CFI quiz instrument

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Utah Valley University *

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3320

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Mechanical Engineering

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Feb 20, 2024

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CFI questions Action of the elevators moves the plane on its... lateral axis When did the Private Pilot ACS take effect for testing standards? June 2018 What FAR refers to Day VFR equipment required for flight? 91.205 91.213 refers to what? Inop instruments and equipment Affective domain relates to attitudes, beliefs, and values According to the ACS, the student must bring a flight plan to the checkride. How far must the flight plan be planned to? First fuel stop In a guided discussion, learning is achieved through the skillful use of questions What is FDE? Does it effect what airports we can choose as alternates? Do all of our planes have it? FDE is an ability provided through the GPS system receivers on the aircraft. 3 satellites provide 2D, 4: 3D, 5: RAIM (receive autonomous integrity monitoring) and we receive fault detection, 6: is fault detection and exclusion. It can affect the airports we choose especially if we are flying IMC and have to execute a missed approach due to losing RAIM and FDE. This inhibits our selections of airports a little. I am not sure if all of the planes at USU have it. But it would seem logical that they do because we are supposed to compute RAIM for IFR flights. How can you tell if your plane is equipped with WAAS? Navigate to the AUX Chapter and then to the GPS Status page. If there is an SBAS softkey on the bottom of the MFD, your G1000 is equipped with WAAS/SBAS. List what you would need to see in order to operate below the DA/MDA. Additionally, list the FAR that tells us this. FAR 91.175 (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. (ii) The threshold.

CFI questions (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual glideslope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights. What is a VDP? a defined point on a straight-in, non-precision approach from which you can descend below the MDA, as long as you have the required visual references How could you calculate your VDP if one isn’t provided? Take the AGL value of the MDA and divide it by 300. Where is the missed approach point for the localizer 17 into Logan? Runway Threshold What are the three different lapse rates? Environmental lapse rate (standard lapse rate) 3 degrees F per 1000 ft Dry adiabatic lapse rate: 5.5 degrees F per 1000 ft Saturated (wet) adiabatic lapse rate 1.5 degrees F per 1000 ft APPROXIMATELY What do the following takeoff minimums mean? How do you know if you can meet that climb gradient? Given the following winds, temperature, and altimeter setting could you legally depart? Rwy 17, 400-2 or standard with minimum climb of 270’ per NM to 4900

CFI questions 02017G22KT 10SM OVC014 09/06 A3014 RMK AO2 RAB34E46 SLP204 P0000 T00940061 Runway 17 400 fpnm climb gradient with 2 sm visibility. or standard visibility with min climb of 270' per nm to 4,900 ft. wind from 020 17 knots gusting 22 knots. 10 sm visibility overcast 14000 temperature (C) 09 dewpoint 06 Altimeter setting 30.14 rain began 34 min after the hr ended 46 min after the hour. You would have to calculate your climb gradient based on your weight, the aircraft and density / pressure altitude. According to policies at USU you could not depart, but the FAA does not have any regulations stopping you. Based on experience with a temperature like that you could probably make that climb gradient. Up to what percentage of the Instrument can be done in the simulator? Part 141 rules stipulate you cannot exceed 50% of total training time for this course within the SIM. What needs to be done on Flight 9 in our instrument course? Conducting IFR flight plan Filing an IFR flight plan ATC clearances ATC flight following Holds Departure procedures VOR GPS Communications Copying and read back clearances Arrival procedures Missed approaches Circle to land Weather information Aircraft performance, limitations, and systems Enroute charts IFR Emergencies If you use the simulator to complete a lesson in the course, what is the process on getting that flight omitted? Making a note and talking to the chief about the change. Then logging it on flight logger. Can you take off on an IFR flight plan out of Logan with an outside temp of 10 degrees Celsius and moderate rain? Why?

