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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 107
Chemistry: Chapter 7 Chemical bonding: ionic bonding Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 7 Chemical bonding: ionic bonding 1.
Which of the following ions is NOT a cation? A.
Silver ion B.
Iron(II) ion C.
Hydroxide ion D.
Aluminium ion □
2.
Which of the following ions is an anion? A.
Permanganate ion B.
Manganese(II) ion C.
Magnesium ion D.
Mercury(II) ion □
3.
Which of the following is a simple ion? A. Co
2+ B. SO
3
2
C. NH
4
+ D. OH
□
4.
Which of the following combinations about the colour of the ions is correct? Ions Colour A. Copper(II) ion Reddish brown B. Cobalt(II) ion Pink C. Dichromate ion Yellow D. Permanganate ion Orange □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 108
5.
Which of the following aqueous solutions is yellow in colour? A. Iron(III) nitrate B. Nickel(II) sulphate C. Potassium dichromate D. Sodium bromide □
6.
Which of the following ions can be seen to migrate in an electric field? A. Sulphate ion B. Chloride ion C. Permanganate ion D. Hydroxide ion □
7.
Consider the following diagram about the migration of ions. Which of the following observations is correct? A. Purple spot moves towards the electrode A
. B. Blue spot moves towards electrode B
. C. Orange spot moves towards electrode B
. D. No observable change. □
s
mall crystal of copper(II) dichromate
electrode A
electrode B
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 109
8.
Which of the following ions are coloured? (1) Cu
2+
(aq) (2) Cr
2
O
7
2
(aq) (3) K
+
(aq) A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
The charge of sulphate ion is A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 1
D. 2
□
10.
Which of the following ions has 1
charge? A. Ammonium ion B. Hydrogencarbonate ion C. Sulphite ion D. Chromate ion □
11.
Which of the following ions does NOT have 1+ charge? A. Dichromate ion B. Hydrogen ion C. Silver ion D. Potassium ion □
12.
Which of the following formulae does NOT stand for an ion? A. H
+ B. NCl
3 C. NH
4
+ D. OH
□
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 110
13.
Which of the following formulae and names of ions is matched INCORRECTLY? Formula Name A. H
+
Hydrogen ion B. NH
4
+
Ammonium ion C. Zn
2+
Zinc(II) ion D. Cu
2+
Copper(II) ion □
14.
Which of the following formulae and names is matched correctly? Formula Name A. Cl
Chloride ion B. NO
2
Nitride ion C. S
2
Sulphate ion D. OH
Hydrogenate ion □
15.
Which of the following formulae of ions is correct? A. NO
3
+ B. SO
4
C. CO
3
2
D. Br
+ □
16.
Which of the following ions has a charge of 2+? A. Oxide ion B. Dichromate ion C. Aluminium ion D. Zinc ion □
17.
Which of the following ions is positively charged? A. Ammonium ion B. Chloride ion C. Phosphide ion D. Permanganate ion □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 111
18.
In magnesium chloride, Mg
2+
ion is formed by A. gaining 2 protons from the chlorine atoms. B. losing 2 outermost shell electrons from magnesium atom. C. losing 2 outermost shell electrons from the magnesium ion. D. gaining 2 electrons from the outermost shell of another magnesium atom. □
19.
Which of the following statements about magnesium atom and magnesium ion is correct? A. Both of them have 12 protons in the nucleus. B. Both of them have the same chemical properties. C. Both of them have 2 outermost shell electrons. D. Both of them have the same physical properties. □
20.
A magnesium ion, Mg
2+
, has the same number of electrons as A. a neon atom, Ne. B. a sodium atom, Na. C. a fluorine atom, F. D. an aluminium atom, Al. □
21.
A sodium atom and a sodium ion A. have the same number of electrons. B. have the same chemical properties. C. are isotopes. D. have the same number of neutrons. □
22.
An atom W
has 12 electrons and its mass number is 24. Which of the following combinations showing the number of protons and neutrons of an ion W
2+
is correct? Protons Neutrons A. 12 12 B. 10 10 C. 10 12 D. 12 10 □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 112
23.
The table below gives atomic numbers of four atoms. Atom Atomic number P 17 Q 18 R 19 S 20 Which of the following atoms can form an ion with a charge of 1+? A. P B. Q C. R D. S □
24.
The diagrams below show the electronic diagrams of four atoms. A. B. C. D. Which of the following atoms can form an ion with a charge of +1? A. P B. Q C. R D. S □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 113
25.
An element Y
has 11 protons and 12 neutrons in its nucleus. Which of the following symbols for an ion of Y
is correct? A.
Y
12
11
B.
Y
23
11
C.
Y
12
11
D.
Y
23
11
□
26.
Which of the following descriptions about a chloride ion is correct? Number of protons Number of neutrons Number of electrons A. 16 18 18 B. 16 18 17 C. 17 17 17 D. 17 18 18 □
27.
Which of the following particles has 19 protons, 18 electrons and 20 neutrons? A. Ar
40
18
B.
K
39
19
C. K
39
19
D. Ar
41
18
□
28.
When potassium forms an ion, the electronic arrangement of the potassium ion is A. 2,8,8,2. B. 2,8,8,1. C. 2,8,8. D. 2,8,7. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 114
29.
Which of the following statements about a calcium ion are correct? (1) It has the same number of electrons as a neon atom. (2) It has the same number of electrons as a potassium ion. (3) It has the same number of protons as a calcium atom. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
30.
The table below shows the number of neutrons and of electrons in five given atoms/ions: Atom/ion Number of neutrons electrons X 8 8 Y 8 6 Z
2+
12 10 Q
2−
9 10 R
+
12 10 Which of the following atoms is an isotope of X
? A. Y
B. Z
C. Q
D. R □
31.
Which of the following has the electronic arrangement 2,8? (1) Ne (2) F
−
(3) S
2−
(4) Al
3+
A. (1) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (1), (2) and (4) only □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 115
32.
An atom X
forms a X
−
ion. X
and X
−
have the same (1) chemical properties. (2) number of electrons. (3) number of neutrons. (4) number of protons. Which of the above is/are correct? A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) and (4) only D. (1), (3) and (4) only □
33.
Which of the following pairs has an UNEQUAL number of electrons? A. Ne, F
−
B. Li
+
, Be
2+
C. Cl
−
, Ar D. Na
+
, Cl
−
□
34.
Which of the following is the electron diagram (showing electrons in the outermost shell only) of sodium chloride? A. B. C. D. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 116
35.
Which of the following electron diagrams (showing electrons in the outermost shell only) is INCORRECT? A. B. C. D. □
36.
Which of the following statements about the ionic bond in ammonium chloride is correct? A. It is formed by the transfer of electrons from metal atoms to non-metal atoms. B. It is the electrostatic attraction between ammonium ions and chloride ions. C. It is formed by the sharing of electrons between the nitrogen atom and chlorine atom. D. There is actually no ionic bonds in ammonium chloride. □
37.
The table below shows the electronic arrangement of four elements. Element Electronic arrangement W 2,8,8,1 X 2,8,7 Y 2,8 Z 2,4 Which of the following elements can form an ionic compound with bromine? A. W B. X C. Y D. Z
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 117
38.
X
is a Group VII element. Which of the following statements about X
must be correct? A. X
needs one more electron to attain an octet structure. B.
X
reacts with metal only. C. It only forms ionic compounds with metals. D. It is a gas. □
39.
The diagram below shows the electronic structure of a compound formed between element X
and element Y
. Which of the following combinations is correct? Element X
Element Y
A. Ca O B. C S C. K Br D. Mg Cl □
40.
Which of the following combinations will most probably give an ionic compound? A. Group I element and Group 0 element B. Group II element and Group III element C. Group I element and Group VII element D. Group IV element and Group VI element □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 118
41.
Which of the following statements about ionic bonds are correct? (1) They are formed by the transfer of one or more protons from one atom (or group of atoms) to another. (2) They are non-directional. (3) Ionic bonds are strong. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
42.
Which of the following pairs of elements can react together to form an ionic compound? A. Bromine and nitrogen B. Bromine and sodium C. Nitrogen and argon D. Sodium and argon □
43.
Which of the following compounds is NOT an ionic compound? A. NH
4
Cl B. CaO C. NaOH D. SiO
2 □
44.
Which of the following pairs of elements is likely to form an ionic compound? A. Carbon and sulphur B. Calcium and iodine C. Copper and zinc D. Phosphorus and chlorine □
45.
Which of the following substances has a giant ionic structure? A. Calcium carbonate B. Calcium ion C. Carbon dioxide D. Calcium atom □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 119
46.
