it will produce? A. FeSO3 B. FeS C. Fe2S3 D. H2SO3 A H2SO3 is an acid that will attack metal in a steel, it will remove the iron and produce a material called? A. FeSO3 B. FeS C. Fe2S3 D. None of the above
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C H2S can also cause a type of corrosion called? A. Corrosion cracking B. Stress cracking C. Stress corrosion cracking D. None of the above A At 1 ppm of H2S what effects would a person have? A. Rotten egg smell is noticeable B. Dulls sense of smell, causes burning sensation in eyes and throat. Chronic exposure produces headaches, insomnia, irritability, anorexia, and nausea. C. Attacks respiratory centre of the brain, causes loss of reasoning and balance, persistent cough, sore throat, fogged vision, chest tightening, pulmonary edema. D. Causes nausea, vomiting, cyanosis, vertigo, amnesia, and convulsions. Casualty quickly loses consciousness; breathing will stop and death will result if not rescued promptly. B At 10 ppm of H2S how long can a person be exposed? A. 15 Minute Occupational Exposure Limit. B. 8 hour Occupational Exposure Limit. C. Ceiling Occupational Exposure Limit. D. None of the above A At 15 ppm of H2S how long can a person be exposed? A. 15 Minute Occupational Exposure Limit. B. 8 hour Occupational Exposure Limit. C. Ceiling Occupational Exposure Limit. D. None of the above C At 20 ppm of H2S how long can a person be exposed? A. 15 Minute Occupational Exposure Limit. B. 8 hour Occupational Exposure Limit. C. Ceiling Occupational Exposure Limit. D. None of the above
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B At 100-150 ppm of H2S what effects would a person have? A. Rotten egg smell is noticeable B. Dulls sense of smell, causes burning sensation in eyes and throat. Chronic exposure produces headaches, insomnia, irritability, anorexia, and nausea. C. Attacks respiratory centre of the brain, causes loss of reasoning and balance, persistent cough, sore throat, fogged vision, chest tightening, pulmonary edema. D. Causes nausea, vomiting, cyanosis, vertigo, amnesia, and convulsions. Casualty quickly loses consciousness; breathing will stop and death will result if not rescued promptly. C At 250-500 ppm of H2S what effects would a person have? A. Rotten egg smell is noticeable B. Dulls sense of smell, causes burning sensation in eyes and throat. Chronic exposure produces headaches, insomnia, irritability, anorexia, and nausea. C. Attacks respiratory centre of the brain, causes loss of reasoning and balance, persistent cough, sore throat, fogged vision, chest tightening, pulmonary edema. D. Causes nausea, vomiting, cyanosis, vertigo, amnesia, and convulsions. Casualty quickly loses consciousness; breathing will stop and death will result if not rescued promptly. D At 700 ppm of H2S what effects would a person have? A. Rotten egg smell is noticeable B. Dulls sense of smell, causes burning sensation in eyes and throat. Chronic exposure produces headaches, insomnia, irritability, anorexia, and nausea.
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C. Attacks respiratory centre of the brain, causes loss of reasoning and balance, persistent cough, sore throat, fogged vision, chest tightening, pulmonary edema. D. Causes nausea, vomiting, cyanosis, vertigo, amnesia, and convulsions. Casualty quickly loses consciousness; breathing will stop and death will result if not rescued promptly. B At 1000 ppm of H2S what effects would a person have? A. Rotten egg smell is noticeable B. Unconsciousness immediately, permanent brain damage or death occurs if casualty is not rescued and resuscitated immediately. C. Attacks respiratory centre of the brain, causes loss of reasoning and balance, persistent cough, sore throat, fogged vision, chest tightening, pulmonary edema. D. Causes nausea, vomiting, cyanosis, vertigo, amnesia, and convulsions. Casualty quickly loses consciousness; breathing will stop and death will result if not rescued promptly. C Which substance is an Insidious Poison? A. Chlorine B. Ammonia C. Hydrogen Sulphide D. Sulphur Dioxide CHAPTER 37 d Carbon Dioxide is used to fight electrical fires because it a. Has better cooling ability than other agents. b. Provides a barrier between the oxygen and the burning components. c. Does not reduce the oxygen content of the area. d. Does not leave a residue. e. Is non toxic.
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d Water is the best extinguisher for: a. An oil fire b. A gas fire c. An electrical fire d. A wood fire e. A burning metal fire c The most common standpipe system is: A. Preaction B. Dry Pipe C. Wet Pipe D. Deluge E. Combination of Dry Pipe and Preaction d Fuels or reducing agents that burn in the flaming mode only a. Flammable non-metals b. Fixed carbon c. Flammable metals d. Flammable liquids and gases e. Substances that contain high sulfur content e Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class "C" fire: a. Foam b. Dry powder c. Carbon Tetrachloride d. Water e. Carbon dioxide c Which of the following is a Class "B" fire? a. A fire in a coal bunker b. A fire in a wood pile c. A turbine lube-oil fire d. A fire in an electrical panel e. Burning metal a
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A reducing agent or fuel could be: a. Carbon monoxide b. A heavy metal oxide c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Concentrated Sulphuric acid e. Chlorine a A fire cannot be extinguished by: a. Installing an effective fire detection system b. Cutting off the fuel supply c. Cooling the material below its ignition temperature d. Cutting off the oxygen supply e. Chemical flame inhibition d Wood can continue to burn in the flameless or glowing mode when oxygen level is as low as: a. 17% b. 12% c. 8% d. 5% e. 3% d A fire in which of the following constitutes a Class "C" fire: a. Coal bunker b. Fuel tank c. Lumber pile d. Electrical panel e. Pile of paper b The best extinguishing medium for a Class "D" fire is: a. Carbon dioxide b. Dry powder c. Aqueous film forming foam d. Halon e. Dry chemical d The type of system that requires a additional detection system to operate is:
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a. Deluge System b. Dry Pipe c. Wet Pipe d. Preaction b Dry chemical should not be used to extinguish fires in delicate electrical equipment because it is: a. Conductive b. An insulator and can be corrosive c. Always corrosive d. Impossible to clean e. Capable of producing toxic flames d Aqueous film forming foam agents extinguish a fire by: a. Breaking the chain reaction b. Cooling, and removing oxygen c. Sealing vapours, and cooling d. Sealing vapours, cooling, and removing oxygen e. Sealing vapours, cooling, removing oxygen, and breaking the chain reaction a Foam fire extinguishers are recommended for use on: a. Class "A" and Class "B" fires b. Class "A" and Class "C" fires c. Class "C" and Class "B" fires d. Class "D" fires e. Class "C" and Class "D" fires c A Class "B" fire is best extinguished by: a. Lowering the temperature of the burning wood or paper. b. Creating a chain reaction between the molecules of the burning material. c. Smothering the burning liquid. d. Lowering the temperature of the burning liquid. e. Wetting the burning wood or paper. e A Class "A" fire would involve: a. Gasoline or oil
