Practice Qs for Quiz 3

Question 11 A 45-year-old female has persistent red, raised scars following surgery. Histologically, these scars are characterized by vertically oriented blood vessels. What is the term for this type of scar formation? A) Hypertrophic scar B) Keloid C) Wound dehiscence D) Chronic ulcer E) Fibrosis Question 12 In the innate immune response, which cell type uses Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) like PAMPs and opsonin receptors to identify pathogens? A) Dendritic cells B) CD4 helper T cells C) Neutrophils D) Natural killer cells E) Mast cells Question 13 Which of the following signaling pathways in phagocytosis is responsible for promoting inflammation by transcribing inflammatory cytokines? A) IRF-3 & 7 B) Type 1 Interferons C) NF-kB D) Fas/FasL apoptosis system E) Toll-like receptors (TLRs) Question 14 A young girl presents with recurrent bacterial infections and an immunologic workup reveals a deficiency in some complement proteins. Which deficiency is associated with an increased risk for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)? A) C5-C9 B) C1-C4 C) Factor B D) Factor D E) C3 convertase Question 15 Which receptor on phagocytic cells recognizes the lipopolysaccharide of Gram-negative bacteria? A) TLR-2 B) TLR-3 C) TLR-4 D) NOD-like receptor E) Fas receptor

Question 25: What is the function of fibronectin in connective tissue? A) Provides tensile strength B) Attracts water C) Acts as a phagocyte D) Anchors cells to the ECM E) Releases heat Question 26: In which tissue will you find specialized gelatinous ground substance called "Wharton's jelly"? A) Mesenchymal B) Mucous C) Dense Regular D) Dense Irregular E) Loose Question 28: A patient presents with a condition affecting his subcutaneous layer, thermal insulation, and shock absorption capabilities. Which type of adipose tissue is primarily involved? A. Multilocular/brown fat B. Unilocular/white fat C. Mesenchymal D. Mucous E. Loose (Areolar) Question 29: Which type of connective tissue, primarily found in the dermis of the skin, provides strength in multiple directions due to its irregular arrangement? A. Dense Regular B. Dense Irregular C. Loose (Areolar) D. Mesenchymal E. Mucous Question 30: A sample of connective tissue shows a network of small, hair-like structures interwoven with collagen. These structures contribute primarily to which function of the tissue? A. Production of heparin and histamine B. Storing energy as triglycerides C. Resistance to tension and stretch D. Providing elasticity E. Supporting organ functionality

Question 41 A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic for an annual check-up. Physical examination shows age spots and wrinkles on her skin. Which of the following cell types is responsible for protecting the skin from UV radiation? A. Keratinocytes B. Langerhans Cells C. Melanocytes D. Merkel Cells E. Fibroblasts Question 42 Which type of dermal cell is primarily involved in skin homeostasis and immunosurveillance? A. Mast Cells B. Fibroblasts C. Macrophages D. B Lymphocytes E. Merkel Cells Question 43 Which cell type in the epidermis has phagocytic function? A. Langerhans Cells B. Melanocytes C. Merkel Cells D. Keratinocytes E. Fibroblasts Question 44 A patient experiences a superficial cut on their forearm. Which layer of the epidermis is first affected? A. Stratum Corneum B. Stratum Lucidum C. Stratum Granulosum D. Stratum Spinosum E. Stratum Basale Question 45 Which component of the pilosebaceous unit is responsible for causing hair to stand on end, producing "goosebumps"? A. Hair shaft B. Hair follicle C. Arrector pili muscle D. Sebaceous gland E. None of the above

Question 56: Which of the following factors would promote antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)? A) High-affinity binding of FcgR to IgM B) Low-affinity binding of FcgR to IgG C) High-affinity binding of FcgR to IgG D) High-affinity binding of FceR to IgE E) Low-affinity binding of FceR to IgE Question 57: A patient suffering from Omenn syndrome would most likely have mutations in which of the following genes? A) TP53 B) RAG-1 and RAG-2 C) BTK D) IL-2RG E) JAK3 Question 58: Which of the following antibody isotypes is predominantly found on mucosal surfaces? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM Question 59 : During the primary immune response, which immunoglobulin is first formed? A) IgA B) IgM C) IgD D) IgG E) IgE Question 60: A laboratory test measures the levels of antibodies against a specific pathogen in a patient's blood. This test is known as: A) Rapid antigen test B) Titer C) Immunodiagnostic D) ADCC E) Serology