Element Y
combines with oxygen to form an oxide, Y
2
O
3
. Element Y
belongs to A. Group I. B. Group II. C. Group III. D. Group IV. □
47.
X
and Y
are two elements with 13 protons and 8 protons respectively. They combine to form a compound with the formula. A. X
3
Y
.
B.
X
3
Y
2
.
C.
XY
3
.
D. X
2
Y
3
.
□
48.
Element X
has an atomic number of 20. It reacts with element Y
of atomic number 17, which forms a compound with the formula A. X
2
Y
.
B. XY
2
.
C. Y
2
X
.
D. YX
2
.
□
49.
Which of the following formulae is correct? A. MgNO
3 B. Al
2
O
3 C. NH
3
Cl D. NaCO
3 □
50.
Y
forms an oxide with a formula Y
2
O
3
. The formula of nitrate of Y
is A. Y
2
NO
3
. B. Y
(NO
3
)
3
. C. Y
3
NO
3
. D. Y
NO
3
. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 120
51.
The formula of iron(III) oxide is A. FeO
3
.
B. Fe
3
O
2
.
C. Fe
2
O
3
.
D. FeO. □
52.
W
is a metal in the second period of the Periodic Table. Its oxide has a chemical formula of W
2
O
3
. The chemical formula of the nitrate of W
is probably A. W
NO
3
. B. W
(NO
3
)
2
. C. W
(NO
3
)
3
. D. W
2
(NO
3
)
3
. □
53.
Element X
has an atomic number of 20 and relative atomic mass of 40.1; element Y
has an atomic number of 17 and relative atomic mass of 35.5. The formula of the compound formed from X
and Y
is A. SiO
2 B. MgO C. HCl D. CaCl
2 □
54.
Which of the following is the chemical formula of calcium hydroxide? A. CaOH B. Ca
2
OH C. Ca(OH)
2 D. CaO □
55.
The atomic numbers of X
and Y
are 16 and 19 respectively. What would be the formula of the ionic compound formed between X
and Y
? A.
XY
2
B
X
2
Y
C. XY
D.
X
and Y
could not form an ionic compound. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 121
56.
Elements X
and Y
react to form an ionic compound with formula Y
3
X
. If Y
has the electronic arrangement of 2,8,8,1, which group does X
belong to in the Periodic Table? A. Group III B. Group V C. Group VI D. Group VII □
57.
The formula for the oxide of caesium metal is Cs
2
O. Which of the following would most likely be the formula for caesium hydrogencarbonate? A. CsHCO
3
B. Cs
2
HCO
3
C. Cs(HCO
3
)
2
D. HCO
3
Cs □
58.
An ionic compound has the formula X
2
Y
3
. The ions present in the compound are A. X
2+
ions and Y
3−
ions. B. X
3+
ions and Y
2−
ions. C. Y
3+
ions and X
2−
ions. D. Y
2+
ions and X
3−
ions. □
59.
Elements X
and Y
react to form an ionic compound with formula XY
. If Y
belongs to Group VI of the Periodic Table, to which group does X
belong? A. I B. II C. III D. VI □
60.
Elements X and Y have atomic numbers 12 and 7 respectively. The formula for the compound formed between X and Y would be A. X
2
Y
5
. B. X
5
Y
2
. C. X
2
Y
3
. D. X
3
Y
2
. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 122
61.
MN
2
is the formula of an ionic compound X
. Both
M
and N
have the same electronic arrangement in the compound. Compound
X
would be A. calcium chloride. B. carbon dioxide. C. magnesium bromide. D. silicon(IV) oxide. □
62.
Ions can move under the influence of an electric field. Ions are charged particles. □
63.
Calcium atom and calcium ion have different physical and chemical properties. Both calcium atom and calcium ion have the same number of protons. □
64.
Calcium ions are more reactive than calcium atoms. Calcium ions are positively charged and tend to gain electrons. □
65.
When calcium chemically combines with oxygen, an ionic compound is formed. Calcium is a metal while oxygen is not. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 130
Chemistry: Chapter 8 Chemical bonding: covalent bonding Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 8 Chemical bonding: covalent bonding 1.
Which of the following compounds does NOT contain ions? A. Magnesium sulphate B. Ammonium nitrate C. Hydrogen chloride D. Iron(III) oxide □
2.
Which of the following substances consist of molecules? (1) Water (2) Ammonium nitrate (3) Carbon monoxide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
3.
Which of the following pairs of molecules has the same number of atoms per molecule? A. CH
4
and NCl
3 B. CO
2
and BF
3 C. HCl and O
3 D. NO
2
and Cl
2
O □
4.
Which of the following statements about bromine at room conditions is INCORRECT? A. It exists as diatomic molecules. B. It is a liquid. C. It is dark red in colour. D. Double covalent bond exists within the molecule. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 131
5.
Which of the following molecules has an atomicity of 2? A. Hydrogen chloride B. Oxygen C. Ozone D. Neon □
6.
Which of the following compounds consists of covalent bond only? A. NH
4
Cl B. CO
2 C. NaOH D. K
2
CO
3 □
7.
Which of the following compounds consists of double covalent bond? A. CS
2 B. H
2
O C. HCl D. N
2 □
8.
Number of pairs of shared electrons in a methane molecule (CH
4
) is A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 □
9.
Which of the following statements about an oxygen molecule is INCORRECT? A. An oxygen molecule consists of a double bond. B. An oxygen molecule consists of 2 oxygen atoms. C. An oxygen molecule is formed by electron transfer. D. An oxygen molecule is formed by sharing of electrons. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 132
10.
The table below shows the electronic arrangements of four atoms. Atom Electronic arrangement P 2,5 Q 2,6 R 2,7 S 2,8 Which of the following atoms is the most probable to form a single bond in the molecule of its element? A. P B. Q C. R D. S □
11.
Which of the following diagrams best represents the electronic arrangement (showing electrons in the outermost shell only) of a neon molecule? A. B. C. D. □
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 133
12.
Element
X
is in Group V and exists as molecules, X
2
. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the electronic structure of an X
2
molecule? A. B. C. D. □
13.
An element X
reacts with chlorine to form a compound with the formula X
Cl
3
. Which of the following is NOT the possible electronic arrangement of X
? A. 2,1 B. 2,5 C. 2,8,3 D. 2,8,5 □
14.
The following diagram is the electron diagram of the compound formed between elements X
and
Y
(showing electrons in the outermost shell only): Which of the following combinations is correct?
HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 134
Element X
Element Y
A. Group IV Group VII B. Group V Group VII C. Group I Group VI D. Group IV Group VI □
15.
Which of the following combinations can give a covalent compound? A. Group II element + Group VII element B. Group VI element + Group VII element C. Group I element + Group 0 element D. Group VI element + Group 0 element □
16.
Which of the following groups of elements combines to form covalent compounds only? A. Na, S, O B. N, H, C, O C. Ca, C D. H, Cl, O
□
17.
Which of the following statements about covalent bond are correct? (1) It is formed by the sharing of electrons between the bonded atoms. (2) It is non-directional. (3) It is a type of electrostatic attraction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
18.
Which of the following molecules does NOT contain lone pair? A. N
2 B. CO
2 C. NH
3 D. CH
4 □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 135
19.
Which of the following substances contains at least one triple covalent bond? A. NH
3 B. N
2 C. Al
2
O
3
D. O
2
□
20.
Which of the following substances would have the same number of electrons as a water molecule? A. Neon B. Fluorine C. Lithium oxide D. Sodium chloride □
21.
Which of the following would have the same number of electrons as a molecule of water? (1) A neon atom (Ne) (2) An oxide ion (O
2−
) (3) A sodium ion (Na
+
) (4) A methane molecule (CH
4
) A. (1) and (2) only B. (3) and (4) only C. (1), (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) □
22.
Which of the following molecules has the greatest number of lone pairs of electrons? A. HCl B. Cl
2
C. NH
3
D. H
2
O □
23.
Which of the following statements is true? A. Krypton (a noble gas) consists of Kr
2
molecules. B. A fluorine atom cannot exist by itself at room conditions. C. Sodium chloride consists of Cl
+
and Na
−
ions. D. Magnesium metal consists of Mg
2
molecules. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 136
24.
Which of the following diagrams represents chlorine gas? (Different circles represent atoms of different elements.) A. B. C. D. □
25.
Which of the following pairs of elements can react together to form a covalent compound? A. Magnesium and nitrogen B. Magnesium and potassium C. Nitrogen and chlorine D. Chlorine and potassium □
26.
Which of the following formulae represents a molecule? A. NH
3 B. NaCl C. Cr
2
O
7
2
D. Mg □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 137
27.
Which of the following formulae is unlikely to exist? A. CH
4 B. Cl
3 C. F
2
O D. NCl
3 □
28.