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b. Any dry materials c. Paint or grease d. Electrical equipment e. Wood or coal D Heat is released in the reaction: A. Combustion B. Oxidizing agent C. Reducing agent D. Exothermic E. Flaming combustion B A chemical substance that can supply oxygen to react with hydrogen or with metals: A. Combustion B. Oxidizing agent C. Reducing agent D. Exothermic E. Flaming combustion D Example of oxidizing agent is? A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon C. Magnesium D. Manganese dioxide E. Aluminum C Fuels in the combustion process where they combine with an oxidizing agent: A. Combustion B. Flameless surface combustion C. Reducing agent D. Exothermic E. Flaming combustion B Example of reducing agent is? A. Oxygen an ozone B. Sulphur and phosphorous C. Nitric and sulphuric acids
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D. Chromates and hyprbromites E. Hydrogen peroxide E What is required for flaming combustion? A. Temperature B. Oxidizing agent C. Reducing agent D. Uninhibited chain reaction E. All of the above A Which mode of combustion only occurs with solid fuels? A. Flameless surface combustion B. Flaming combustion C. Combustion D. Flaming surface combustion E. All of the above B Flammable liquids and gases burn in which mode? A. Flameless surface combustion B. Flaming combustion C. Combustion D. Flaming surface combustion E. All of the above C Another name for flameless surface? A. Bright B. Exothermic C. Glowing D. All of the above B Flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than __ for hydrocarbon gases: A. 10% B. 15% C. 5% D. 20% E. 25% A
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A person's motor coordination is impaired at what oxygen percentage? A. 17% B. 19% C. 16% D. 18% E. 15% C A person will fatigue easily and show impaired judgment at what oxygen percentage? A. 11 to 15% B. 10 to 13% C. 10 to 14% D. 11 to 13% E. 12 to 15% E A person will loose consciousness below what oxygen percentage? A. 11% B. 13% C. 12% D. 15% E. 10% E When electrical equipment is de-energized, what extinguisher can be used? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class D D. Class C E. A and B B Extinguishes by cooling the combustible material: A. Dry chemicals B. Water C. Carbon Dioxide D. Dry powder E. Aqueous film-forming foam C
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Extinguishes by reducing the oxygen content: A. Dry chemicals B. Water C. Carbon Dioxide D. Dry powder E. Aqueous film-forming foam A Extinguishes a flame by smothering, cooling and radiation shielding. A. Dry chemicals B. Water C. Carbon Dioxide D. Dry powder E. Aqueous film-forming foam D The multipurpose dry chemical extinguisher can be used on what fires? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. All of the above E Halogenated extinguishing agents have been developed by substituting one or more hydrogen atoms in: A. Methane B. Fluorine C. Ethane D. Bromine E. A and C A Halon 1211: A. Has 1 carbon, 2 fluorine, 1 chlorine, and 1 bromine B. Has 1 fluorine, 2 carbon, 1 bromine, and 1 chlorine C. Has 1 bromine, 2 chlorine, 1 fluorine, 1 carbon D. Has 1 chlorine, 2 bromine, 1 carbon, 1 fluorine B Halon 2402 disadvantage is? A. Cost B. Toxicity
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C. Not effective extinguishing agent D. None of the above C Bromine: A. Increases the thermal stability and reduces the boiling point and toxicity. B. Reduces the thermal stability of the molecule and increases the boiling point and toxicity of the substance. C. Provides the same effect as chlorine, but to a greater extent A Fluorine: A. Increases the thermal stability and reduces the boiling point and toxicity. B. Reduces the thermal stability of the molecule and increases the boiling point and toxicity of the substance. C. Provides the same effect as chlorine, but to a greater extent B What halogen is most effective? A. Chlorine B. Bromine C. Fluorine D. Ethane E. Methane E Halogenated extinguishers are effective in: A. Reactive metals B. Metal hydrides C. Fuels that contain their own oxidizing agent D. Chemicals capable of auto thermal decomposition E. Where a clean extinguishing agent is required B Halogenated extinguishers are NOT effective in: A. Where live electrical or electronic equipment is present B. Fuels that contain their own oxidizing agent C. Where flammable liquids or gases are present
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D. Where the speed of extinguishing is essential E. Where the area is normally occupied by personnel A Standpipe systems are used in buildings over __ meters A. 14 B. 12 C. 15 D. 13 E. 16 B Which class uses NPS 63mm hose and hose connections? A. Class 2 B. Class 1 C. Class 3 A Which class uses NPS 38mm and a minimum of NPS 25mm hose and hose connections? A. Class 2 B. Class 1 C. Class 3 C Which class uses NPS 38 and 63mm hose connections? A. Class 2 B. Class 1 C. Class 3 A The "Y" piece that is used in a dry standpipe system is called? A. Siamese connection B. Fire department connection C. Inspector's test connection D. Air pressurized distribution piping connection E. Main drain connection B What class is used in wet standpipe system? A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
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C. 1 and 3 D. 2 E. 3 D Wet pipe should only be used when the temperature of the protected area is maintained at or above? A. 8C B. 6C C. 10C D. 4C E. 5C C Which system requires a reliable air supply source A. Deluge B. Wet pipe C. Dry pipe D. Preaction E Which system is equipped with a supplemental detection system? A. Deluge B. Wet pipe C. Dry pipe D. Preaction E. A and D B Wet pipe system is found in? A. Cold storage warehouses B. Office buildings C. Museums D. Outside canopies and structures A Dry pipe system is found in? A. Cold storage warehouses B. Office buildings C. Museums D. Stores C
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Preaction system is found in? A. Cold storage warehouses B. Health care facilities C. Museums D. Stores C Double-interlock system is most common in? A. Cold storage warehouses B. Health care facilities C. Deep-freeze facilities D. Museums E. Stores E Deluge systems are found in? A. Cold storage warehouses B. Health care facilities C. Museums D. Stores E. Facilities where a fire can occur in a short period of time B Another name for reducing agent is? A. Exothermic B. Fuels C. Uninhibited agent D. Lowering agent E. None of the above C In "flaming" combustion what must be present and burning to produce the flame? A. Temperature B. Fuel C. Vapour D. Excess air C Smoldering charcoal is an example of? A. Flaming combustion B. Combustion C. Flameless surface combustion
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D. Oxidizing agent E. Reducing agent B Where should the hose connections for a class II service be located? A. Stairwell B. Corridor C. Ceiling D. Roof E Flaming combustion will cease if the oxygen concentration is lowered to less than __% for hydrocarbon gases. A. 19 B. 18 C. 17 D. 16 E. 15 CHAPTER 38 c All maintenance on portable fire extinguishers must be: a. Completed on all extinguishers in the plant at the same time b. Performed at the work site in case they are required for emergency service c. Contracted out to a certified service company d. Supervised by a National Fire Protection Association employee e. Performed on an "as need be" basis a Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers: a. Are self-expelling b. Are the best for Class "A" fires c. Are the quietest in operation d. Present no hazards during use e. Are the most difficult to use