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CFI questions No: known icing conditions, I would not recommend doing so unless you have an aircraft equipped for it and even then I would consider not going. Describe the different methods for inspecting the VOR in the airplane. VOT: tune it to testing facility set to 0 degrees CDI centered should read 0 To the VOT. Tune to 180, CDI centered should read From the VOT. VOR checkpoint: Tune to radial +/- 4 degrees from specified radial Dual VOR: tune both Nav radios to the VOR with TO indications. Note the bearings should be within +/- 4 degrees. Airborne: Select a radial on an established airway, select a prominent point approx 20 nm for the VOR. tune to VOR with a TO indication should read +/- 6 degrees. How does the attitude indicator and Airspeed Indicator work on the G1000? Attitude indicator: operates on the gyroscopic principle of rigidity in space. Detects pitch and bank through the AHRS system and the ADC. This data is gathered from LRU's and communicates the information it gathers to the ADC. Solid state gyros, magnetometers, and accelerometers help determine the type of information that is gathered. ASI: The pitot probe and static air are measured within the ADC and the LRU's. This data is displayed on the PFD within the G1000. What is a contact approach and a cruise clearance? Contact approach: Flown the same way as a visual approach, but you don't need the airport in sight. You need to remain clear of clouds, have 1 statute mile of flight visibility, and reasonably expect to continue to the airport in those conditions. Plus, the airport must have a published instrument approach. There's no missed approach procedure. Cruise clearance: issued to allow a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. Also authorizes a pilot to proceed to and make an approach at the destination airport. Climbing/descents within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, the pilot may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance. What is the MON network? A list of airports that have ILS and VOR approaches designated as backups if the GPS system is disrupted. FAA plans to decommission 30% of existing VOR network and only keep a few for navaids.

CFI questions What are the elements of an IFR clearance? C: Clearance limit R: Route A: altitude F: frequency T: Transponder code What is Vtgt? It is the target speed you will be using for your approach. On the Idaho Falls Departure procedure what does CW mean? Clockwise Describe how to correct for wind in a hold Calculate your wind correction angle on the inbound leg and triple that on your outbound leg. What is the lowest altitude you can have the autopilot engaged while on an instrument approach Regulations: 500 ft AGL 14 CFR 135.93. AFM: The autopilot must be disengaged below 200 feet AGL during approach operations and below 800 feet AGL for all other phases of flight. How can you calculate the bank degrees needed for a standard rate turn partial panel? Standard rate turns of 3 degrees per second will require different angles of bank depending on true airspeed (faster=more bank, slower=less bank) Rule of thumb: 15% of true airspeed is about the bank angle necessary to achieve a standard rate turn. Doing this partial panel requires you to know your speed by utilizing the PFD backup display button. Because this will display your TAS of the MFD (assuming the PFD has failed) if it hasnt and the MFD has you already have that information. You can also add 2% to your Indicated Airspeed (IAS) for every 1,000 feet of altitude to approximate the TAS.

CFI questions Describe how you would execute a missed approach from a circle to land Make the initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and then maneuver to intercept and fly the missed approach course. What are the 141 requirements to obtain an instrument rating, and what are the specific cross country requirements. No specific cross country other than a flight at least 250 nm along airways or ATC directed routes. With one leg at least 100 nm straight line. IAP at each airport and three different kinds of approaches. 35 hours of instrument training Knowledge areas FAR 61.56 What is p-static? What purpose do static wicks have? P static refers to the noise and interference that could result from a buildup of static electricity. As the aircraft moves through the air it creates friction, this friction induces static electricity. When this builds up enough it could interfere with navigational and radio signals. The static wicks enable the energy generated from moving to be transferred back into the atmosphere without interfering with aircraft operations. How many static wicks are required to be on the DA-40 for IFR flight? According to 91.205 they are not required. Reading through the AFM I have not seen this detailed either, so unless there is a policy USU has instituted I would say they are not required. But they are a good idea, there are 4 of them on the DA-40. What is the difference between LNAV, LNAV/VNAV, LP, and LPV on RNAV approaches LNAV: WAAS capable systems enable this approach to be flown with vertical guidance advisory. you need to use LNAV minimums but you have a glideslope helping you maintain a steady descent 9advisory). LNAV/VNAV: approaches with vertical guidance used in tandem with baro aided GPS units. Mainly used with WAAS today, they do not funnel you to the runway but have a .3 nm limit within 2 miles of the final approach fix to the missed approach point. 250 ft above TDZ LP: non precision approach with WAAS as lateral guidance, no vertical. Typically in areas that do not allow vertical guidance to be published. LPV: is a WAAS/GPS approach similar to an ILS they are considered an APV. The LPV approach scales down as you get closer to the runway funneling you to the the threshold. Does not meet FAA/ICAO guidelines for precision approach. 200 ft above TDZ