A compound, M
x
N
y
,
is formed from elements M
and N
. M
has an atomic number of 6 and N
has an atomic number of 8. Which of the following combinations is correct? x y Nature of bonding A. 1 2 Ionic B. 1 2 Covalent C. 2 1 Ionic D. 2 1 Covalent □
29.
Element
X
and Y
belong to Group V and VII respectively in the Periodic Table. Which of the following combinations about the compound they form is correct? Chemical formula Bonding type A. X
3
Y
Ionic B. XY
3
Covalent C. X
3
Y
Covalent D. XY
3
Ionic □
30.
The atomic numbers of elements X
and Y
are 15 and 17 respectively. They combine to form a compound Z
. Which of the following statements about compound Z
is/are correct? (1) Z
has a giant covalent structure. (2) Z
has a chemical formula of XY
3
. (3) Z
cannot conduct electricity. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 138
31.
What is the relative molecular mass of carbon dioxide? A. 28.0 B. 44.0 C. 60.0 D. 74.0 □
32.
What is the formula mass of calcium sulphate? A. 232.3 B. 136.2 C. 120.2 D. 88.2 □
33.
What is the formula mass of copper(II) nitrate-3-water, Cu(NO
3
)
2
∙
3H
2
O? A. 241.5 B. 227.5 C. 209.5 D. 187.5
□
34.
HCl is an ionic compound. HCl consists of H
+
and Cl
ions. □
35.
When forming a covalent compound, each fluorine atom tends to gain 1 electron. Each fluorine atom has 7 outermost shell electrons and could attain an octet by gaining one more electron. □
36.
Oxygen gas consists of discrete molecules at room conditions. Each oxygen atom can gain 2 electrons to form an O
2−
ion. □
37.
Covalent bonds bind atoms together in a molecule. Molecules are held together by intermolecular forces. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part II Microscopic World I © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 144
Chemistry: Chapter 9 Structures and properties of substances Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 9 Structures and properties of substances 1.
Chlorine exists as a gas at room temperature and pressure because A. chlorine is reactive. B. the intermolecular forces among chlorine molecules are weak. C. the intermolecular forces between chlorine atoms are weak. D. chlorine molecules are diatomic. □
2.
Which of the following statements about simple molecular substances are correct? (1) They have low melting points and boiling points. (2) Most of them are insoluble in water but soluble in non-aqueous solvents. (3) They must be gases at room temperature. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
3.
Which of the following statements concerning the structure of solid carbon dioxide is/are correct? (1) It has a simple molecular structure. (2) Carbon and oxygen atoms within the molecules are held together by ionic bond. (3) Carbon dioxide molecules are held together by intermolecular forces. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
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4.
Consider the following information: Substances Attraction between the particles in the substance (1) Iodine Intermolecular forces (2) Silicon(IV) oxide Ionic bond (3) Calcium chloride Covalent bond Which of the above information is/are correct? A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
5.
Which of the following statements about molecules is correct? A. It consists of atoms of the same kind. B. Atoms within the molecules are bonded by weak intermolecular forces. C. It is formed a positive and negative ions. D. It is the smallest part of an element or a compound which can exist on its own under ordinary conditions. □
6.
Which of the following substances do NOT have a molecular structure? (1) Silicon(IV) oxide (2) Hydrochloric acid (3) Polyethene A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following pure substances CANNOT conduct electricity in the liquid state? A. Mercury B. Sodium chloride C. Bromine D. Lead(II) bromide
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8.
Which of the following substances is an electrolyte? A. Magnesium sulphate B. Copper C. Distilled water D. Sugar □
9.
Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity because A. it contains metallic sodium. B. it contains mobile ions. C. it contains free chlorine. D. it contains free electrons. □
10.
Which of the following involves a chemical change? A. Melting of wax. B. Electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide. C. Conducting electricity by iron. D. Dissolving sodium bromide in water. □
11.
Which of the following substances can conduct electricity in molten state or in aqueous solution? A. Methylbenzene (a compound formed by C and H) B. Sulphur C. Pure ethanoic acid (a compound formed by C, H and O) D. Sodium chloride □
12.
Which of the following temperatures would be most probably the melting point of an ionic compound? A. 209
o
C B. 32
o
C C. 150
o
C D. 1030
o
C □
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13.
Which of the following diagrams represents the structure of sodium chloride (only the cross section is shown) at room conditions? A. B. C. D. □
14.
Which of the following statements concerning the structure of sodium chloride are correct? (1) Sodium ions are smaller than chloride ions. (2) Each sodium ion is surrounded by four chloride ions. (3) Each chloride ion is surrounded by six sodium ions. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
15.
Which of the following substances has a giant ionic structure? A. Common salt B. Steel C. Methane D. Diamond □
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16.
Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Almost all ionic compounds are solids under room conditions. (2) Ionic compounds usually have high melting points and boiling points. (3) Sodium hydroxide has a giant ionic structure. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
Which of the following statements about ionic compounds are correct? (1) They are solids which conduct electricity. (2) They are usually soluble in water but insoluble in non-aqueous solvents. (3) They are malleable and ductile. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
18.
Sodium and oxygen react to form sodium oxide. Which of the following statements about sodium oxide is correct? A. The chemical formula of sodium oxide is NaO
2
. B. It is a gas at room temperature. C. It is soluble in methylbenzene. D. It conducts electricity in molten state. □
19.
Which of the following is NOT an ionic substance? A. KMnO
4
B. KOH C. Li
2
O D. PCl
5 □
20.
Which of the following statements about potassium iodide is INCORRECT? A. Potassium iodide is a solid at room temperature. B. I atom and I
−
ion have different chemical properties. C. Potassium iodide is insoluble in methylbenzene. D. Potassium iodide becomes ionic when dissolved in water.
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21.
Elements
X
and Y
react to form a compound with a chemical formula of XY
2
. This compound has a giant covalent structure If element X
belongs to Group IV in the Periodic Table, element Y
would belong to Group A. II. B. III. C. VI. D. VII. □
22.
Which of the following statements is correct for both solid carbon dioxide and silicon(IV) oxide? A. Both have simple molecular structures. B. Both have high melting point. C. Both are covalent compounds. D. Both are soluble in water. □
23.
Which of the following statements about graphite and diamond is correct? A. They have the same chemical properties as they are the same element. B. Diamond is hard as it has extremely strong intermolecular force. C. Graphite can conduct electricity, as it is not in a giant covalent structure. D. They have the same boiling and melting points. □
24.
The atomic numbers of elements X
and Y
are 6 and 8 respectively. The compound formed between X
and Y
(1) has a simple molecular structure. (2) is a gas at room temperature. (3) is a non-conductor of electricity. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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25.
Nitrogen dioxide has a A. giant ionic structure. B. simple molecular structure. C. macromolecular structure. D. giant covalent structure.
□
26.
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) Covalent substances are all gases, liquids or low-melting solids. (2) Covalent bonds are weak forces of attraction. (3) Molecules within a giant covalent structure are attracted by weak intermolecular forces. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
27.
Which of the following statements about giant covalent structures are correct? (1) All of them have similar physical properties. (2) All of them are insoluble in any solvents. (3) All of them have high melting points and boiling points. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
28.
Which of the following does NOT have a giant covalent structure? A. Gold B. Silicon(IV) oxide C. Diamond D. Graphite □
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29.
Which of the following about substances having giant covalent structures are INCORRECT? (1) All of them are non-conductors of electricity. (2) All of them are extremely hard. (3) All of them are compounds of two or more elements. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
30.
Which of the following substances could have a giant covalent structure? Substance State at room temperature Solubility in water A. Solid Soluble B. Solid Insoluble C. Gas Insoluble D. Liquid Insoluble □
31.
Which of the following properties about silicon(IV) oxide and nitrogen dioxide are correct? (1) Both of their constituent elements are joined together by covalent bonds. (2) Both of them are insoluble in methylbenzene. (3) Both of them do not conduct electricity under any conditions. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
32.
Substance X
melts at 3
C
and boils at 44
C. X (1) is a solid at room temperature. (2) has weak intermolecular forces between molecules. (3) has a giant covalent structure. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only
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33.
Which of the following statements about iodine is correct? A. At room temperature and pressure, iodine exists as a solid. B. Iodine has a giant covalent structure. C. Iodine molecules are held together by strong covalent bonds to form a solid. D. Weak intermolecular forces hold the two iodine atoms together to form an iodine molecule in the solid. □
34.
Which of the following combinations is INCORRECT? Substances Attraction between the particles in the substance A. Diamond Giant covalent bond B. Quartz Covalent bond C. Potassium chloride Ionic bond D. Carbon dioxide Intermolecular forces between its molecules □
35.