Question 70: A laboratory test indicates that a bacterial isolate has an MIC of 8 mg/L for a given antibiotic. What does this signify? A) The antibiotic is bacteriostatic against the isolate. B) The antibiotic is ineffective against the isolate. C) The antibiotic will kill the isolate if the concentration is above 8 mg/L. D) The lowest concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit the isolate’s growth is 8 mg/L. E) The antibiotic is bactericidal against the isolate. Question 71 An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with Methicillin-Sensitive Staphylococcus Aureus (MSSA) skin infection. What would be the first choice treatment option for this patient? A) Vancomycin B) Nafcillin C) Cephalexin D) Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid E) Ceftaroline Question 72 In patients with G6PD deficiency, which of the following drugs poses a risk for hemolytic anemia? A) Daptomycin B) Vancomycin C) Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim D) Ampicillin E) Cephalexin Question 73 Which drug is often combined with Ampicillin to extend its effectiveness by inhibiting beta-lactamase? A) Nafcillin B) penicillin C) Clavulanic Acid D) Cerftriaxone E) Dicloxacillin Question 74 What is the key mechanism of action for peptide cell wall synthesis inhibitors like Vancomycin? A) Binds to D-Ala-D-Ala in the peptidoglycan chain B) Inhibits transglycosylase C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B E) Inhibits beta-lactamase

Question 84: Which of the following virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus binds antibodies in an incorrect orientation, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis? A) Enterotoxins B) Protein A C) Exfoliative Toxins D) MSCRAMMs E) Superantigens Question 86: A 10-year-old girl presents with a sandpaper rash and 'strawberry' tongue. Which of the following diseases is she most likely suffering from? A) Pharyngotonsillitis B) Cellulitis C) Scarlet fever D) Rheumatic fever E) Glomerulonephritis Question 85: Which of the following Staphylococcus aureus virulence factors is responsible for causing Staphylococcal Scalded-Skin Syndrome (SSSS)? A) Protein A B) MSCRAMMs C) Exfoliative Toxins D) Enterotoxins E) Superantigens Question 86: An elderly patient is hospitalized with a severe, systemic illness characterized by high fever, hypotension, and a rash. This condition can lead to multi-organ failure in severe cases. Which toxin is most likely responsible? A) Enterotoxins B) Exfoliative Toxins C) Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) D) Protein A E) MSCRAMMs Question 87 A 35-year-old female presents with flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on her cheeks. What is the likely diagnosis? A) Acne vulgaris B) Rosacea C) Nodulocystic acne D) Acne fulminans E) Pressure ulcer

Directed Study Based Questions: Question 1 A 42-year-old woman is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer. The medication she is taking primarily targets which cytoskeletal component to inhibit cell division? A. Microfilaments B. Intermediate filaments C. Microtubules D. Nuclear Lamins E. Tropomyosin Question 2 In a sample of epithelial cells from the intestinal brush border, you would expect to find an abundance of which type of cytoskeletal structure? A. Microvilli B. Intermediate filaments C. Microtubules D. Nuclear Lamins E. Globular head of myosin Question 3 What energy source is needed for the polymerization of microtubules? A. ATP B. GTP C. ADP D. No energy source needed E. NADH Question 4 A 36-year-old man is diagnosed with a rare muscle disorder. Molecular investigation reveals a defect in the proteins that form bundles to resist stretching. What is the most likely affected protein? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Tubulin D. Keratins E. Nuclear Lamins Question 5 Which cytoskeletal components do NOT have polarity? A. Microfilaments B. Intermediate filaments C. Microtubules D. Both Microfilaments and Microtubules E. Both Intermediate filaments and Microtubules