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e ___________ is suitable for extinguishing all classes of fire. a. Halon b. Foam c. Dry chemical d. Carbon dioxide e. No portable fire extinguisher a A Halon extinguisher is operated and applied in the same manner as a: a. Carbon dioxide extinguisher b. Water extinguisher c. Dry chemical extinguisher d. Foam extinguisher e. Dry powder extinguisher b The gas pressure in a carbon dioxide extinguisher ranges from: a. 31 to 55 kPa b. 5.6 to 6.3 MPa c. 5600 to 6300 MPa d. 31 to 55 MPa e. 56 to 63 kPa e The symbol on a fire extinguisher used for a Class "D" fire is a: a. Green triangle b. Green circle c. Red square d. Blue circle e. Yellow star a The fire extinguisher to be used on electrical equipment is marked with a "C" on a: a. Blue circle b. Green triangle c. Yellow star d. Green circle e. Red square
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b Foam type fire extinguishers achieve better results when: a. Lobbing the foam over top of the fire b. Bouncing the foam off the floor in front of the fire c. Using a sweeping motion d. Discharging the agent at the base of the flame e. Splashing the agent into the burning liquid e The maximum storage temperature for a carbon dioxide extinguisher is ______ °C: a. 31 b. 25 c. 40 d. 45 e. 55 e Foam fire extinguishers should only be installed or stored in areas where the temperature remains above _____ °C: a. 15 b. 12 c. 10 d. -5 e. 5 e Halon extinguishers are intended mainly for use on: a. Class "A" fires b. Class "B" fires c. Class "C" fires d. Class "A" and Class "B" fires e. Class "B" and Class "C" fires a Foam extinguishers are recommended for: a. Class "A" and Class "B" fires b. Class "A" and Class "C" fires c. Class "B" and Class "C" fires d. All classes of fires e. All but burning liquids
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c A major disadvantage of a floor standing pump extinguisher over a backpack extinguisher is: a. The floor unit has far less capacity b. The backpack unit has twice the range c. Pumping must stop to relocate the floor standing pump d. The floor unit pump is only single acting e. The floor unit is difficult to move d Burning metals may be extinguished using: a. Dry chemical extinguishers b. Carbon dioxide extinguishers c. AFFF extinguishers d. Dry powder extinguishers e. Foam extinguishers b A red square on a fire extinguisher indicates that this extinguisher is suitable for a Class _____ fire. a. "A" b. "B" c. "C" d. "D" e. "E" b Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used to combat a Class "C" fire: a. Carbon dioxide and Foam b. Carbon dioxide and Dry chemical c. Foam and Dry chemical d. Foam and Water e. Carbon dioxide and Water A A green triangle on a fire extinguisher indicates that this extinguisher is suitable for a Class _____ fire. a. "A" b. "B" c. "C"
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d. "D" e. "E" C If a application is prohibited on a fire extinguisher, the background is ___ and the slash is ___ A. White, red B. Red, white C. Black, red D. Red, black E. White, black B If a application is permitted on a fire extinguisher, the background is ___ A. Blue B. Light blue C. Dark blue D. White E. Black E Rating numerals is used on what class of fire extinguisher? A. C B. D C. B and C D. C and D E. A and B E What class is a fire extinguisher that contains potassium acetate, used for extinguishing cooking fires involving vegetable oils or fats A. C B. D C. B D. A E. K A The stored pressure water extinguisher is pressurized with intert gas in a range of? A. 600 to 900 kPa
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B. 500 to 800 kPa C. 500 to 900 kPa D. 500 to 700 kPa E. 600 to 800 kPa D Why shouldn't a carbon dioxide extinguisher be used in confined or unventilated areas? A. Visibility problems B. Noise C. Lack of oxygen D. All of the above C During the operation of a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher, why shouldn't you touch the discharge horn? A. Not the proper way to operate it B. Could burn your hand C. Discharge horn becomes very cold D. All of the above B For spill fires what is the best method to used with a CO2 extinguisher? A. Overhead method B. Sweeping method C. Direct discharge method D. Underfire method A For confined fires what is the best method to used with a CO2 extinguisher? A. Overhead method B. Sweeping method C. Direct discharge method D. Underfire method A Halon 1211 is effective on what class of fires? A. A B. B C. B and C
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D. C an D E. C C Halon extinguishers is increased by __ gas to ensure a wide temperature range. A. Fluorine B. Chlorine C. Nitrogen D. Methane E. Bromine B How often should maintenance be done on a extinguisher? A. Semi-annually B. Annually C. Monthly D. Weekly E. Every two years D How many portable fire extinguishers are there? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 A hazard that specifically applies to confined spaces is? A. They are too noisy B. it is more difficult to rescue someone in an emergency C. workers refusing to work in confined spaces D. there is room for only one worker C Using the Alberta OH&S Regulations as an example, whenever a worker is inside a confined space: A. it is mandatory to always wear respiratory protective equipment
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B. the confined space MUST have at least 20% oxygen C. another person must be assigned to communicate with and visually check the worker D. ventilation fans MUST be running D When entering any confined space, it is good practice to A. ensure that at least two workers enter the space B. remove your safety belt to avoid it getting caught on something C. inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts D. plan the entry using a confined space entry checklist A An open trench is considered to be a confined space? A.True B False D Which of the following is not an item that MUST be considered when vessel entry permits are prepared? A. Is the oxygen level at minimum level of 20%? B. Is the temperature in the space at working limits? C. Is the confined space structurally safe to enter D. Has the head of plant safety department been notified? A Which of the following is not an item of potential hazards in a confined spaces? A. Hard Hat B. Escape and rescue may be difficult C. Harmful substances D. Lack of air CHAPTER 39 e The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a/an ________ extinguisher: a. Pressurized water b. Dry chemical c. Purple K