Which of the following pairs of elements react to give a compound having a giant covalent structure? A. Silicon and oxygen B. Calcium and silicon C. Magnesium and bromine D. Carbon and sulphur □
36.
Which of the following is NOT a covalent substance? A. NH
3
B. NH
4
Cl C. I
2
D. SiO
2 □
37.
Which of the following combinations indicates the correct type of constituent particles exists in that substance at room conditions? Substance Constituent particles A. Hydrogen Atoms B. Magnesium oxide Ions C. Silicon(IV) oxide Molecules D. Iron Ions
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38.
Which of the following explanations about the thermal conductivity of metal is correct? A. Heat energy makes metal atoms collide with each other and the collisions produce heat. B. Free electrons near the energy source gain energy. They run throughout the metal and transfer energy to all parts of the metal. C. The free electrons move faster when they have gained energy and hit other electrons more frequently. Then energy is transferred along the metal. D. The metal ions near the energy source gain energy. They move and carry heat energy throughout the metal. □
39.
Which of the following statements about metallic bond are correct? (1) The lower position of the metal in the Periodic Table, the weaker is the metallic bond. (2) The strength of metallic bond increases with increasing number of outermost shell electrons of the metal atoms. (3) Metal is ductile and malleable because metallic bond is a very weak attraction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
40.
Metals are good electrical conductors because A. the metal ions in the metal lattice are free to move to conduct electricity. B. the metal atoms in the metal lattice are free to move to conduct electricity. C. the outermost shell electrons of metal atoms are free to move to conduct electricity. D. all the electrons in the metal lattice are free to move to conduct electricity. □
41.
The number of delocalized electron(s) per atom in potassium metal is A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 □
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42.
Which of the following is correct for both iron and iron(III) oxide? A. They have giant metallic structure. B. They conduct electricity in liquid state. C. They are electrolytes. D. They are malleable. □
43.
Which of the following metals has the highest melting point? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Aluminium D. Potassium □
44.
When a metal conducts electricity, A. half of the electrons move towards the positive pole. B. all electrons move towards the positive pole. C. delocalized electrons move in the same direction. D. electrons move from the positive pole to the negative pole. □
45.
The melting point and boiling point of copper are 1083
o
C and 2595
o
C respectively. Which of the following diagrams best shows the structure of copper at 2000
o
C? A. B. C.
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D. □
46.
The table below lists the melting points and boiling points of five metals. Metal Melting point (
C) Boiling Point /(
C) Aluminium 660 2470 Copper 1083 2595 Iron 1535 3000 Lead 327 1744 Platinum 1769 4530 At 2500
o
C, which of the following combinations about the states of metals is correct? Aluminium Copper Iron Lead Platinum A. Gas Liquid Liquid Gas Liquid B. Gas Gas Gas Liquid Liquid C. Liquid Gas Gas Liquid Gas D. Liquid Liquid Liquid Gas Gas □
47.
The table below shows properties of three substances. Substance Property X Conducts electricity only in aqueous state. Y Conducts electricity when molten and in aqueous solution. Z Conducts electricity when molten and in solid state. Which of the following combinations is correct? X
Y
Z
A. H
2
SO
4
NaBr P B. NaBr P H
2
SO
4
C. H
2
SO
4
NaBr Pb D. NaBr Pb P □
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48.
Substance Y
has high melting and boiling point, and it can conduct electricity when molten or in aqueous solution and at the same time decomposed by electricity. Substance Y
is likely to be A. silicon dioxide. B. graphite. C. gold. D. lead(II) bromide. □
49.
Potassium atoms in nature are joined to one another by A. covalent bonds. B. ionic bonds. C. metallic bonds. D. intermolecular forces. □
50.
Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Metallic bonds are non-directional. (2) A giant metallic structure consists of positive and negative ions bonded together. (3) Delocalized electrons can move freely within a giant metallic structure. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
51.
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Metals are positively charged. B. Metallic bonds are weak. C. Metallic bonds in a metal are the same in all directions. D. Metal ions could move freely within a giant metallic structure. □
52.
When both ends of an iron nail are connected to a battery, its delocalized electrons (1) would move in the same direction. (2) would return to their electron shells. (3) would move towards the negative pole of the battery. A. (1) only
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B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
53.
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) Molten metal compounds conduct electricity because there are delocalized electrons. (2) There are chemical changes when metals conduct electricity. (3) If a metal piece is connected to a battery, the atoms in the metal would lose electrons. A (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
54.
When a current passes through a piece of sodium, which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) Sodium atoms would lose electrons to form sodium compounds. (2) The sodium sample conducts electricity only if it is in molten state. (3) The sodium sample conducts electricity when its delocalized electrons collide with neighbouring electrons. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
55.
Most metals have high melting points and boiling points because A. metals are good conductors of heat. B. most of them are solids at room temperatures. C. metallic bonds are usually strong and not easily broken. D. metallic bonds are non-directional. □
56.
Which of the following solids consists of discrete molecules? A. Carbon dioxide B. Diamond
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C. Sodium chloride D. Iron □
57.
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) An ionic compound is formed between metal and non-metal ions. (2) Ionic bonds and covalent bonds are both strong and non-directional. (3) Ionic bonds and metallic bonds both are formed between different elements. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
58.
Consider the information listed in the table below: Substance Melting point (°C) Solubility in water Electrical conductivity at room temperature W 1610 Insoluble Poor X 872 Soluble Good when in aqueous solution Y 45 Insoluble Poor Z 1769 Insoluble Good Which of the following substances would probably have a giant covalent structure at room temperature? A. W B. X C. Y D. Z □
59.
Which of the following substances has a giant ionic structure? Substance State at room temperature Does it conduct electricity? Solid state Molten state A. Solid No Yes B. Solid Yes Yes C. Solid Yes No D. Liquid No Yes □
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60.
X, Y
and Z
are three elements and the properties of their chlorides are given below: Melting point(°C) Electrical conductivity in molten state Chloride of X 4
Poor Chloride of Y 873
Good Chloride of Z 677
Poor Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) The chlorides of Y
and Z
have giant ionic structures. (2) The chloride of X
is a solid at room temperature. (3) X
is probably a metal. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
61.
If Y
has a very high melting point and conducts electricity only when molten or in aqueous solution, Y
most probably has a A. giant covalent structure. B. simple molecular structure. C. giant ionic structure. D. giant metallic structure. □
62.
If X
has a high melting point and is insoluble in water, X
most probably has a A. giant covalent structure. B. simple molecular structure. C. giant ionic structure. D. giant metallic structure. □
63.
A substance X
melts at 714°C. It does not conduct electricity in solid state, but conducts in molten state. X
probably has A. a metallic structure. B. an ionic structure. C. a giant covalent structure. D. a simple molecular structure. □
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64.
The melting points of some chlorides are given below: Chloride Melting point(°C) Chloride Melting point(°C) NaCl 808°C MgCl
2
714°C SiCl
4
−
70°C PCl
3
−
92°C What can be deduced from the above data? (1) NaCl can conduct electricity at 800°C. (2) MgCl
2
is a liquid at 720°C. (3) SiCl
4
is a covalent compound with a simple molecular structure. (4) PCl
3
is a covalent compound with a giant covalent structure. A. (1) and (3) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (2), (3) and (4) only □
65.
The melting point and boiling point of substance X
are 321°C and 765°C respectively. In its molten state, X
conducts electricity without decomposition. X
probably has A. an giant ionic structure. B. a giant metallic structure. C. a simple molecular structure. D. a covalent network structure. □
66.
The atomic numbers of two elements A
and B
are 11 and 16 respectively. The compound formed between A
and B A. is a gas at room temperature. B. is a not an electrolyte. C. has a chemical formula of A
2
B
. D. is insoluble in water. □
67.
Two elements
X
and Y
have 4 and 7 outermost shell electrons respectively. Which of the following statements about the compound formed between X
and Y
is correct? A. It is an ionic compound. B. It has a very high melting point. C. It has a chemical formula of XY
4
. D. It can conduct electricity. □
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68.
Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? A. Carbon dioxide B. Quartz C. Sodium iodide D. Carbon tetrachloride □
69.
Which of the following sequences indicates the correct ascending order of melting points of the substances? A. HCl < NaCl < CCl
4 B. NaCl < CCl
4
< HCl C. HCl < CCl
4
< NaCl D. CCl
4
< HCl < NaCl □
70.
The electronic arrangement of atoms X
and Y
are 2,8,1 and 2,8,7 respectively. Which of the following statements about the compound formed between X
and Y
is INCORRECT? A. It has a giant structure. B. It has a high melting point. C. It is insoluble in water. D. It conducts electricity in molten state. □
71.
