1014MSC QB 4 Questions

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Quiz Buster 4 1014MSC: Cells, Tissues & Regulation Trimester 2 2023 Instructions: 1. This practice exam contains 50 questions, including a mix of MCQ, SAQ, T/F, fill in the blank & matching activities. 2. You have 60 minutes to complete the exam buster. 3. Each question is worth 1 mark each. 4. Attempt all questions and choose only one option per multiple choice question. 5. Read each question and then choose the best or most correct answer. Please note that this exam buster does not necessarily represent the format or the types of questions that you will meet in your official exam. It has been prepared by your PASS leaders who are not privy to the official exam and is simply offered as a revision tool.

2 1. In homeostasis, what is the role of negative feedback mechanisms? a) Amplify deviations from the set point b) Maintain deviations from the set point c) Reduce deviations from the set point d) Ignore deviations from the set point 2. In a thermostat-controlled heating system, if the temperature in a room rises above the set point, what will the thermostat do? a) Decrease the heater's output b) Increase the heater's output c) Maintain the heater's output d) Shut off the heater completely 3. In a negative feedback loop, what is the role of the effector? a) To detect deviations from the set point b) To transmit information to the sensor c) To initiate corrective responses to counteract deviations from the set point d) To set the initial conditions of the system 4. Oscillation about a set-point for homeostatic variables occurs: a) In all non-biological and all biological homeostatic systems b) Only in artificial or non-biological homeostatic systems c) Only in biological systems that are poorly controlled d) Only in biological system that are well controlled 5. Set point is the value toward which the system is returned if a disturbance is detected. a) True b) False 6. Calculate the gain of the following systems and determine which is a more efficient homeostatic system: System 1: Callum, who generally has a temperature of 37°C, went to a sauna where his temperature was expected to rise to 40°C, although his temperature only rose to 37.4°C System 2: Beth, who generally has a temperature of 36.8°C, also went to the same sauna where her body temperature was expected to rise to 40°C, although her temperature only rose to 37°C a) Gain 1 = 6.5; Gain 2 = 15; System 2 is a more effective homeostatic system b) Gain 1 = 7.5; Gain 2 = 15; System 1 is a more effective homeostatic system c) Gain 1 = 6.5; Gain 2 = 16; System 1 is a more effective homeostatic system d) Gain 1 = 7.5; Gain 2 = 16; System 2 is a more effective homeostatic system

3 7. What is the recommended course of action for someone with hyperpyrexia? a) Immersion in ice-cold bath b) Immersion in hot bath c) Immersion in lukewarm bath d) Eat some ice 8. Briefly describe the thermoregulatory role of the following structures observed in the epidermis: erector pili muscles, sweat glands, hypodermal adipose tissue, superficial blood vessels, and naked nerve endings. Erector pili muscle: contract in response to cold or emotional stress, causing hair follicles to stand upright, trapping an insulating layer of air close to the skins. Sweat glands: produce sweat when hot which promotes evaporation causing cooling effect when its hot, helping to regulate temperature. Hypodermal adipose tissue: is a fat and therefore insulates which will help reduce heat loss and help maintain body temperature. Superficial blood vessels: Vasodilation of these vessels allows more blood flow near the skin’s surface, facilitating heat dissipation when the body is too warm. Vasoconstriction means less heat will be lost this way thereby maintaining the core temperature of the body. Naked nerve endings: these receptors in the skin detect temperature changes and send signals to the hypothalamus to initiate appropriate thermoregulatory responses. 9. Someone suffering from heat stroke is likely to a) Be sweating profusely b) Have a core temperature above 40°C c) Have a surface temperature higher than the core temperature d) All the above 10. Where are deep body receptors located? a) CNS b) Nerve endings c) In the muscles and glands d) In the Hypothalamus 11. Which terms are the effectors in the physiological feedback system in the body? a) Glands b) Muscle System c) Nervous System d) Both a and b