Question 6 What is the primary role of the light chain in the myosin tetramer? A. ATP hydrolysis B. Binding to actin C. Controls globular head contraction D. Formation of cross bridges E. Dimerization of heavy chains Question 7 In microtubules, which subunit is responsible for hydrolyzing GTP? A. α-tubulin B. β-tubulin C. Both α-tubulin and β-tubulin D. Neither α-tubulin nor β-tubulin E. Tropomyosin Question 8 What happens to Lamins A and C during prophase? A. They are phosphorylated and remain bound to the nuclear membrane. B. They are dephosphorylated and released into the cytoplasm. C. They are phosphorylated and released into the cytoplasm. D. They are dephosphorylated and remain bound to vesicles. E. They form a meshwork on the nucleoplasmic face of the nuclear envelope. Question 9: Which of the following cytoskeleton filaments uses ATP for polymerization? A. Intermediate filaments B. Microtubules C. Microfilaments D. Nuclear Lamins E. None of the above Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of intermediate filaments? A. They have a polarity. B. They undergo coil-coil interactions to form dimers. C. No ATP or GTP hydrolysis is required for their assembly. D. They create a meshwork that resists compression and stretching. E. Keratins are a type of intermediate filament.

Question 11: During a lecture on cell biology, a student inquires about the nature of microfilament assembly. Which of the following best describes this process? A. G actin subunits polymerize into double helical F actin filaments, catalyzed by ATP hydrolysis. B. Polymerization of α-tubulin and β-tubulin heterodimers at the "+" end and depolymerization at the "-" end. C. Coil-coil interactions of monomers forming dimers, which aggregate into protofilaments and then intermediate filaments. D. Assembly is bilaterally polar with tails towards the middle and heads pointing towards the ends. E. 13 protofilaments assemble around the periphery to form a hollow microtubule. Question 12: In cancer diagnosis, the expression levels of specific parts of which cytoskeletal component can be used due to their specificity and variability? A. Microfilaments B. Microvilli C. Microtubules D. Intermediate filaments E. Nuclear Lamins Question 13 A 45-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and wheezing. He is diagnosed with emphysema. Which of the following is most likely affecting the degradation of extracellular matrix in this patient's lungs? A) α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency B) Scurvy C) Marfan Syndrome D) Fibrosis E) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome Question 18 A 32-year-old female presents with easy bruising and hypermobility of the joints. Molecular studies reveal an underproduction of collagen. This patient most likely has: A) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome B) Marfan Syndrome C) Scurvy D) α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency E) Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Question 19 Which amino acid is found every 3rd residue in the structure of collagen, allowing left helix formation? A) Proline B) Lysine C) Glycine D) Aspartic acid E) Phenylalanine Question 20 Which of the following is the most abundant glycosaminoglycan that provides turgor and serves as a lubricant by increasing viscosity? A) Heparin B) Hyaluronan C) Heparan sulfate D) Aggrecan E) Chondroitin sulfate Question 21 A 55-year-old woman complains of joint pain and swelling in her knee. Radiography reveals degenerative changes in her knee cartilage. Which proteoglycan is essential in resisting compression forces in knee cartilage? A) Aggrecan B) Fibronectin C) Laminin D) Heparan sulfate E) Collagen type II Question 22 A 3-year-old boy presents with poor wound healing, swollen gums, and petechiae. Which of the following is deficient in his condition? A) Fibrillin B) Ascorbic acid C) α1-Antitrypsin D) Fibronectin E) Elastin Question 24 Which enzyme is involved in crosslinking tropocollagen triple helices? A) Hydroxyproline B) Lysyl oxidase C) Heparanase D) Collagenase E) Elastase

Question 25: An 8-month-old infant is brought in by his mother due to recurrent fractures. X-rays reveal bone fragility. Which amino acid substitution is most likely responsible for the child's condition? A. Proline for glycine B. Glycine for proline C. Glycine for a Phenylalanine D. Lysine for proline E. Proline for lysine Question 26 A 23-year-old male presents with severe acne and thickening of the skin on the face and back. A skin biopsy shows excessive collagen deposition. This condition is termed: A) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome B) Fibrosis C) Marfan Syndrome D) Scurvy E) α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency Question 27 Which junctional complex allows the diffusion of small molecules between adjacent cells and has no filament attachment? A) Tight Junctions B) Gap Junctions C) Belt Desmosomes D) Spot Desmosomes E) Hemidesmosomes Question 28 In Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy, mutations in which gene lead to damage in membranes due to repeated buckling, eventually leading to muscular degeneration? A) Dystrophin gene B) Collagen gene C) Laminin gene D) Fibronectin gene E) α1-Antitrypsin gene Question 29 Which protein ties muscle cell sarcomeres to their plasma membrane and ECM? A) Dystrophin B) Ankyrin C) Cadherins D) Connexins E) Integrins