Which of the following substances dissolve in water? (1) Potassium chloride (2) Sugar (3) Quartz A. (1) and (2) only B. (2) and (3) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
72.
Strontium (Sr) is just below calcium in the Periodic Table and it reacts with chlorine to form a compound. Which of the following statements about the chloride of strontium is INCORRECT? A. It has a giant structure. B. It has a high melting point.
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C. It is a white solid. D. It is a good electrical conductor at room temperature. □
73.
The table below shows the melting points of two chlorides. Melting point (°C) Chloride of X –
50 Chloride of Y 1000 Which of the following statements about these two chlorides is correct? A. Both X
and
Y
are metals. B. The chloride of X
can conduct electricity in molten state. C. The chloride of X
has a giant covalent structure. D. The chloride of Y
can conduct electricity at 1000°C. □
74.
The atomic numbers of two elements X
and Y
are 19 and 16 respectively. The compound formed between X
and Y
A. has a formula X
2
Y
. B. conducts electricity at room conditions. C. is a liquid at room conditions. D. is insoluble in water. □
75.
Substances which conduct electricity must A. have a regular packing of constituent particles. B. be ionic compounds. C. contain freely moving charged particles. D. be soluble in water. □
76.
Neon exists as a gas at room temperature and pressure. Neon molecules are monoatomic. □
77.
Iodine solid sublimes on heating. Iodine atoms within a molecule are joined together by strong covalent bond. □
78.
Ammonium chloride is not an electrolyte. Ammonium chloride is made up of non-metals only. □
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79.
Aluminium cannot conduct electricity. Aluminium is not an electrolyte. □
80.
Aqueous solutions of sodium compounds conduct electricity. Aqueous solutions of sodium compounds contain mobile ions. □
81.
Solid magnesium chloride conducts electricity. Magnesium chloride is an electrolyte. □
82.
All ionic compounds are soluble in water. All ionic compounds are electrolytes. □
83.
Solid ammonium nitrate conducts electricity. Ammonium nitrate is an electrolyte. □
84.
Silicon(IV) oxide has a high melting point. Silicon is a semi-metal. □
85.
The melting point of carbon dioxide is higher than that of silicon(IV) oxide. Carbon dioxide molecule has two strong C=O bond. □
86.
Both dry ice and quartz have a giant covalent structure. Carbon and silicon atoms have the same number of outermost shell electrons. □
87.
Iodine has a giant covalent structure. Iodine is a solid at room conditions. □
88.
Silicon(IV) oxide has a simple molecular structure. It is a compound formed between two non-metals. □
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89.
Metals are good conductors of electricity. Metals conduct electricity by delocalized electrons. □
90.
Magnesium cannot be cut as easily as sodium. Metallic bond strength is greater in magnesium than sodium. □
91.
Metals could not be re-shaped. Metallic bonds are strong and could not be easily broken. □
92.
Iron is a good conductor of heat. There are mobile electrons in iron. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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262 Multiple Choice Questions Chemistry: Chapter 10 Occurrence and extraction of metals Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 10 Occurrence and extraction of metals 1.
Which of the following properties is NOT true for copper? A. Malleable B. Excellent conductor of heat C. Magnetic D. Corrosion resistant □
2.
Which of the following is NOT a usual use of aluminium? A. Coins B. Overhead power cables C. Kitchen foil D. Windows frames □
3.
Which of the following properties of metals would NOT be considered for making soft drink cans? A. Toxicity B. Density C. Malleability D. Electrical conductivity □
4.
Which of the following combinations is correct? Metal Recycled from A. Iron Drink cans B. Copper Electrical wires C. Aluminium Jewellery D. Calcium Window frames □
5.
Which of the following is a common application of copper? A. Magnet B. Supersonic aircraft C. Soft drink cans D. Electrical wire □
6.
Which of the following is NOT a property of aluminium? A. Magnetic B. Corrosion resistant C. Good conductor of heat D. Good conductor of electricity □
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263 7.
Which of the following substances is used to make thermometers? A. Silver B. Mercury C. Bromine D. Aluminium □
8.
Copper can conduct electricity because A. it is an electrolyte. B. it contains mobile Cu
2+
ions. C. its atoms are held together by ionic bonds. D. it has delocalized electrons. □
9.
Which of the following metals is most suitable for making steam boiler tubes? A. Magnesium B. Iron C. Platinum D. Copper □
10.
Which of the following metals occurs in free state in nature? A. Copper B. Zinc C. Gold D. Iron □
11.
Which of the following combinations is correct? Metal ore Metal can be extracted A. Bauxite Silver B. Haematite Iron C. Galena Gold D. Calcite Copper □
12.
Which of the following is the main composition of haematite? A. Iron(II) oxide B. Iron(III) oxide C. Iron D. Iron(II) sulphide □
13.
Gold can be found in free state in nature because of A. its high density. B. its closely packed structure. C. its stability. D. its attractive appearance. □
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264 14.
Which of the following compounds upon being heated can produce a gas that relights a glowing splint? A. Copper(II) oxide B. Mercury(II) oxide C. Calcium oxide D. Iron(III) oxide □
15.
Which of the following word equations about metal extraction is INCORRECT? A. lead(II) oxide + carbon
lead + carbon dioxide B. aluminium oxide + carbon
aluminium + carbon dioxide C. iron(III) oxide + carbon
iron + carbon dioxide D. copper(II) oxide + carbon
copper + carbon dioxide □
16.
Which of the following should be the most probable year of discovery of aluminium? A. 2027 B.C. B. 1027 B.C. C. 1027 A.D. D. 1827 A.D. □
17.
Three metals were discovered at different times. Metal Year of Discovery M 50 B.C. N 1800 A.D. O 1000 A.D. The ascending order of their reactivity is A. M
, N
, O
B. M
, O
, N
C. N
, O
, M
D. N
, M
, O
□
18.
Which of the following metals can be obtained by direct heating of its oxide? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Aluminium D. Silver □
19.
When copper(II) carbonate is heated in air with Bunsen flame, A. a white solid forms. B. a black solid forms. C. hydrogen gas evolved. D. a white fume forms. □
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265 20.
Aluminium is obtained by A. carbon reduction of aluminium oxide. B. heating aluminium oxide alone. C. passing hydrogen gas over aluminium ores. D. electrolysis of its molten ores. □
21.
X
, Y
, and Z
are three metals. X
can be extracted from its oxides by carbon reduction and Y
can be extracted by direct heating of its oxide; while Z
cannot be extracted by such methods. Which of the following statements must be true? A. Z
is the least reactive one. B. Y
is more reactive than X
. C. Y
should be discovered before Z
. D. X
is probably calcium. □
22.
For metals which are low in the reactivity series, their compounds can be reduced to metals easily because A. these compounds are not useful. B. these metals have few compounds. C. these compounds have lower stability. D. these compounds are easily reduced. □
23.
Which of the following statements about metal extraction is correct? A. Sodium oxide can be reduced to sodium by carbon. B. Coke is usually used for carbon reduction. C. Carbon dioxide can reduce zinc oxide to zinc. D. Even electrolysis cannot extract potassium from potassium oxide. □
24.
It is more difficult to reduce sodium oxide than copper(II) oxide because A. copper(II) oxide is heavier than sodium oxide. B. sodium oxide is more reactive than copper(II) oxide. C. sodium is more reactive than copper. D. copper is more reactive than sodium. □
25.
Which of the following statements about heating silver oxide strongly in air is correct? A. A gas evolved in the reaction can relight a glowing splint. B. A white solid forms. C. The solid product reacts with air readily to form silver oxide again. D. There is no observable change. □
26.
Which of the following methods used to extract sodium metal is correct? A. Electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution. B. Heating sodium chloride under 1700°C with carbon monoxide. C. Electrolysis of molten sodium chloride. D. Heating sodium chloride directly.
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266 27.
Which of the following gases would be produced from the extraction of lead from lead(II) sulphide? (1) Carbon dioxide (2) Oxygen (3) Sulphur dioxide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
28.
Which of the following are possible ways to extract silver from its ore? (1) Direct heating (2) Electrolysis (3) Heating with carbon A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
29.
Three metals are commonly extracted by the following ways. Metal Common extraction method X Electrolysis Y Direct heating Z Heating with carbon The descending order of their reactivity is A. X, Z, Y
B. Y
, Z
, X
C.
X
, Y
, Z
D.
Z
,
Y
, X
□
30.
Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Iron could be extracted from iron(III) oxide by direct heating. (2) In the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide, molten aluminium could be obtained at the negative electrode. (3) Zinc could be obtained from its ore by heating with carbon. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
31.