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CFI questions Describe what RNP is: It is an on board monitoring and alerting system that ensures the aircraft stays within a specific area throughout the flight. It has three different levels RNP .1, .3 & 1.0. These detail the distance pilots can expect to remain right or left of centerline 95% of the time throughout flight. There are RNPs approaches but they require specific training and aircraft. How can you open your IFR flight plan in Logan? 1-800-wx-brief-- FSS on the radio--Filing with Garmin or Foreflight What are approach categories based off of? Mainly the speed at which the aircraft approaches the runway. During the checkride, the student will demonstrate ability to operate at 3 of the aircraft systems listed in _____ through______. K1a-K1l According to the ACS, brake checks are not required after the aircraft begins moving. False Define and explain the following acronyms: SUA, TFR, SATR, SFRA. SUA: Special use airspace: consists of that airspace wherein activities must be confined because of their nature, or wherein limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both. SUA areas are depicted on aeronautical charts, except for controlled firing areas (CFA), temporary military operations areas (MOA), and temporary restricted areas. TFR: Temporary flight restriction: Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence of low-flying aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard SATR: Special air traffic rules area: rules for aircraft operating within the boundaries of certain designated airspace. These areas are listed in 14 CFR Part 93 and can be found throughout the NAS. Procedures, nature of operations, configuration, size, and density of traffic vary among the identified areas. SFRA: Special flight rules area: Airspace of defined dimensions, above land areas or territorial waters, within which the flight of aircraft is subject to the rules set forth in 14 CFR Part 93, unless otherwise authorized by air traffic control. According to the ACS, what are the tolerances for altitude and speed while in the Pattern? The applicant demonstrates the ability to: PA.III.B.S1 Identify and interpret airport/seaplane base runways, taxiways, markings, signs, and lighting. PA.III.B.S2 Comply with recommended traffic pattern procedures. PA.III.B.S3 Correct for wind drift to maintain the

CFI questions proper ground track. PA.III.B.S4 Maintain orientation with the runway/landing area in use. PA.III.B.S5 Maintain traffic pattern altitude, ±100 feet, and the appropriate airspeed, ±10 knots. PA.III.B.S6 Maintain situational awareness and proper spacing from other aircraft in the traffic pattern. As far as checklist go, they are not required to use during the flight as long as the applicant has the checklists memorized. False Which can result when operating in the region of reverse command? increased nose-up pitch causes increased rate of descent Which statement is true relating to the factors which produce stalls? The stalling angle of attack is independent of the speed of airflow over the wings Select the correct statement concerning dallas love field: The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent What is the primary consideration in determining the length and frequency of flight instruction periods? fatigue Which is generally the more effective way for an instructor to properly motivate students? Provide positive motivations by the promise or achievement of rewards When asking a student to explain how gross weight affects maneuvering speed, what level of learning is being tested? Understanding With respect to day cross-country experience requirements, a private pilot-airplane applicant must have a minimum of 3 hours dual and 5 hours solo What is true altitude? The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level The minimum visibility for VFR flight in Class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 SM beginning at an altitude of 10,000 feet MSL

CFI questions If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a pilot may operate that aircraft without violating regulations is 1729 EST During a 30° banked turn, what effect would a reduction in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn? The rate would increase, the radius would decrease If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified immediately Are students authorized to make repeated solo cross-country flights without each flight being logbook endorsed? Yes; provided the flights take place under stipulated conditions Which part of the FAR's cover basic med? Part 68 Which approach lighting systems have red terminating or red side row bars? Only ALSF-1 and ALSF-2 For Category 1 approaches, at least one of several visual references for the intended runway must be visible and identifiable to go below DA/MDA. Which of the following is NOT one of those items? Runway hold short lines Which of these instruments do you NOT need for an IFR flight? VSI What's the minimum climb gradient for all IFR departures, unless it's specified otherwise? 200 feet per nm You pick up an IFR clearance in your DA-40 at a non-towered airport, with a clearance void time of 1815Z. What do you need to do by 1815Z? be airborne by 1815z

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CFI questions What altitude did the DA-40 report this PIREP at? UA /OV HI0180006/TM 2130/FLUNKN/TP DA40/SK BKN020-TOP025/B- KN033-TOP050/RM DURC 13 CL ABV 050--unknown You're flying over a designated mountainous area that has no published minimum altitude. You must stay at an altitude of ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of ____ nautical miles from the course to be flown. 2,000’ 4 nm You're planning an IFR flight with 45 minutes of fuel reserve past your intended point of landing. What's the minimum weather you need if you're NOT filing an alternate for your flight? (at least +/- 1 hour around your ETA) Ceilings 2000+ AGL, 3SM vis Unless ATC authorizes you otherwise, when you're operating under IFR in controlled airspace, you're required to report all of the following as soon as possible, EXCEPT: Confirmation of forecasted weather In order to be instrument current according to FAR 61.57, you need to have done what in the preceding 6 months? 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking radials Which of these is not included as an acceptable reference for the airport environment according to FAR 91.175(c)? An adjacent taxiway to the runway In the communication process, the communicator will be more successful in gaining and retaining the receiver's attention by using a varied communicative approach When fuel planning under IFR, you must have enough fuel in order to do what? (assuming you need an alternate) Fly to the

