Practice exam #3

A) Contains a defined nucleus B) Ribosome size of 80S C) Lacks membrane-bound organelles D) Requires a membrane-bound mitochondria for the electron transport chain E) Mainly replicate through mitosis Question 12: A 45-year-old farmer presents with muscle rigidity and lockjaw. On examination, a deep puncture wound is noted on his foot. A gram-positive bacterium that can survive in harsh conditions due to its ability to form a specific resistant structure is suspected. This structure is: A) Biofilm B) Endospore C) Encapsulation D) Periplasm E) Teichoic acid Question 13: A patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection. The lab report indicates the bacteria are Gram-positive. Which feature would you NOT expect to find in these bacteria? A) Thick peptidoglycan layer B) Teichoic acids C) Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide D) Susceptibility to lysozyme E) Presence of 70S ribosomes Question 14: A clinical researcher is studying bacterial metabolism. He comes across a bacterium that breaks down organic molecules without the use of oxygen. This process is known as: A) Respiration B) Oxidation C) Fermentation D) Electron Transport Chain E) Sporulation Question 15: A patient with a suspected bacterial infection has a culture taken. The lab identifies bacteria that can grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen. This type of bacteria is termed: A) Aerobes B) Anaerobes C) Obligate intracellular D) Facultative E) Obligate extracellular Question 16: A 34-year-old male presents to the clinic with a rash, fever, and joint pain. He mentions he recently traveled to a tropical region. Upon further investigation, you discover that the region he visited has a constant presence of a certain mosquito- borne disease. This disease is most likely:

C. 25% D. 30% E. 0.25% Question 28: In a recent outbreak of Disease C in a country, 400 people were infected. At the end of the outbreak, 40 of these patients died. Calculate the case-fatality rate for Disease C during this outbreak. A. 0.1% B. 1% C. 10% D. 40% E. 4% Question 29: In a town with a population of 20,000 people, 100 individuals developed Disease D in 2022. At the end of the year, it was found that there were 150 total cases of Disease D in the town. Calculate the prevalence of Disease D for that year. A. 0.5% B. 5% C. 7.5% D. 0.75% E. 75% A researcher wishes to summarize the characteristics of a specific group of patients' weights without making predictions about the larger population. Which type of statistics is most appropriate for this purpose? A) Bar Graphs B) Histograms C) Descriptive Statistics D) Inferential Statistics E) Standard Deviation Question 31: A medical student is comparing blood types among his peers. Which type of variable is blood type? A) Ordinal B) Continuous C) Nominal D) Discrete E) Symmetric Question 32: A physician observes a distribution of systolic blood pressures in her patients where most values are high, but there's a tail on the left side. This distribution is best described as: A) Right Skewed B) Left Skewed C) Symmetric D) Standard Normal Distribution E) 95% Confidence Interval Question 33: In a clinical trial, researchers find a difference in mean blood pressures between two treatment groups to be 5 mmHg with a standard error of 2 mmHg. What is the 95% Confidence Interval for the difference in means? A) (1, 9)

Question 45: A new study finds a difference in the mean blood pressure between two groups. The calculated 95% confidence interval for this difference is (-2, 8). Which of the following statements is correct regarding the difference between these two groups? A. It is statistically significant, and there is a difference between the groups. B. It is not statistically significant as the interval includes 0. C. The blood pressure of the first group is always lower than the second. D. The p-value for this difference will definitely be less than 0.05. E. None of the above. Question 46: If a researcher sets an alpha level of 0.01 and finds a p-value of 0.008, what should be concluded regarding the null hypothesis? A. Fail to reject H0 B. Cannot decide based on the information C. Reject H0 D. There is a 0.8% chance that H0 is true E. There is a 0.01% chance that Ha is true Question 47: In the context of hypothesis testing, what error is being made if a new drug is deemed effective based on a study, but in reality, it isn’t? A. Type I error B. Type II error C. Alpha error D. Beta error E. Power error Question 48: A clinician is interested in identifying an organism that has a unique polysaccharide capsule. Which of the following staining methods would be most appropriate to visualize this feature? A) Gram Stain B) Acid-fast Stain C) India ink D) Lactophenol blue E) KOH Question 49: Which of the following microscopy techniques would be best for visualizing subcellular components? A) Darkfield B) Brightfield C) Electron D) Phase-contrast E) Fluorescent Question 50: A laboratory technician prepares a specimen and after observation, identifies rod-shaped pink/red bacteria. The technician likely used:

D. Convert its genome into dsDNA using reverse transcriptase E. Form a dsDNA intermediate in the host cell Question 62: A toddler presents to the clinic with vesicular lesions around the mouth. He had a similar episode six months ago. The mother reports that the lesions resolved on their own last time but have now reappeared. The child's condition is an example of which type of infection? A. Acute infection B. Chronic infection C. Latent infection D. Slow infection E. Cytolytic infection Question 63: A man who recently received a mosquito bite while traveling abroad presents with fever and joint pain. Which route of viral transmission is likely responsible for his symptoms? A. Fecal-oral B. Bloodborne C. Respiratory D. Sexual E. Vector Question 64: A pregnant woman is concerned about transmitting a viral infection to her unborn child. Which component of her immune system primarily works to produce virus-specific antibodies against this infection? A. NK Cells B. CD8+ (Cytotoxic) T Cells C. CD4+ (Helper) T Cells D. B Cells E. Phagocytes Question 65: An immunocompromised patient is susceptible to a variety of infections. Which of the following viral pathophysiological processes directly diminishes the immune cells? A. Cytolytic B. Immune Damage C. Transformation D. Immunosuppression E. Latency & Reactivation Question 66: A 52-year-old male with a history of unprotected sexual encounters is diagnosed with a virus that shows a long incubation period followed by a slow progression. Which of the following infections best describes this patient's condition? A. Acute infection B. Chronic infection C. Latent infection D. Slow infection E. Cytolytic infection

A) Marker Rescue B) Conjugation C) Transduction D) Transformation E) Recombination Question 78: A research scientist observes a bacterial cell uptake free DNA from its environment. This process is known as: A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Transposition D) Conjugation E) Reassortment Question 79: A bacterium is capable of transferring its fertility factor through a pilus to another bacterium. The donor bacterial cell is termed: A) Hfr B) F- C) F+ D) Transposon E) Operator Question 80: An undergraduate student is learning about bacterial gene regulation. She learns that certain nucleotide sequences contain one or more genes and their control elements. This sequence is known as: A) Promoter B) Operator C) Operon D) Transposon E) Conjugation site Question 81: In the context of lactose metabolism in bacteria, which scenario describes a situation where an inducer binds to the repressor, allowing transcription, and the CAP activator is also bound due to high cAMP levels? A) Repressor on operator. B) Presence of lactose and glucose. C) With lactose but no glucose. D) Without lactose. E) Presence of glucose but no lactose. Question 82: Which genetic mechanism in bacteria involves the movement of DNA sequences within a genome? A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Conjugation D) Marker Rescue E) Transposition

A) High internal validity, Low external validity B) Low internal validity, High external validity C) High internal and external validity D) Low internal and external validity E) Neither internal nor external validity Question 95: Which type of evidence focuses on disease processes, pathology, and often uses surrogate markers, like lab values, as endpoints? A) POEM B) DOE C) Patient-oriented evidence D) Clinical manifestations E) Prognosis-oriented evidence Question 96: A 20-year-old patient prefers to have his medical consultation through video call rather than visiting the clinic. Which generation does he most likely belong to? A) Gen X B) Gen Z C) Silent Generation D) Boomers E) Gen Y Question 97: When tailoring healthcare responses based on understanding and respecting the patient's cultural background, this is an example of: A) Cultural Response B) Ethnocentrism C) Disease Orientation D) Cultural Competence E) Social Determinants of Health Question 98: The difference in health achievements among various communities due to socio-economic factors is termed as: A) Health B) Equity C) Inequality D) Inequity E) Cultural Competence Question 99 : A patient's personal experience of feeling unwell, as opposed to a physiological disorder, is termed as: A) Disease B) Illness C) Cultural Response D) Symptom E) Pathogenesis

A. Physiologic apoptosis B. Pathologic apoptosis due to fatal DNA damage C. Physiologic necrosis D. Pathologic necrosis due to enzyme deficiency E. Hyperplasia Question 111: A researcher wants to achieve a steady-state concentration of a drug that follows first-order kinetics. After how many half-lives will the concentration be more than 95% of the final concentration? A. 1 half-life B. 3 half-lives C. 2 half-lives D. 5 half-lives E. 7 half-lives Question 112: A drug has a volume of distribution (Vd) of 40L and a clearance (CL) of 8L/hr. What is the half-life of the drug? A. 3.47 hours B. 5.25 hours C. 6.39 hours D. 8.56 hours E. 10.92 hours Question 113: Which of the following factors will result in a longer drug half-life? A. Increased volume of distribution B. Decreased clearance C. A and B D. Neither A nor B E. Decreased drug dose Question 114: In a patient with reduced renal function leading to a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 60 ml/min, how should the maintenance dose be adjusted? A. decrease the dose by ½. B. Double the dose C. Maintain the same dose D. Quarter the dose E. Give three-quarters of the dose Question 115: A drug is administered orally with a desired steady state concentration of 20mg/L. The drug has a clearance of 5L/hr, a dosing interval (T) of 8 hours, and a bioavailability of 0.7. What is the appropriate maintenance dose? A. 100 mg B. 114 mg C. 128 mg D. 145 mg E. 160 mg