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4 12. If you are becoming increasingly cold, that is, tending toward hypothermia, which is the most crucial corrective response? a) Sweating less b) Sending blood from the core to the periphery c) Shivering d) Increased urine production 13. Explain how blood clotting and uterine contractions during childbirth both involve positive feedback loops and the duration of these. Blood clotting: when a blood vessel is injured , a positive feedback loop involving platelet activation and the release of clotting factors results in the rapid formation of a blood clot. Once the clot is formed, the feedback loop is inhibited , and the clotting process stops. The duration is relatively short, and the clotting process us self-limiting. Uterine contraction during childbirth: uterine contractions are also regulated by a positive feedback loop. Contractions causes the release of oxytocin, which further stimulates contraction. This loop continues until the baby is delivered. The duration of the uterine contractions during childbirth is longer and ends with the birth of the baby. Both processes involve positive feedback to achieve specific physiological goals but are tightly controlled to avoid excessive responses. 14. Fill in the blanks: A fever is an example of a positive feedback loop. We shift the hypothalamic set point higher than normal. Why? Because it allows for chemical reactions to occur more quickly, zinc + iron are sequestered by the liver, and infectiousness of microbes are reduced . The body reacts as if it were too cold . We begin to preserve and generate heat until body temperature is increased to elevated set point. The immune response fights, wins, ends, and normal temperature point is reset . 15. Which of the following is incorrect regarding heat stroke? a) Core temperature exceeds >40 degrees b) Sufferers are likely to have clammy, dry skin c) Their surface temperature may not be increased d) Heat-loss mechanisms are still functional 16. Which of the following is not a symptom of heat exhaustion? a) Elevated core body temperature b) Reduced sweating c) Dehydration d) Seeking shade or fluid 17. Positive feedback loops are always associated with disease: a) True b) False 18. Which of the following is not an example of positive feedback?

5 a) Heat exhaustion b) Heat stroke c) Fever d) Childbirth 19. Why is positive feedback useful within the human body? a) It provides long-term control over the body’s internal conditions b) It returns a variable to homeostasis c) It helps maintain a normal range of set point values d) It can complete a potentially dangerous or stressful process quickly 20. How much primary filtrate is produced by the kidneys per day, and what is the primary mechanism responsible for this production? a) Approximately 1 litre per day, through glomerular filtration. b) Approximately 180 litres per day, through glomerular filtration. c) Approximately 80 litres per day, through glomerular filtration. d) Approximately 180 millilitres per day, through osmosis. 21. What is the primary role of the proximal convoluted tubule in reabsorption, and which substances are primarily taken up by this segment, including sodium chloride (NaCl) and glucose? a) Reabsorption of water and urea; uptake of NaCl and fructose. b) Reabsorption of bicarbonate ions and potassium; uptake of NaCl and fatty acids. c) Reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, and the majority of filtered salts; uptake of NaCl and water. d) Secretion of creatinine and ammonia; uptake of urea and potassium. 22. Which statement accurately describes the recapture of amino acids from the primary filtrate in the renal tubules? a) Amino acids are exclusively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule by passive diffusion. b) Amino acids are actively reabsorbed in the distal tubule and require energy expenditure. c) Amino acids are reabsorbed from the primary filtrate by secondary active transport primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule. d) Amino acids are completely excreted in the urine and not reabsorbed by the kidneys. 23. Why do kidney tissues release erythropoietin, and under what conditions is its release triggered? a) Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells and is released in response to low blood pressure. b) Erythropoietin regulates blood glucose levels and is released during high-altitude exposure. c) Erythropoietin promotes calcium reabsorption and is released during dehydration. d) Erythropoietin is released in response to tissue hypoxia to stimulate the production of red blood cells. 24. What is the renal threshold & the tubular maximum?

6 a) Plasma concentration at which glucose begins to appear in the urine due to inability of the kidneys to reabsorb excess glucose; Peak glucose movement within the kidneys, glucose transporters within the kidneys are saturated and cannot move glucose out of the filtrate back into the blood any faster b) Peak glucose movement within the kidneys, glucose transporters within the kidneys are saturated and cannot move glucose out of the filtrate back into the blood any faster; Plasma concentration at which glucose begins to appear in the urine due to inability of the kidneys to reabsorb excess glucose c) Plasma concentration at which 100% of glucose is reabsorbed and does not appear in the urine as there is enough glucose to be noticed by glucose transporters; Half of peak glucose movement within kidneys as 50% of glucose transporters are saturated d) Half of peak glucose movement within kidneys as 50% of glucose transporters are saturated; Plasma concentration at which 100% of glucose is reabsorbed and does not appear in the urine as there is enough glucose to be noticed by glucose transporters 25. When is ADH secreted during maximal levels? a) During over-hydration b) During dehydration c) During sleep d) During starvation 26. An athlete has taken a hormonal substance to increase the oxygen carrying capacity of their blood. Which hormone is responsible for this? a) Adrenaline b) Erythropoietin c) Glucagon d) Oxytocin 27. Erythropoietin is released by which of the following organs: a) Liver b) Kidney c) Spleen d) Bone marrow 28. The Andes are the highest mountain range outside Asia. What is true regarding humans living in high areas of the Andes? a) They have a decreased number of erythrocytes and have a low prevalence of coronary issues b) They have a decreased number of erythrocytes and have a high prevalence of coronary issues c) They have an increased number of erythrocytes and have a low prevalence of coronary issues d) They have an increased number of erythrocytes and have a high prevalence of coronary issues 29. Erythropoietin release is stimulated by what?