Question 30 Which of the following junctions allows the cells to create contractile forces across a stratum and is important in wound healing? A) Hemidesmosomes B) Belt Desmosomes C) Focal Adhesions D) Gap Junctions E) Spot Desmosomes Question 31 Which cellular junction consists of integrins linked to a microfilament stress fiber (actomyosin) through adaptor proteins? A) Focal Adhesions B) Gap Junctions C) Belt Desmosomes D) Tight Junctions E) Hemidesmosomes Question 31: A 26-year-old female presents to the emergency room with severe pain and fever. She has multiple skin lesions that are hemorrhagic vesicles that become necrotic ulcers with erythematous borders. Which of the following skin conditions is she most likely suffering from? A) Impetigo B) Ecthyma Gangrenosum C) Erysipelas D) Abscess E) Cellulitis Question 33: In erysipelas, what is the recommended treatment for an infection caused mainly by beta-hemolytic Streptococci? A) Penicillin; amoxicillin; ceftriaxone B) Cephalexin, dicloxacillin, clindamycin C) TMP-SMX or doxycycline, clindamycin D) Clindamycin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole E) Dicloxacillin and cephalexin Question 34: What is the most common treatment for a localized collection of pus (abscess) caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A) Antibiotics in addition to drainage B) Penicillin; amoxicillin; ceftriaxone C) Cephalexin, dicloxacillin, clindamycin D) TMP-SMX or doxycycline, clindamycin E) Dicloxacillin and cephalexin

Question 35: A 29-year-old patient presents with redness, swelling, and warmth over the left leg. The culture is positive for methicillin- sensitive organisms. Which of the following is the best treatment? A) Clindamycin B) Cephalexin C) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole D) Amoxicillin E) TMP-SMX Question 36: Which pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa acts as a siderophore, binding iron for bacterial use? A) Pyocyanin B) Hemoglobin C) Pyoverdine D) Biliverdin E) Melanin Question 37: A cluster of inflamed, pus-filled hair follicles is most consistent with which of the following conditions? A) Furuncles B) Bullous impetigo C) Carbuncles D) Abscess E) Ecthyma gangrenosum Question 38: Which of the following virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces reactive oxygen species damaging host cells? A) Pyoverdine B) Pyocyanin C) Exotoxin A D) AB Toxin E) Alginate exopolysaccharide Question 39: Which of the following infections primarily involves a single, inflamed, pus-filled hair follicle? A) Ecthyma Gangrenosum B) Furuncles C) Bullous impetigo D) Abscess E) Carbuncles Question 40: cWhich of the following describes a key feature of the AB toxin produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) The A subunit binds to the host cell B) The A subunit has enzymatic activity that disrupts cellular processes C) The B subunit has enzymatic activity that disrupts cellular processes D) The B subunit binds to the host cell and has enzymatic activity E) Both subunits work primarily outside the host cell