Which of the following metal oxides can be reduced by heating alone? (1) Silver oxide (2) Mercury(II) oxide (3) Calcium oxide A. (1) only
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267 B. (1) and (2) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
32.
What is the method used to obtain aluminium from its ore? A. Heating the aluminium ore alone B. Heating the aluminium ore with carbon C. Heating the aluminium ore with hydrogen D. Electrolysis of molten aluminium ore □
33.
Which of the following oxides would be reduced to metals when heated on a charcoal block with a Bunsen flame in school laboratory? (1) Iron(III) oxide (2) Lead(II) oxide (3) Copper(II) oxide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
34.
Which of the following methods would be used to extract caesium, a Group I metal with an atomic number of 55, from its ore? A. Heating the ores with carbon. B. Electrolysis of its molten ore. C. Heating the ores with sodium at very high temperature. D. Heating the ores with carbon monoxide in the absence of oxygen. □
35.
Which of the following metal oxides could be reduced by copper? A. Iron(II) oxide B. Lead(II) oxide C. Magnesium oxide D. Mercury(II) oxide □
36.
An oxide of metal X
could be reduced by zinc. Which of the following statements about X
are probably INCORRECT? (1) X
is more reactive than zinc. (2) X
reacts with hot water to give hydrogen. (3) The reaction between X
and dilute hydrochloric acid is explosive. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
Which of the following substances could reduce lead(II) oxide under strong heating? A. Hydrogen
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268 B. Copper C. Mercury D. Carbon □
38.
Which of the following substances CANNOT reduce hot copper(II) oxide to copper? A. Iron B. Magnesium C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon □
39.
Which of the following represents the ascending order of prices of the metals? A. Lead < Silver < Aluminium < Iron B. Iron < Lead < Aluminium < Silver C. Aluminium < Iron < Silver < Lead D. Silver < Aluminium < Lead < Iron □
40.
Which of the following metals is the most abundant i
n the Earth’s crust?
A. Iron B. Aluminium C. Steel D. Titanium □
41.
The high price of silver is probably due to (1) the high capital input for detecting the locations of ores. (2) the high cost and difficulty in extracting silver from its ores. (3) the low abundance of silver i
n the Earth’s crust.
A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
42.
The ease of metal extraction depends on A. the abundance of the metal in the Earth’s crust.
B. the position of the metal in the reactivity series. C. how many types of ore the metal has. D. the number of uses of the metal. □
43.
Metals X
and Y
can be extracted by carbon reduction. X
was found earlier and its oxide is black in colour. Which of the following combinations is correct? Metal X
Metal Y
A. Iron Copper B. Copper Zinc C. Copper Gold D. Aluminium Lead
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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269 44.
Which of the following metals are obtained mainly from its oxide ores? (1) Calcium (2) Aluminium (3) Iron A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
45.
Which of the following is the correct colour of collection bin for collecting waste aluminium cans? A. Brown B. Blue C. Red D. Yellow □
46.
Which of the following methods help(s) to reserve metals? (1) Recycling soft drink cans. (2) Replacing aluminium with steels in making window frames. (3) Reuse aluminium foil in the kitchen. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
47.
Which of the following are the consequences of metal recycling? (1) Fuels are saved. (2) Metals will run out at a later time in future. (3) Metals will be stronger to resist corrosion. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
48.
Which of the following is NOT necessarily an advantage of metal recycling? A. Less pollution because fewer scrap metals is left for disposal. B. Saving other resources like water and fuels. C. Price sliding of metals as it ensures constant supply of metals. D. Extend the reserve of metals. □
49.
Which of the following materials is commonly used to replace copper for making water pipes? A. Iron B. Plastic C. Glass
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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270 D. Clay □
50.
Which of the following are possible ways to conserve metals? (1) Reusing metal articles (2) Recycling used metals (3) Replacing metals by other materials A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
51.
Which of the following metals is more expensive than copper? A. Iron B. Lead C. Zinc D. Tin □
52.
Which of the following is NOT a possible way to conserve metals? A. Reusing metal articles B. Increase the quantity of mining C. Recycling used materials D. Replacing metals by other materials □
53.
What is the correct sequence for recycling of metal? A. Collecting
Sorting
Storing
Purifying B. Sorting
Collecting
Storing
Purifying C. Purifying
Collecting
Sorting
Storing D. Storing
Purifying
Collecting
Sorting □
54.
Iron(steel) is used to build Tsing Yi –
Ma Wan Bridge. Iron(steel) is hard and strong. □
55.
Titanium is used to make water pipes. Titanium is very corrosion resistant. □
56.
Copper is used to make cooking pans. Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity. □
57.
Titanium is often used in making cooking utensils. Titanium has an excellent thermal conductivity. □
58.
Aluminium is mainly obtained from haematite. The composition of haematite is mainly aluminium oxide. □
59.
Mercury is obtained by heating mercury(II) oxide. Mercury is an unreactive metal.
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271 60.
Aluminium oxide is extracted by electrolysis. Aluminium oxide has a high melting point. □
61.
Gold was discovered in about 5000 B.C. Gold has a shiny golden yellow colour. □
62.
Aluminium is the cheapest metal on the Earth. Aluminium is the most abundant metal i
n the Earth’s crust.
□
63.
In the view of conservation of metals, aluminium should be recycled. Aluminium is light but strong. □
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277 Chemistry: Chapter 11 Reactivity of metals Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 11 Reactivity of metals 1.
Which of the following factors is/are used to compare reactivity of metals? (1) The rate of reaction (2) The lowest temperature at which the reaction finishes (3) The amount of heat energy given out during reaction A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
2.
Which of the following chemical reactions is correct? A. Silver reacts with water to form silver hydroxide. B. Copper reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to give hydrogen gas. C. Iron reacts with oxygen to form iron(II) iron(III) oxide. D. Aluminium reacts with steam to form aluminium hydroxide. □
3.
Metal X
reacts with water readily while metal Y
and metal Z
do not. Metal Y
reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid but metal Z
does not. Which of the following combinations is correct? Metal X
Metal Y
Metal Z
A. Sodium Calcium Zinc B. Sodium Zinc Iron C. Magnesium Lead Iron D. Calcium Iron Copper □
4.
Which of the following is INCORRECT when some calcium granules are put into cold water? A. The metal sinks. B. An alkaline solution is formed. C. Some colourless gas bubbles are evolved. D. The metal burns with a brick-red flame. □
5.
When a metal with an atomic number of 20 reacts with water, which of the following products will be formed? (1) Metal hydroxide (2) Metal oxide (3) Hydrogen gas A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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278 6.
Calcium sinks when placed in water because A. calcium is denser than water. B. the reaction between calcium and water is too vigorous that the water surface cannot withstand. C. the gas bubbles formed in the reaction push the metal down. D. attraction between water molecules and calcium atoms are greater than tension at water surface. □
7.
Which of the following combinations describing the reaction between sodium and water is correct? Resultant solution Gas evolved A. Acidic Oxygen B. Alkaline Oxygen C. Acidic Hydrogen D. Alkaline Hydrogen □
8.
Which of the following flame colours does NOT match correctly? Metal Flame colour A. Magnesium White B. Calcium Brick-red C. Potassium Lilac D. Sodium Blue □
9.
Which of the following colours does NOT match the corresponding metal oxide? Metal Oxide Colour (when cold) A. Magnesium oxide White B. Copper(II) oxide Blue C. Zinc oxide White D. Lead(II) oxide Yellow □
10.
Sodium and calcium can react with water. Which of the following observations is INCORRECT for both reactions? A. The metals move quickly on the water surface with a hissing sound. B. Colourless gas is produced during their reactions with water. C. The solutions become hot after the reactions. D. The resultant solutions are alkaline. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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279 11.
Consider the following experimental set-up. Metal X is most probably A. Fe B. Cu C. Hg D. Ag □
12.
Which of the following metals gives a white solid oxide when heated in air? A. Aluminium B. Lead C. Iron D. Copper □
13.
Which of the following sets of state symbols is correct for the following reaction? Mg + H
2
O
MgO + H
2 A. (s), (l), (s), (g) B. (s), (g), (s), (g) C. (s), (l), (aq), (g) D. (s), (g), (aq), (g) □
14.
Which of the following equations represents the reaction between sodium and water? A. Na + H
2
O
NaO + H
2 B. 4Na + 2H
2
O
4NaH + O
2 C. 2Na + H
2
O
Na
2
O + H
2 D. 2Na + 2H
2
O
2NaOH + H
2 □
15.