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d. AFFF e. Carbon dioxide e A fire may be caused by an electrical arc, which may originate due to: a. Closing an electrical breaker. b. Shutting down a motor too quickly. c. Insufficient power in an electrical circuit. d. Low voltage at a generator. e. A loose electrical connection. e Electrical circuit insulation: a. Will never break down or deteriorate b. Requires replacement after 10 years c. Is not affected by temperature d. Will not burn e. Will deteriorate due to high temperatures e According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, capable of producing combustible flyings, are handled or manufactured is designated as: a. Class 1, Division 1 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 a Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal operating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as: a. Class 1, Division 1 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 e
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The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the horn of a carbon dioxide extinguisher may be as low as ______ °C: a. 0 b. -5 c. -30 d. -60 e. -80 c Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as: a. Class 1, Division 1 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 c During annual facility maintenance, a. All fuses in the electrical system be replaced b. A Megger must be used on all electrical motor windings c. All electrical connections should be checked for tightness and corrosion d. All circuit breakers must be disassembled and cleaned e. Aluminum wiring must be replaced e When an electrical fire occurs: a. The equipment may be left running if the fire is extinguished with a Class "C" fire extinguisher. b. Fresh air should be provided to the room as quickly as possible to get rid of toxic fumes. c. The equipment should be left running until back-up power is available. d. The equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire is extinguished. e. The equipment should be de-energized as quickly as possible.
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a Overheating of electrical equipment is: a. The most common cause of electrical fires in buildings b. Usually the result of inadequate wiring c. Often due to over sized fuses being installed d. The result of blocked cooling fin passages e. Illegal in most provinces b Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours but are normally confined in containers, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as: a. Class 1, Division 1 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 d Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust not normally in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as: a. Class 1, Division 1 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 a According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, are stored or handled, but are not processed is designated as: a. Class 3, Division 2 b. Class 1, Division 2 c. Class 2, Division 1 d. Class 2, Division 2 e. Class 3, Division 1 C
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Heat produced by a current is calculated by: A. I*R B. R^2*I C. I^2*R D. I^2*R^2 B The heat produced by electric arc depends on? A. Resistance strength and current of the circuit B. Current strength and voltage of the circuit C. Voltage strength and resistance of the circuit D. Voltage strength and current of the circuit E. Current strength and resistance of the circuit E When the power has been cut off from an electrical fire, it becomes what class? A. Class C B. Class D C. Class A D. Class B E. Class A, B or a combination of both A Hand held models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg A. 2.2 to 9 B. 2.1 to 9 C. 2.2 to 10 D. 2.1 to 10 E. 2 to 9 A Wheeled models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg A. 22 to 44 B. 22 to 45 C. 21 to 44 D. 21 to 45 E. 20 to 44 C Carbon dioxide extinguishers are designed for pressures up to
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A. 4000 kPa B. 5000 kPa C. 6000 kPa D. 7000 kPa E. 8000 kPa A Which one is NOT true about carbon dioxide extinguishers A. Is combustible B. Does not react with most materials C. Does not conduct electricity D. Leaves no residue upon application E. Is heavier than air B Which one is NOT true about halon extinguishers A. They are noncorrosive B. They leave residue C. They are nonabrasive D. They are more effective than carbon dioxide on a weight-of-agent basis E. They do not conduct electricity C Halogen fire extinguishers are built in __ to __ kg capacities A. 2 to 5 B. 3 to 6 C. 1 to 5 D. 1 to 6 E. 2 to 6 E Dry chemical extinguishers may be available in sizes from __ to __kg. A. 1.8 to 12.6 B. 2.8 to 13.6 C. 1.8 to 14.6 D. 0.8 to 15.6 E. 1.8 to 13.6 B
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Infrared photography: A. Protects conductors from overloading B. Detects hot spots in electrical panels C. Detects hot spots in a motor D. Protects motors from overheating E In Class 1, Division 2 the contacts of circuits breakers, switches and controllers must be: A. Explosion-proof B. Immersed in oil C. Dust-tight enclosures D. Fibre proof E. A and B C In Class 2, Division 1 what material that electrical equipment may be exposed to? A. Liquids B. Vapours C. Dust D. Vacuum CHAPTER 25 A When did Alberta enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act? A. 1898 B. 1951 C. 1942 D. 1899 A When did Saskatchewan enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act? A. 1898 B. 1951 C. 1942 D. 1899 B
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When did Northwest Territories enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act? A. 1898 B. 1951 C. 1942 D. 1899 C When did Nova Scotia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act? A. 1898 B. 1951 C. 1942 D. 1899 D When did British Columbia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act? A. 1898 B. 1951 C. 1942 D. 1899 A1 MIXED QUESTIONS The equivalent of 103 kPa in psi is ____. 15 psi A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at a pressure greater than ____. 103 kPa A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers containing liquid at a working pressure greater than ____ and/or a temperature exceeding ____. 1100 kPa, 121 degrees C A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______. 1000 kW
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A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields. 5000 kW A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______. 5000 kW A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields. 10 000 kW A Fourth Class power engineer may act as assistant engineer, under supervision of the shift engineer, in a power plant of capacity not more than ______. 10 000 kW A Fourth Class power engineer may take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than ________ and operating at a pressure not more than _______. 5000 kW, 140 kPa Which code regulates mechanical refrigeration? CSA B52 Mechanical Refrigeration Code Which CSA code is entitled Boiler, Pressure Vessel and Pressure Piping Code? CSA B51 Which ASME code section relates to power boilers? Section I Which ASME code section relates to materials? Section II