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7 a) Falling blood calcium b) Hyperoxia c) Hypoxia d) Low blood glucose 30. Which of the following does not result in hypoxia? a) Increased plasma volume b) Decreased red blood cell count c) Decreased amount of haemoglobin d) Decreased availability of oxygen 31. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for reducing blood calcium levels when they rise above normal? a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b) Calcitonin c) Aldosterone d) Insulin 32. What does the term "hypophosphatemia" mean, and under what conditions would it likely occur? a) It refers to low calcium levels in the blood due to kidney dysfunction. b) It refers to low phosphate levels in the blood and may occur in conditions like rickets or chronic alcoholism. c) It signifies high phosphate levels in the blood due to excessive dietary intake. d) It indicates an overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH). 33. How does PTH affect the kidneys and the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and what does it achieve through these actions? a) PTH increases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and increases calcium absorption in the GI tract to raise blood calcium levels. b) PTH increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys and decreases phosphate absorption in the GI tract to lower blood phosphate levels. c) PTH promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and enhances nutrient absorption in the GI tract. d) PTH has no direct effects on the kidneys or the GI tract. 34. Describe how PTH influences the activation of vitamin D. a) PTH reduces the absorption of dietary vitamin D in the intestines. b) PTH has a direct inhibitory effect on the skin, preventing the synthesis of vitamin D. c) PTH stimulates the uptake of vitamin D from dietary sources in the small intestine. d) PTH promotes the conversion of inactive vitamin D (calcidiol) to active vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidneys. 35. Describe the role of the thyroid and parathyroid glands in calcium homeostasis

8 Thyroid glands: secretes calcitonin in response to increased calcium levels in the blood. This does this by stimulating osteoblast activity to promote bone growth which lowers calcium in the blood. This happens mostly in growing human (baby to young adult). Parathyroid glands: secretes parathyroid hormone in response to a drop of calcium in the blood. This stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone to release calcium into the blood. This occurs at all life stages. 36. How does insulin lower blood glucose levels? a) By promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose b) By increasing glucose production in the liver c) By facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells d) By releasing glucose from muscle tissue 37. Glucagon is produced by the a) Alpha cells in the pancreas b) Beta cells in the pancreas c) Alpha cells in the liver d) Beta cells in the liver 38. Insulin promotes the __________ of glucose by cells in most tissues, via __________ a) Uptake of glucose, via active transport b) Uptake of glucose, via facilitated diffusion c) Uptake of glucose, via simple diffusion d) Release of glucose, via active transport 39. What are the three cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus? 40. What is the difference between Type I and Type II diabetes regarding insulin and glucose? 41. Of the following, which does not describe diabetes insipidus? a) Inability to concentrate urine

9 b) Loss of control over blood glucose concentration c) Causes can be neurogenic, nephrogenic, or psychogenic d) Diuresis may be 3 – 15L/day 42. Which organ is responsible for removing excess glucose from the bloodstream and storing it as glycogen when blood glucose levels are elevated? a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Kidney d) Adrenal gland 43. Which enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II in the renin-angiotensin system, leading to increased blood pressure? a) Renin b) Angiotensinogen c) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) d) Aldosterone 44. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effects of changing cardiac output (CO) and peripheral resistance (PR) on blood pressure (BP)? a) An increase in CO and PR will lead to a decrease in BP b) An increase in CO and PR will lead to an increase in BP c) A decrease in CO and PR will lead to a decrease in BP d) A decrease in CO and PR will lead to an increase in BP 45. Why might a young, slim, fit woman feel faint when she gets up suddenly in the morning? a) Due to high blood pressure b) Due to low blood sugar c) Due to a sudden drop in blood pressure d) Due to dehydration 46. Which hormone is stimulated by the renin-angiotensin system and promotes water retention in the kidneys? a) Aldosterone b) Renin c) Cortisol d) ADH \ 47. K 48. In cases of severe dehydration and low blood pressure, which hormone acts to conserve water by promoting reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys?

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10 a) Angiotensin II b) Aldosterone c) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 49. Hypertension is the sustained increase in either systolic pressure (above 140mmHg) or diastolic pressure (above 90mmHg) a) True b) False 50. List four common treatment options for hypertension. For each, describe their mechanism of action and downstream effects. Ace inhibitors: blocks cascade of RAAS system= decrease BV= decrease BP Beta blocker: B receptor antagonist which decrease HP and contractility= decrease BP Calcium channel blocker: blocks Ca entering heart and blood vessels= drop BP Diuretics increased urination= decrease BV= decreased BP

1014MSC QB 4 Questions

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