Refer to the following three metals A
, B
and C
. Property Metal A
Metal B
Metal C
Heating in air No observable change Gives a lilac flame A white powder is produced Reaction with cold water No observable change Hydrogen gas is produced No observable change Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid No observable change —
Hydrogen gas is produced Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing reactivity of the metals? A. A
> B
> C
B. C
> A
> B
trough metal X
heat wet sand hydrogen water delivery tube
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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280 C. B
> A
> C
D. B
> C
> A
□
16.
Refer to the following three metals A
, B
and C
. Property Metal A
Metal B
Metal C
Heating in air No observable change Gives a lilac flame A white powder is produced Reaction with cold water No observable change Hydrogen gas is produced No observable change Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid No observable change —
Hydrogen gas is produced A
could be A. potassium. B. magnesium. C. copper. D. platinum. □
17.
Refer to the following three metals A
, B
and C
. Property Metal A
Metal B
Metal C
Heating in air No observable change Gives a lilac flame A white powder is produced Reaction with cold water No observable change Hydrogen gas is produced No observable change Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid No observable change —
Hydrogen gas is produced B
could be A. aluminium. B. calcium. C. potassium. D. sodium. □
18.
Refer to the following three metals A
, B
and C
. Property Metal A
Metal B
Metal C
Heating in air No observable change Gives a lilac flame A white powder is produced Reaction with cold water No observable change Hydrogen gas is produced No observable change Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid No observable change —
Hydrogen gas is produced C
could be A. calcium. B. potassium. C. magnesium. D. lead.
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281 19.
Which of the following chemical equations is correct? A. 2Al(s) + 3H
2
O(g)
Al
2
O
3
(s) + 3H
2
(g) B. 2Al(s) + 6H
2
O(g)
2Al(OH)
3
(s) + 3H
2
(g) C. Al(s) + H
2
O(g)
AlO(s) + H
2
(g) D. 3Al(s) + 2H
2
O(g)
Al
3
O
2
(s) + 2H
2
(g) □
20.
In school laboratory, hydrogen gas can be safely produced by adding dilute sulphuric acid to A. copper. B. lead. C. potassium. D. zinc. □
21.
Which of the following reactions does NOT give hydrogen? A. Adding calcium to cold water. B. Adding zinc to dilute hydrochloric acid. C. Passing steam over hot magnesium. D. Adding iron to cold water. □
22.
Which of the following metals will NOT form oxide(s) when heated strongly in air? (1) Copper (2) Platinum (3) Mercury A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
23.
Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? (1) Gold burns in air with a golden yellow flame under strong heating. (2) Iron reacts with steam to give iron(III) oxide and hydrogen. (3) Calcium burns under strong heating to give oxygen. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
24.
Which of the following metals react with steam under room conditions? (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) Zinc A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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282 D. (1), (2) and (3) □
25.
Which of the following metals would NOT react with dilute sulphuric acid under room conditions? (1) Sodium (2) Copper (3) Silver A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
26.
Which of the following statements concerning the reactions of zinc are INCORRECT? (1) Zinc reacts with hot water to give zinc oxide and hydrogen. (2) Zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to give hydrogen. (3) Zinc burns in air to give oxygen under very strong heating. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
27.
Which of the following metals do NOT burn on strong heating? (1) Lead (2) Silver (3) Platinum A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
28.
Which of the following sets of state symbols is correct for the following reaction? potassium + water
potassium hydroxide + hydrogen A. (s), (aq), (aq), (g) B. (s), (l), (l), (g) C. (s), (l), (aq), (g) D. (s), (l), (aq), (aq) □
29.
Given three metals, X
, Y
and Z
. The table below lists the results of their reactions with different substances. X Y Z Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid explosive reaction slow reaction steady reaction Reaction with steam vigorous reaction ? no reaction
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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283 Reaction with cold water steady reaction no reaction no reaction Arrange the reactivity of X
, Y
, and Z
in descending order. A. X
, Z
, Y B. Y
, Z
, X C. X
, Y
, Z D. Z
, Y
, X □
30.
Given three metals, X
, Y
and Z
. The table below lists the results of their reactions with different substances. X Y Z Reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid explosive reaction slow reaction steady reaction Reaction with steam vigorous reaction ? no reaction Reaction with cold water steady reaction no reaction no reaction Which of the following is the probable result when Y
reacts with steam? A. No reaction B. Slow reaction C. Steady reaction D. Explosive reaction □
31.
Arrange the following metals in descending order of reactivity: calcium, lead, copper, magnesium A. copper, lead, magnesium, calcium B. calcium, magnesium, lead, copper C. magnesium, calcium, lead, copper D copper, lead, calcium, magnesium □
32.
Which of the following statements about the reactivity series is correct? A. Density of metals decreases down the reactivity series. B. Metals in the reactivity series are in the same group of the Periodic Table. C. Reactivity of metals decreases down the series. D. The number of outermost shell electrons of metals decreases down the series. □
33.
Metals X
and Y are extracted by electrolysis from their ores. Metal X
reacts with cold water while metal Y
does not. Metal Z
is low in the reactivity series and forms a yellow oxide when cold. Which of the following combinations about metals X
, Y
and Z
is correct? Metal X
Metal Y
Metal Z
A. Sodium Aluminium Lead B. Potassium Calcium Zinc C. Calcium Zinc Iron D. Zinc Iron Copper
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284 34.
Both magnesium and carbon can reduce iron(III) oxide to iron, but carbon is used to extract iron instead of magnesium. Which of the following explanations are correct? (1) Carbon is much cheaper than magnesium. (2) Magnesium is more expensive than iron. (3) Carbon dioxide formed will escape and will not mix with iron. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
35.
Chromium reacts with lead(II) sulphate to give lead. It also reacts with dilute sulphuric acid but does not react with cold water. The position of chromium in the metal reactivity series is probably placed A. above magnesium. B. between magnesium and lead. C. between lead and mercury. D. below mercury. □
36.
Which of the following substances CANNOT reduce hot lead(II) oxide to lead? A. Carbon monoxide B. Magnesium C. Coke D. Copper □
37.
Which of the following statements about reactivity of metals is correct? A. The more reactive a metal is, the easier it loses electron(s) to form anions. B. The reactivity of metal decreases when moving down the group in the Periodic Table. C. The reactivity of metal increases rightward across a period in Periodic Table. D. The more reactive a metal is, the more stable compounds it forms. □
38.
Which of the following explanations about the fact that potassium is more reactive than sodium is correct? A. Potassium is heavier than sodium. B. Potassium atom is larger than sodium atom. C. The outermost shell electron of potassium is easier to be lose than that of sodium. D. Potassium has one more proton in the nucleus than that of sodium. □
39.
When copper forms copper(II) oxide, it A. gains electrons and is oxidized. B. gains electrons and is reduced. C. loses electrons and is oxidized. D. loses electrons and is reduced.
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
285 40.
When a piece of magnesium is immersed into a beaker of copper(II) sulphate solution, which of the following will happen? A. Magnesium dissolves because copper(II) sulphate solution is corrosive. B. A black solid forms. C. The solution becomes paler in colour. D. Gas bubbles evolved. □
41.
Metal Y
can displace the ions of metal Z
from the aqueous solution of a compound of metal Z
. It can be concluded that A. Metal Y
is more reactive than metal Z
. B. Metal Y
is less reactive than metal Z
. C. Metal Y
is heavier than metal Z
. D. Metal Y
is more soluble than metal Z
. □
42.
Which of the following reactions is expected to take place? A. Pb(s) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
Pb(OH)
2
(aq) + SO
2
(g) B. Fe(s) + 2NaNO
3
(aq)
Fe(NO
3
)
2
(aq) + 2Na(s) C. Cu(s) + H
2
O(l)
CuO(aq) + H
2
(g) D. 2Rb(s) + 2H
2
O(g)
2RbOH(aq) + H
2
(g) (given: Rb is an element in the same group with K and Na) □
43.
Consider the diagrams shown below. Which of the following combinations is correct? rod of metal Z
Metal W
displaced aqueous metal W
salt solution rod of metal W
Metal X
displaced aqueous metal X
salt solution rod of metal X
Metal Y
displaced aqueous metal Y
salt solution
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
286 W X Y Z A. Lead Copper Zinc Iron B. Copper Zinc Iron Lead C. Zinc Iron Lead Copper D. Iron Lead Copper Zinc □
44.
A piece of zinc is placed in a silver nitrate solution. Which of the following about the colour change of the solution is correct? A. Blue colour disappears slowly. B. It turns to pale blue quickly. C. It turns to milky. D. There is no colour change. □
45.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to release chlorine. B. Aluminium was discovered later than zinc. C. Iron does not displace magnesium because it is less reactive than magnesium. D. Lead(II) oxide is orange when hot and yellow when cold. □
46.