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Which ASME code section relates to construction of nuclear power components? Section III Which ASME code section relates to construction of heating boilers? Section IV Which ASME code section relates to nondestructive examination? Section V Which ASME code section relates to care and operation of heating boilers? Section VI Which ASME code section relates to care of power boilers? Section VII Which ASME code section relates to construction of pressure vessels? Section VIII Which ASME code section relates to welding and brazing qualifications? Section IX This committee was formed in 1911. Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee This organization was responsible for forming the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) This body was formed in 1919. The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors. The first province to pass laws relating to boilers and pressure vessels was _________. Quebec
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What are the different grades of Pressure Welder's Certificates of Competency? Grades A, B, and C This critical temperature is the cutoff for a class A compressed gas under WHMIS. 50 degrees Celsius Class A substances in WHMIS are ______________. compressed gases A Class A compressed gas may also be a Class B Division 1 flammable gas if it forms a flammable mixture with air at a concentration of less than __________ by volume, or over a concentration range of at least ____ by volume. 13%, 12%. In WHMIS, this is a Class A substance. compressed gas In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 1 substance. flammable gas In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 2 substance. flammable liquid In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 3 substance. combustible liquid In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 4 substance. flammable solid In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 5 substance. flammable aerosol In WHMIS, this is a Class B Division 6 substance. reactive flammable material In WHMIS, this is a Class C substance. oxidizing material
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In WHMIS, this is a Class D - Division 1 substance. a substance that has immediate and serious toxic effects In WHMIS, this is a Class D - Division 2 substance. a substance that is toxic after chronic exposure In WHMIS, this is a Class D - Division 3 substance. biohazardous material A liquid is flammable under WHMIS if its flash point is _____________. less than 37.8 degrees Celsius A liquid is combustible under WHMIS if its flash point is _____________. between 37.8 and 93.3 degrees Celsius Which is more toxic, a Class D Division 1 Subdivision A substance, or a Class D Division 1 Subdivision B substance? Subdivision A Which is more hazardous, a Class D Division 3 Risk Group I organism, or a Class D Division 3 Risk Group IV organism? Risk Group IV In WHMIS, a Class E substance is ________. corrosive In WHMIS, a Class F substance is _______. dangerously reactive What legislation determines whether a product is a controlled product for the purpose of WHMIS? The Hazardous Products Act, Controlled Products Regulations. List the three routes by which a toxic substance may enter the body. ingestion, inhalation, absorption through the skin
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What determines whether an ingredient must be listed in the Hazardous Ingredients section of the MSDS? It is determined by whether or not it appears on the Ingredient Disclosure List, and whether or not it is present in the product at a percentage greater than that listed in the Ingredient Disclosure List. How long does an exemption under HMIRA last? 3 years What is the purpose of HMIRA? to protect the secrecy of a manufacturer's formula Under what circumstance could a supplier omit the hazardous ingredient identification and percentages from the MSDS. when an exemption has been applied for and granted under the Hazardous Materials Information Review Act Buildings that are higher than _________ stories or ________ m require standpipe systems. 3, 14 Class I standpipe systems use hoses and hose connections which are _______ in diameter, and are provided for use by ______________. 63 mm, fire departments and those trained in firefighting techniques Class II standpipe systems use hoses and hose connections which are _______ in diameter, and are provided for use by ______________. 38 mm (25 mm in light hazard occupancy, subject to approval by local authorities), building occupants Class III standpipe systems use hoses and hose connections which are _______ in diameter, and are provided for use by ______________. both 38 mm and 63 mm, building occupants (38 mm) and trained personnel (63 mm)
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There must be standpipes and hose sections such that any portion of any story is within ________ of a nozzle, connected by not more than __________ of hose. 9 m, 30 m Where 25 mm hoses and hose connections have been approved, there must be standpipes and hose sections such that any portion of any story is within ________ of a nozzle, connected by not more than __________ of hose. 6 m, 30 m Standpipe risers are located in __________________. fire-rated, non-combustible stairwells In standpipe systems, the 63 mm hose connections are located _____________, while the 38 mm hose connections are located _________________________. in the stairwell, in the corridor or adjacent to the stairwell Standpipe for risers of less than 30 m is made of NPS __________ pipe, while standpipe for risers of greater than 30 m is made of NPS __________ pipe. 102, 152 High level fire zones include floors higher than ___________ above street level; this requires risers made of NPS ___________ pipe. 85, 203 At the topmost outlet of each standpipe, there must be at least __________ of water pressure, with a flow rate of at least _________. 450 kPa, 32 L/s At any hose valve outlet in the standpipe system, the pressure should not exceed ___________. A pressure reducing system may be required. 690 kPa Which type(s) of sprinkler system contain(s) water at all times?
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wet pipe sprinkler systems If a wet pipe sprinkler system is to be used, what must the temperature of the area be maintained at? at least 4 degrees Celsius Dry pipe sprinkler systems contain air at a maximum pressure of ________. 275 kPa In a _______________, sprinklers have their operating elements removed. deluge system The ___________ type of sprinkler system operates as a wet pipe system once the supplemental detection system has caused a valve to allow water into the pipes. preaction This sprinkler system is often used in hospitals, manufacturing facilities, office buildings, and other locations in which the temperature is maintained above 4 degrees Celsius. wet pipe system This sprinkler system is used in museums, environments housing computer or communications equipment, and other locations where inadvertent water discharge could cause significant damage. preaction system This sprinkler system is used in environments where the temperature may drop below 4 degrees Celsius. dry pipe system This sprinkler system is used in facilities that house combustible or flammable liquids, or situations in which thermal damage is likely to occur in a relatively short period of time. deluge system These substances burn in the flaming mode only.