Question 116: A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The physician wants to start him on a drug and instructs you to calculate the loading dose. If the desired plasma concentration is 2 mg/L, volume of distribution is 30 L, and bioavailability is 90%, what would be the appropriate loading dose? A) 45 mg B) 60 mg C) 66.7 mg D) 70 mg E) 75 mg Question 117: Given a drug with a maintenance dose rate of 5 mg/hr and a half-life of 8 hours, what dose would achieve steady-state conditions if the volume of distribution is 40L and desired plasma concentration is 0.1 mg/L? A) 4 mg B) 5 mg C) 6 mg D) 8 mg E) 10 mg Question 118: A 35-year-old man who weighs 70 kg is prescribed a medication for hypertension. The therapeutic concentration is 5 mg/L, and the volume of distribution is 0.5 L/kg. If the bioavailability is 80%, what will be the loading dose required? A. 175 mg B. 220 mg C. 350 mg D. 438 mg E. 500 mg Question 119: A 35-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe agitation, tremors, and confusion. She is known to have epilepsy and has been on long-term antiepileptic medication. The treating physician wants to attain a therapeutic level of a new antiepileptic drug. The drug's clearance is known to be 20 mL/min and its desired steady-state concentration for IV administration is 5 mg/mL. What should be the maintenance dose for IV administration? A. 50 mg/min B. 100 mg/min C. 200 mg/min D. 400 mg/min E. 500 mg/min Question 120: A new medication is administered to a 50-year-old male. The initial plasma concentration of the drug is found to be 20 mg/mL. If the volume of distribution for the drug is 4L, how much of the drug was administered? A. 10 mg B. 40 mg C. 80 mg D. 160 mg E. 320 mg Question 121:

A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication. The physician wants to quickly attain therapeutic levels. The desired plasma concentration at time 0 is 15 mg/mL and the drug's Vd is 3L. If the bioavailability of the drug is 0.9, what should be the oral loading dose? A. 20 mg B. 45 mg C. 50 mg D. 55 mg E. 60 mg Question 122: A 32-year-old male is started on a medication known to follow first-order kinetics. Which of the following best describes the elimination of this drug? A. The drug is eliminated at a constant amount per unit time. B. The rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration. C. The drug is eliminated based on its solubility. D. The half-life of the drug increases as more drug is administered. E. The clearance of the drug remains constant regardless of its plasma concentration. Question 123: Which of the following drugs is primarily eliminated by zero-order kinetics? A. Warfarin B. Aspirin at high doses C. Digoxin D. Theophylline at therapeutic doses E. Penicillin Question 124 : A clinician is monitoring the serum levels of a drug that follows first-order kinetics. After multiple doses, she notes that the time required for the serum concentration to decrease by half remains constant. This observation refers to the drug's: A. Volume of distribution B. Clearance C. Zero-order rate D. Steady state E. Half-life Question 125 : A 60-year-old man with a history of seizures is managed with phenytoin, a drug that at high concentrations follows zero- order kinetics. Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs that display zero-order kinetics? A. Doubling the dose will double the rate of elimination. B. Small increases in dose can lead to disproportionately large increases in blood concentration. C. They have a constant and predictable half-life. D. The elimination rate decreases as the drug concentration decreases. E. The drug will be 100% eliminated after a fixed period of time.

Answer Key: 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. E 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. E 43. C 44. C 45. C 46. C 47. a 48. C 49. C 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. B 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. B 62. C 63. E 64. D 65. D 66. D 67. D 68. D 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. A 79. C 80. C 81. C 82. E 83. D 84. D 85. B 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. C 91. C 92. A 93. E 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. D 98. C 99. B 100. A 101. C 102. D 103. C 104. A 105. E 106. C 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. D 112. A 113. C 114. A 115. B 116. C 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. D 121. E 122. B 123. B 124. E 125.

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