Answer Key: Lecture Based D/S based Question 1: C. Folate Question 2: C. Encapsulated bacteria Question 3: C. Antigen presentation Question 4: C. Mast Cells Question 5: C. M2 Question 6: B. Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cells Question 7: B. Thoracic duct Question 8: B) Bradykinin Question 9: A) Reactive oxygen species (ROS) Question 10: A) CD59 Question 11: A) hypertrophic scar Question 12: C) Neutrophils Question 13: C) NF-kB Question 14: B) C1-C4 Question 15: C) TLR-4 Question 16: D) Type 1 Interferons Question 17: B) Chronic Granulomatous Disease Question 18: D) Wound Dehiscence Question 19: B) Fasiacyte Question 20: B) Multilocular Adipose Question 21: B) Fibroblasts Question 22: E) Organs in general Question 23: D) Glycosaminoglycans Question 24: A) Dense Regular Question 25: D) Anchors cells to the ECM Question 26: B) Mucous Question 28: B. Unilocular/white fat Question 29: B. Dense Irregular Question 30: D. Providing elasticity Question 31: B) Secretion of mucins Question 32: B) Transitional Question 33: D) Holocrine Question 34: B) Dysplasia Question 35: C) Microvilli Question 36: C) Diffusion from nearby blood vessels in the connective tissue Question 37: C) Pseudostratified Question 38: B) Stereocilia Question 39: A) Keratinization Question 40: B) Stratum Spinosum Question 41: C) Melanocytes Question 42: D) B-lymphocytes Question 43: A) Langerhans Cells Question 44: A) Stratum Corneum Question 45: C) Arrector pili muscle Question 46: C) Melanocytes Question 47: C) Stratum Lucidum Question 48: C) Sebaceous Glands Question 49: C) Stratum Granulosum Question 50: D) Merkel Cells Question 51: C) Hypodermis Question 52: C) RAG-1 and RAG-2 Question 53: C) Somatic recombination Question 54: C) IgE Question 55: B) B cell malignancy Question 56: C) High-affinity binding of FcgR to IgG Question 57: B) RAG-1 and RAG-2 Question 58: A) IgA Question 59: B) IgM Question 60: B) titer Question 61: E) Natural Killer cells Question 62: A) Epitope Question 63: D) IgG Question 64: C) Defense against pathogen invasion on mucosal surfaces Question 65: B) No functional B cells Question 66: B) IgM Question 67: C) Marginal zone and B-1 cells Question 68: D) Receptor editing in the thymus Question 69: A) Increases expression of MHC II, CCR7, B7 Question 70: C) Empirical therapy Question 70: D) The lowest concentration of the antibiotic required to inhibit the isolate’s growth is 8 mg/L Question 71: B) Nafcillin Question 72: C) Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim Question 73: C) clavulanic acid Question 74: C) Both A and B Question 75: D) Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim Question 76: C) Topical application only Question 77: A) They inhibit enzyme transpeptidase Question 78: D) Daptomycin Question 79: A) Oxygen deficiency Question 80: B) Streptokinase Question 81: D) Both A and C Question 82: A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus Question 82: C) M protein Question 83: A) Staphylococcus epidermidis Question 84: B) Protein A Question 86: C) Scarlet fever Question 85: C) Exfoliative Toxins Question 86: C) Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) Question 87: B) Rosacea Question 88: D) A and C Question 89: C) Oral isotretinoin Question 90: C) Antibacterial and comedolytic Question 91: C) Circumscribed Non-Scarring Alopecia Question 92: E) All of the above Question 93: B) Demodex mites Question 94: B) Mild to moderate (stage 2) Question 95: B) Dihydrotestosterone Question 96: B) Circumscribed Non-Scarring Alopecia Question 98: D) Oral isotretinoin Question 1: C. Microtubules Question 2: A. Microvilli Question 3: B. GTP Question 4: D. Keratins Question 5: B. Intermediate filaments Question 6: E. Dimerization of heavy chains Question 7: B. β-tubulin Question 8: C. They are phosphorylated and released into the cytoplasm. Question 9: C. Microfilaments Question 10: A. They have a polarity. Question 11: A. G actin subunits polymerize into double helical F actin filaments, catalyzed by ATP hydrolysis. Question 12: D. Intermediate filaments Question 13: A) α1-Antitrypsin Deficiency Question 18: A) Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome Question 19: C) Glycine Question 20: B) Hyaluronan Question 21: A) Aggrecan Question 22: B) Ascorbic acid Question 24: B) Lysyl oxidase Question 25: A. Proline for glycine Question 26: B) Fibrosis Question 27: B) Gap Junctions Question 28: A) Dystrophin gene Question 29: A) Dystrophin Question 30: E) Spot Desmosomes Question 31: A) Focal Adhesions Question 31: B) Ecthyma Gangrenosum Question 33: A) Penicillin; amoxicillin; ceftriaxone Question 34: A) Antibiotics in addition to drainage Question 35: B) Cephalexin Question 36: C) Pyoverdine Question 37: C) Carbuncles Question 38: B) Pyocyanin Question 39: B) Furuncles Question 40: B) The A subunit has enzymatic activity that disrupts cellular processes