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flammable liquids and gases The "fire tetrahedron" includes the four requirements for the _________ mode of combustion. flaming The "fire triangle" includes the three requirements for the _________ mode of combustion. flameless The four elements of the fire tetrahedron are ___________________________. fuel, oxygen, temperature, and an uninhibited chain reaction (i.e. uncontrolled molecular activity) The three elements of the fire triangle are __________________. fuel, oxygen, and temperature For hydrocarbon gases, flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than _______. 15% Wood may continue to burn in the flameless (glowing) mode, even if oxygen levels drop as low as ___________. 5% Three ways in which combustion creates a threat to life include: _____________. high temperatures, asphyxiation through oxygen depletion, and gaseous products of combustion The oxygen concentration in air is ________. 21% At an oxygen concentration of 17%, a person will experience ____________. impaired motor coordination At oxygen concentrations of 10-14%, a person will experience _____________ and ___________________. impaired judgement, fatigue
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At oxygen concentration less than 10%, and individual will __________________. lose consciousness What is the occupational exposure limit? The limit of exposure to an airborne substance believed to cause no adverse effects to workers exposed day after day. What is the time weighted average? The average exposure to a contaminant or condition that a worker may be exposed to over a period of time (8-hour day, 40-hour week) with no adverse effects. What is the short-term exposure limit? The maximum level to which a worker may be exposed for a time of no longer than 15 minutes. What is the ceiling exposure limit? This is the limit of exposure to a substance that cannot be exceeded at any time. How is the vapour density of a product determined? It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the weight of air. How is the rate of evaporation of a product determined? It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal Butyl acetate. How is the specific gravity of a product determined? It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of air at a specified temperature. What is the vapour density of propane? 1.6 (it falls in air) What is the specific gravity of iron? 7.5 (it will sink in water)
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What is the specific gravity of gasoline? 0.8 (it will float on water) How many sections are there on the MSDS? 9 A self-contained breathing apparatus has a cylinder charged to a pressure of _______________. 31.03 MPa Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons except: a) efficiency b) labour mobility c) safety d) pollution e) technological advancements pollution Play audio for this term When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect a) serious foaming b) accumulation of very hard scale resulting in tube burnout c) accumulation of soot foaming Committees which establish standards are composed primarily of which of the following elements? a) only experts from the industry and government b) one government appointed standards board c) experts from the industry, professional and insurance groups and all levels of government d) only multi-National power corporations e) one independent safety and standardisation board
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experts from industry, insurance, all levels of government Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to perform? a) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of MORE than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer. b) Take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer. c) Take charge of the general care and operation of a powerplant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant. d) Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer. e) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of not more than 5,000 kW, as shift engineer. A - MORE THAN 10 000 kw as shift engineer The IAO is an organisation who's primary concern is: a) lowering of maintenance costs through standardisation b) lowering of production costs through increased automation c) increase in safety awareness through public education d) lowering of insurance costs through standardisation e) increase in equipment quality through tougher government regulation lowering insurance costs through standardisation A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
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qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of not more than __________ kW, as a shift engineer. 5000 A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more COIL TYPE DRUMLESS boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW, when used for the SOLE PURPOSE of underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer. 10 000 A Fourth Class Power Engineer's Certificate of Competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than__________ kW as CHIEF steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant. 1000 A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more COIL TYPE DRUMLESS boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as CHIEF steam engineer. 5000 Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of thermodynamic temperature? a) m b) mol c) kg d) cd e) K K
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A mole refers to a quantity of: a) Time b) Amount of substance c) Luminous intensity d) Electric current e) Length amount of something The basic unit of mass in the SI system is kilograms kg The basic unit of length in the SI system is metres The basic unit of time in the SI system is sec The basic unit of electrical current in the SI system is ampere Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous intensity? cd One thousand of a base unit is indicated by the prefix: kilo One hundredth of a gram is called a: centigram One million of a base unit is indicated by the prefix mega One millionth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix micro One hundred of a base unit is indicated by the prefix hecto Convert 2,365 cm into kilometres. d) 0.02365 km
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In the SI system force is expressed as N In the SI system capacity (volume) is expressed as a) m/s b) litre per second c) joule d) watt e) litres litres Units of volume in the SI system are: 1. tonnes 2. cubic metres 3. litres 4. dm^3 5. millilitres 6. kilograms 2,3,4,5 A pascal is equal to a) 1 joule b) 1 kg / square cm c) 1 kg / square m d) 1 N / square m e) 1 dyne / square cm 1 N/ m^2 One kilopascal is equal to a) 1 kg / square m b) 1 kN / square m c) 1 bar d) 1 m / s e) 1 kW 1 kN/m^2 The unit of power in the SI system is the watt One watt is equal to 1 joule/second The unit of work in the SI system is the joule One joule per second is equal to
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1 newton-metre/second The base unit for acceleration in the SI system is: meter/second squared One cubic metre is equal to 1000 L 19.90 km/hr is __________ in m/s. 5.5 m/s 3 3 150 cm is equal to __________ in . 9.15 14.7 psi is equal to __________ kPa. 101.3 If a rectangle has two sides measuring 6 m in length and two sides measuring 2 m in length what is the area in square metres? 12 Area = L x W, if L = 15 cm & W = 2 m, then Area = ? 3000 Which of the following is an improper fraction? a) 37/39 b) 6 3/4 c) 65/100 d) 3/2 e) 1/2 d Which of the following is a mixed number?