CFI questions first airport of intended landing, to the alternate and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. You are planning a trip from Logan (KLGU) to Idaho Falls (KIDA). The weather at KIDA requires an alternate according to FAR 91.169(b)(2)(i). You choose an alternate of Pocatello (KPIH). They have one ILS approach (except the glideslope is inoperative), a LOC BC approach and multiple RNAV approaches. What does the weather have to be in Pocatello, and during what time to file it as an alternate? 800' celings and 2SM visibility at the ETA. To be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person Links to an external site. must be at least _____ years old 18 Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? No, it is issued without a specific expiration date. Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings? Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea. How long is a Second-Class medical good for if older than 40? 12 mos How many hours of total flight time are required for a commercial pilot certificate under part 61? What about 141? 250 and 190 How far can a commercially rated pilot fly for hire, if they have their instrument rating? No limit What is the difference between proficiency and currency? Currency means that legally you are current. Proficiency means that you are good at performing whatever maneuver or function. Just because you are current does not mean that you are proficient. Know how vs quality performance. Be brief when answering this next question. What 4 things must an TAA aircraft have, in order to be considered an TAA?

CFI questions Advanced cockpit: moving map, GPS / Integrated autopilot: 2 axis / PFD & MFD o be eligible for a commercial pilot certificate, a person Links to an external site. must receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor Links to an external site. who conducted the required ground training Links to an external site. or reviewed the person Links to an external site. 's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in § Links to an external site. .......... of the FARS. 61.125 What should an instructor do with a student who assumes that correction of errors is unimportant? Raise the standard of performance for each lesson, demanding greater effort In explaining the function of flight controls, the instructor should emphasize that The pilot should always be considered the center of movement or reference point from which movements of airplane are judged What is the maximum distance from an airport that an aircraft engaged in training operations may be operated without an emergency locator transmitter? 50 nm What should occur at the 90° point of a lazy eight? Steepest bank, minimum airspeed, maximum altitude, and level pitch attitude A type of forgetting that occurs when new events displace things that had been previously learned, is called interference When flying from a high- to a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the left and increasing

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CFI questions Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and "get the job done" The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral angle is to increase lateral stability What could be a result of a student focusing too far ahead during a landing approach? Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown Which statement is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front How far will an aircraft travel in 3-1/2 minutes if its groundspeed is 165 knots? 9.6 nm GIVEN: Usable fuel at takeoff ................... 36 gal Fuel consumption rate .................... 12.4 gal/hr Constant groundspeed ..................... 140 kts Flight time since takeoff ................ 48 min According to FAR Part 91, how much farther can an airplane be flown under night VFR? 189 nm Faulty performance due to student overconfidence should be corrected by increasing the standard of performance for each lesson When students subconsciously use the defense mechanism called rationalization, they cannot accept the real reasons for their behavior

CFI questions When should a flight instructor begin teaching aeronautical decision making to a student As soon as the student is able to control the aircraft during basic maneuvers You receive a flashing white light from the control tower during run-up prior to takeoff; what action should you take? Return to starting point While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL? 5 sm The performance of rectangular patterns helps a student fly traffic patterns. What type transfer of learning is this? Positive What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring In order to gain a realistic perspective on one's attitude toward flying, a pilot should take a Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test To endorse a student pilot's logbook for solo flight, an instructor is required, in part, to have... given that student flight training in the type of aircraft involved The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line.

CFI questions This would most likely occur in turn 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn A 70 percent increase in stalling speed would imply a bank angle of 70 degrees Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? Magnetic compass Students quickly become apathetic when they recognize the instructor is not adequately prepared A common student error in level turns inability to detect slips / skids without reference to flight instruments The stalling speed of an aircraft will be highest when the aircraft is loaded with a high gross weight and forward CG When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is 200 knots What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare an applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 200 hours of flight training Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing? Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity Students who grow impatient when learning the basic elements of a task are those who should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goals for each step

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