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a) 32/36 b) 19/5 c) 3 1/5 d) 6/24 e) 35/7 c Convert the following mixed numbers to improper fractions. 2) 4 1/5 = __________ 3) 9 5/7 = __________ ... Evaluate the following fractional problems. (Reduce to lowest terms) 2) 1/2 x 3/7 x 14/15 = __________ 7) 2 1/2 x 7 3/5 x 3 3/5 = __________ ... 95% of 63 litres of gasoline equals: a) 59.85 litres An elastic is stretched by 86% to a length of 5.8 m. Calculate the original length. a) 3.118 m 63 is what percent of 260? d) 24.23% What is the ratio between a mass of 36 kg and 928 L? not possibe bruhh What is the ratio between 75 L and 1.5 L in lowest terms? ... Find the last (x) term of the proportion 8:4 = 26:x
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13 A certain chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 4 parts A, 6 parts B, and 2 parts C. If a 15 kg batch is to be mixed, what quantities in kgs of A, B, and C should be used in the batch? a) A = 5, B = 7.5, and C = 2.5 A chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 9 parts A, 2 parts B and 5 parts C. A 64 kg batch is to be mixed. What quantity of A is required? 36kg Concrete must be mixed with the ratio of 5 parts cement, 3 parts gravel and 4 parts water. If 6 tons of concrete is to be mixed how much gravel is required? 1.5 tons If mass is inversely proportionate to cost then d) as mass increases cost will decrease A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second gear? e) 172.06 r/min If 15 tonnes of coal cost $360, what will 27 tonnes cost at the same rate per tonne? e) 648 If 25 workers can do a piece of work in 30 days, in how many days can 35 workers do the same work? e) 21.43 If bell metal is 25 parts copper to 12 parts tin, what is the
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weight of each in a bell weighing 1850 kg? a) copper = 1,250 kg and tin = 600 kg A gear wheel 330 mm in diameter and revolving at a speed of 200 rpm drives a wheel 150 mm in diameter. What is the speed in rpm of the second gear? e) 440 2 A = (Pi)r is the same as: c) sqr(A/Pi) = r A fathom is which type of measurement? b) Nautical measure Convert 5 miles, 6 yards, 9 feet to metres. c) 8,054.95 m The following is a property of perpendicular lines: d) they form right angles What type of triangle has three sides of equal length? equilateral The sum of the angles of a triangle is: 180 A/An __________ triangle has two side of equal length and a third side that is longer or shorter. isoceles A/An __________ triangle has no two sides or angles equal and no right angle. scalene
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A/An __________ triangle contains an angle greater than 90 degrees. obtuse The following quadrilateral has no sides parallel: trapezium A Rhombus has one side measuring 6 m. What are the lengths of the other 3 sides? 6 Quadrilaterals are figures that have __________ straight sides. 4 sum of the angles of a quadtrilateral 360 A __________ is a four sided figure with the opposite sides parallel, but the angles are not right angles. rhomboid A __________ is a four sided figure in which the four sides are of equal length but the angles are not right angles. rhombus A __________ is a four sided figure having only two sides parallel. trapezoid
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A __________ is a four sided figure having NO two sides parallel. trapezium What is the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 4 cm and height of 6 cm? (include the areas of the ends) c) 100.5 square cm A cylinder has a surface area of 15 square metres (including the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 95 cm. What is the height of the cylinder in metres? d) 4.551 What is the total surface area in square cm of a closed cylinder that is 12 cm high and 3 cm in diameter? d) 127.234 Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is 2 m in diameter and 14 m long. 44 A pressure vessel is in the form of a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere. The vessel operates at 1,100 kPa. If the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m, what is the volume of the pressure vessel? a) 56.55 cubic metres
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The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 4 m and its height is 12 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is 151 ******A tank was three-fourths full of water. After running off 1,000 litres it was one-fifth full. The capacity of the tank in litres is e) 1,818.182 A cast iron ball has a 32 cm radius and a mass of 7.21 grams per cubic cm. The mass in kg is c) 989.63 A positive displacement pump has a 15 cm diameter cylinder and a stroke of 30 cm. How much water in litres will it discharge in 10 minutes if it makes 96 strokes per minute? d) 5,089.4 What is a dynamic body a) a body that is accelerating b) a body that is decelerating d) a body that is moving at a uniform velocity along a straight line e) a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a new direction Any action on a body which tends to change its size, shape or its state of motion is defined as: force
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What is the force of gravity exerted on a person whose mass is 75 kg? d) 735.75 N CHAPTER 34 B If the fuel percentage is below the lower flammable limit, the mixture is said to be? A. Rich B. Lean C. Invisible D. at the auto ignition temperature B The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which A. all molecular vibration will cease B. it will vaporize and burn C. the liquid will burn D. the vapours become inert D Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so as to A. prevent injury to the worker B. prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank C. flush the tank gradually D. reduce the risk of static electricity spark C The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to the A. pyrophoric effect B. static electric charge buildup C. catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface D. temperature of the mixture A The ignition temperature of a fuel/air mixture is the A. lowest temperature at which a mixture will burn
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B. temperature at which it is said to have a lean mixture. C. temperature at which the fuel may gel. D. temperature at which the mixture is above the boiling temperature. C Percentage of the fuel, by volume, in the air/fuel mixture will burn. A. Flash point B. Ignition temperature C. Flammable limit D. None of the above. A What is Methane's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 5.0 to 15.0 % B. 2.2 to 9.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % B What is Propane's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 5.0 to 15.0 % B. 2.2 to 9.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % C What is Butane's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 5.0 to 15.0 % B. 2.2 to 9.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % D What is Gasoline's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 5.0 to 15.0 % B. 2.2 to 9.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % A
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What is Kerosene's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 0.7 to 5.0 % B. 2.2 to 9.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % B What is Hydrogen Sulphide's lower and upper flammable limits? A. 0.7 to 5.0 % B. 4.3 to 45.5 % C. 1.9 to 8.5 % D. 1.1 to 7.5 % B Hydrocarbons will not burn until changed from? A. Liquid state B. Vapour state A What is butane's flash point? A. -60C B. -45C C. 58C D. 49C B What is gasoline's flash point? A. -60C B. -45C C. 58C D. 49C C What is 2-D diesel fuel's flash point? A. -60C B. -45C C. 58C D. 49C D What is Denatured alcohol's flash point? A. -60C B. -45C
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C. 58C D. 49C A Lowest temperature at which a fuel/air mixture will burn or explode. A. Ignition Temperature B. Flash point C. Flammable limit D. None of the above. A What is Methane's Ignition Temperature? A. 650C B. 490C C. 480C D. 295C B What is Propane's Ignition Temperature? A. 650C B. 490C C. 480C D. 295C C What is Natural gasoline's Ignition Temperature? A. 650C B. 490C C. 480C D. 295C D What is Kerosene's Ignition Temperature? A. 650C B. 490C C. 480C D. 295C A What is Fuel oil's Ignition Temperature? A. 340C B. 490C
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C. 480C D. 295C B What is Hydrogen Sulphide's Ignition Temperature? A. 650C B. 260C C. 480C D. 295C C Lowest temperature at which the mixture will spontaneously ignite in a normal atmosphere, without an external source of ignition such as a flame or spark. A. Ignition Temperature B. Flash point C. Autoignition Temperature D. Flammable limit A What is Gasoline's Autoignition Temperature? A. 257C B. 210C C. 571C D. 500C B What is Diesel's Autoignition Temperature? A. 257C B. 210C C. 571C D. 500C B What is Jet Fuel's Autoignition Temperature? A. 257C B. 210C C. 571C D. 500C C What is Hydrogen's Autoignition Temperature? A. 257C B. 210C
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C. 571C D. 500C D What is Butane's Autoignition Temperature? A. 257C B. 210C C. 571C D. 500C A What are the 3 sides to the fire triangle? A. Fuel Vapour, Ignition Source, Oxygen B. Fuel Vapour, Autoignition Source, Oxygen C. Fuel Vapour, Flash Point, Oxygen D. None of the above B Before pouring a flammable liquid from a dispensing container into a receiving container, the containers must be? A. At equal temperatures B. Bonded together C. The same size D. All of the above C Loading a product having a high flash point after a load of a product having a low flash point is called? A. High to low loading B. Flash point loading C. Switch loading D. None of the above D Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids? A. Hand brake and wheels must be chocked on the railway car B. Washing steam should enter the tank slowly to reduce the risk of a spark from static electricity C. Grounding connections must be in good condition D. Trucks don't need to be grounded when the loading spout is inserted.
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A Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids? A. Compartments don't need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load B. To prevent switch loading compartments should be purged with carbon dioxide C. Deflector should be installed on a loading spout D. One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank. B Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids? A. Deflector should be installed on a loading spout B. At least five minutes after loading samples must not be obtained C. One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank. D. Compartments need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load A Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG? A. Truck or Tank car must contain air before being loaded B. Containers must be designed for the right type of LPG product being transported. C. Before loading a check should be made to ensure liquids from a previous load are not present D. LPG containers should never be filled completely. B Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG? A. Outages left in LPG containers must conform to local regulations. B. Loading hoses must be hydro statically tested every two years. C. Container must be not over pressured D. Before loading LPG the correct type of product must be verified B
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Transport tanks carrying LPG should be level before loading and unloading because? A. It is easier to load and unload the LPG B. Ensure relief valve connection is not flooded C. None of the above A Which one is NOT a procedure of Tank Gaugers? A. If hydrogen sulphide might be present, three workers should be assigned to the job B. Tanks should not be gauged when thunderstorms are approaching C. Defects in ladders and stairways should be reported D. Thief ropes or cords, may be allowed in some situations C In gauging procedures allow how much time for the static charge to be reduced after a tank has been filled? A. 10 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 40 minutes D In gauging procedures how much should you open the hatch to allow pressurized vapour to escape? A. 1 cm B. 1.5 cm C. 2 cm D. 2.5 cm A In mobile storage tanks, a vapour space must be left because? A. Liquid expands due to a temperature increase B. Liquid explodes due to a temperature increase C. None of the above D What method is used to determine the quantity loaded into the transport? A. Read the rotary gauge on the side of the tank B. Weighing the unit before and after filling
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C. Using temperature - corrected meters D. All of the above A What is an outage in reference to LPG? A. Space left above the surface of the liquid B. Amount of liquid left C. Temperature of the liquid D. None of the above
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OSHA stands for what of the following? O Organizational Safety and Health Administration O Occupational Safety and Health Administration Occupational Security and Health Administration O Organizational Security and Heat Administration
Give the following and explain from the water treatment system a. Control variables b. Control Variables  c. System inputs d. Manipulated variables  e. Measured system inputs  f. Unmeasured system outputs g. Expected disturbances  h. Constraints that the system could be operating within
True or False 1. Inhalation is the most common way for a chemical to enter the body. 2. The first step of caring for a worker suffering from smoke inhalation is to provide the worker with 100% oxygen. 3. The employer is responsible for developing a written permit space program and ensuring its accessibility to relevant employees and contractors. 4. Even if a smoke inhalation victim is not negatively affected in the short term, symptoms can progress at a later date and lead to illness or even death. 5. According to OSHA, the permissible noise level for an eight hour period is 90 decibels. ******************************************************************************************** Multiple Choice 6. Good ventilation is a key component in controlling workers’ exposure to: A. Airborne pathogens B. Flammable Vapors C. Chemicals D. All answers are correct 7. Which of the following situations would not require a permit? A. Walls join inward B. Contains a hazardous atmosphere C. Limited…
Two techs are discussing oil coolers. Technician A says that when inspecting oil- to-water type coolers, look for mixing of the fluids: oil in the coolant, and coolant in the oil. Technician B says that when inspecting oil-to-air type coolers, look for oil in the coolant only. Who is correct? Select one: a. Technician A b. Technician B c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B
Petroleum production engineering is a subset of petroleum engineering. Petroleum production engineers design and select subsurface equipment to produce oil and gas well fluids. Which impairment or problem in petroleum production concerns a large volume of ground water in the wellbore? a. Loss of permeability b. Blockages of debris c. Emulsion blocks d. Changes in formation wettability
QUESTION An operator working on an operation involving particularly high pressures would likely use which 18f the following cermet material types? POSSIBLE ANSWERS Titanium carbonitride Molybdenum carbide Aluminum oxide Tungsten cobalt
QUESTION 14 Match the following accordingly v First law of thermodynamics A. helps to detect the violation of the second law of thermodynamics. Second law of thermodynamics B. Consider the direction, quality and quantity. c. helps to detect the violation of the first law of thermodynamics. D. accounts for energy conservation in a process E. violates the first law of thermodynamics F. does not violate the first law of thermodynamics A cup of coffe left to cool in a cooler room entropy
19.a. A machine has a coupling that fails once every year and a half. What type of PM task can be created tomake sure that this coupling won’t fail on uptime?A. An electrical PM every six monthsB. An operator PM every yearC. A lubricator PM every eight monthsD. A mechanical PM every year19.b. If mission-critical equipment fails after a PM program is initiated, the best action is toA. install permanent employees to monitor the equipment until the proper maintenance schedule can be created.B. become a critic of the program until changes are made.C. modify the inspection and maintenance schedules to lower the failures.D. double the inspection schedule.19.c. Who is often overlooked as an important source of information and should be asked about PMmaintenance tasks in the program?A. Purchasing departmentB. Computer specialistsC. Machine operatorsD. outside contractors
Problem- Cargo ships can cause a lot of air pollution.Solution-  to use nuclear powered ships since they hold a lot of energy and can travel for long distances. How it will work is that it will need a nuclear reactor at the bottom of the boat to heat up the water and then turn it to electricity to power the boat. The boat will be made out of graphene which is a tough material to avoid any leaks in the boat. It will also contain many control rods because nuclear power is so powerful that it can create to much energy to handle. With control rods, you can slow down this process and keep it in a controlled manner. Since cargo ships are already is the ocean, there will be no need for any extra materials to make it work. -Do you think this will work? Why/Why not?  -What do you think is wrong with it/ How can this be improved? Please send this to someone else I need to record 50 responses for a science project. Thank you!
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