Metal A
reacts with cold water to give hydrogen, but metals B
and C
do not. Metal B
can displace the ions of metal C
in aqueous solution. Which of the following gives the correct order of increasing reactivity of the three metals? A. B
< C
< A
B. C
< B
< A
C. C
< A
< B
D. A
< B
< C
□
47.
In which of the following test tubes will a reaction take place? A. iron(III) nitrate solution copper B. potassium nitrate solution zinc C. magnesium nitrate solution copper D. silver nitrate solution lead □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
287 48.
Consider the results of displacement reactions of four metals, A
, B
, C
and D
. Metal Solution of nitrate of A B C D A —
No Yes No B Yes —
Yes Yes C No No —
No D Yes No Yes —
The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals is A. D >
A
>
C >
B
. B. B
> D
> A
> C
. C. C
> A
> D
> B
. D. B
> A
> D >
C
. □
49.
X
, Y
and Z
are metals. Carbon at red hot will remove oxygen from the oxides of X
and Y
, but not from that of Z
. X
displaces Y
from a solution of the nitrate of Y
. In which of the following are the metals arranged in the correct order of decreasing reactivity? A. Z
, X
, Y
B. Z
, Y
, X
C. X
, Y
, Z
D. Y
, X
, Z
□
50.
Which of the following ionic equations can be used to represent the reaction between calcium and zinc sulphate solution? A. Zn(s) + Ca
2+
(aq)
Zn
2+
(aq) + Ca(s) B. Ca(s) + Zn
2+
(aq)
Ca
2+
(aq) + Zn(s) C. Ca(s) + SO
4
2−
(aq)
CaSO
4
(aq) D. Zn(s) + SO
4
2−
(aq)
ZnSO
4
(aq) □
51.
Which of the following represents the ionic equation for the reaction between magnesium and silver nitrate solution? A. Mg(s) + 2Ag
+
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s) B. Mg(s) + Ag
+
(aq)
Mg
+
(aq) + Ag(s) C. 2Mg(s) + Ag
2+
(aq)
2Mg
+
(aq) + Ag(s) D. Mg(s) + Ag
2+
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + Ag(s) □
52.
Which of the following equations represents a displacement reaction that is NOT possible at room conditions? A. Ca(s) + Mg
2+
(aq)
Ca
2+
(aq) + Mg(s) B. Mg(s) + Fe
2+
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + Fe(s) C. Cu(s) + Zn
2+
(aq)
Cu
2+
(aq) + Zn(s) D. Pb(s) + 2Ag
+
(aq)
Pb
2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s) □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
288 53.
A small amount of calcium oxide is heated in a test tube. The masses of the content and the test tube are recorded at several time intervals, and the data are sketched. Which of the following graphs best represents the data recorded? A. B. C. D. □
54.
Which of the following statements about the metal reactivity series is INCORRECT? A. Metals at the top of the series are the most reactive. B. Metals at a higher position in the series can displace ions of metals at a lower position from their aqueous solution. C. Metals at a position higher than copper in the series can react with dilute hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen. D. Metals at the top of the series are easier to extract from their ores. □
55.
Gold is golden yellow in colour. Gold is an unreactive metal. □
56.
Sodium burns with a golden yellow flame in air. Sodium is a very reactive metal. □
57.
Calcium is stored in paraffin oil. Calcium reacts with oxygen in air. □
58.
Magnesium can reduce copper(II) oxide on heating. Magnesium is more reactive than copper. □
59.
Copper can dissolve in silver nitrate solution. Copper displaces the silver metal from the silver nitrate solution. □
Mass of CaO Time Mass of CaO Time Mass of CaO Time Mass of CaO Time
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
289 60.
A metal lower in the reactivity series can displace the metal higher in the series from its aqueous solution. A more reactive metal loses electrons more easily. □
61.
Silver will displace copper from copper(II) sulphate solution. Silver is an unreactive metal. □
62.
Silver oxide is decomposed on strong heating. Silver is an unreactive metal. □
63.
The lower the position of a metal in the reactivity series, the latest it was first discovered. The less reactive the metal, the more stable compounds it forms. □
64.
Silver was discovered much earlier than sodium. Silver is less reactive than sodium. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
295 Chemistry: Chapter 12 Reacting masses Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 12 Reacting masses 1.
1 mole of calcium chloride contains A. 1 mole of calcium chloride molecules. B. 6.02
10
23
calcium atoms and 2 × 6.02
10
23
chlorine atoms. C. 2
1
6.02
10
23
calcium ions and 6.02
10
23
chloride ions. D. 6.02
10
23
calcium ions and 2
6.02
10
23
chloride ions. □
2.
Which of the following is the unit for formula mass? A. Gram B. Mole C. No unit D. Mass unit □
3.
What is the molar mass of tetrachloromethane, CCl
4
? A. 1.0 mol B. 1.0 g mol
C. 154.0 mol D. 154.0 g mol
□
4.
Which of the following substances contains the least number of ions? A. 0.7 mole of Na
2
O B. 0.9 mole of CaO C. 0.5 mole of Al
2
O
3 D. 0.8 mole of MgCl
2 □
5.
Which of the following statements is correct about 0.4 mole of aluminium oxide? A. There are 0.4 mole of Al
2+
ions and 0.4 mole of O
2
−
ions. B. There are 0.8 mole of Al
+
ions and 0.4 mole of O
2
−
ions. C. There are 0.8 mole of Al
3+ ions and 1.2 moles of O
2
−
ions. D. There are 1.2 moles of Al
3+ ions and 0.8 mole of O
2
−
ions. □
6.
A mixture of copper(II) sulphate and copper(II) bromide contains 0.3 mole of sulphate ions and 0.6 mole of bromide ions. How many moles of copper(II) ions are in the mixture? A. 0.6 mol B. 0.8 mol C. 0.9 mol D. 1.1 mol □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
296 7.
Which of the following statements is correct? A. One mole of oxygen gas contains the same number of atoms as there are in one mole of neon gas at room conditions. B. One mole of magnesium contains the same number of atoms as there are in one mole of iodine at room conditions. C. One mole of chlorine gas and one mole of bromine gas have the same number of molecules and atoms. D. One mole of sodium has the same mass as there are in one mole of potassium. □
8.
What is the mass of 2.3 moles of aluminium oxide? A. 124.8 g B. 234.6 g C. 367.5 g D. 417.4 g □
9.
M
is a metal in Group I. 0.5 mole of the metal sulphate weighs 71.05 g. Find the relative atomic mass of M
. A. 19.0 B. 23.0 C. 27.0 D. 31.0 □
10.
Which of the following substances has the smallest mass? A. 0.8 mole of CaBr
2 B. 1 mole of C
4
H
10 C. 1.5 moles of Fe
2
O
3 D. 1.9 moles of K □
11.
How many shared electrons in 35.5 g of chlorine gas at room conditions? A. 1.51
10
23 B. 3.01
10
23 C. 6.02
10
23 D. 1.20
10
24 □
12.
How many moles of aluminium ions are present in 17.12 g of aluminium sulphate? A. 0.005 mol B. 0.01 mol C. 0.05 mol D. 0.1 mol □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
297 13.
Calculate the mass of sulphur which contains the same number of atoms as 8.1 g of magnesium does? A. 5.3 g B. 10.7 g C. 16.0 g D. 21.4 g □
14.
Which of the following substances contains the same number of ions as 2.34 g of sodium chloride does? A. 2.984 g of potassium chloride B. 3.125 g of zinc chloride C. 3.598 g of calcium sulphate D. 5.529 g of magnesium bromide □
15.
If 2.4 g of oxygen contains x
atoms at room conditions, then how many atoms are present in 12.0 g of helium? A. 5
x B. 10
x C. 20
x D. 30
x □
16.
If 1 mole of X
O
3 contains the same number of atoms as 72 g of X
H
4
, What is the relative atomic mass of X
? A. 72.0 B. 86.0 C. 90.0 D. 102.0 □
17.
If two moles of ozone, O
3
contain y
atoms, how many atoms are present in one mole of oxygen gas? A. 3
2
y
B. 3
y
C. 2
y
D. 6
y
□
18.
Which of the following statements are about one mole of propane, C
3
H
8
, and one mole of propene, C
3
H
6
, is correct? A. They have equal masses. B. They have the same number of molecules. C. They have the same number of atoms. D. They have the same boiling point.
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
298 19.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. One mole of carbon has a mass of 12.0 g. B. The mass of one mole of chlorine gas equals to the relative atomic mass of chlorine in grams. C. One mole of sodium chloride contains two moles of ions. D. 1 dm
3
of a 1.0 mol dm
−
3
bromine liquid has one mole of bromine molecules. □
20.
What is the mass of two moles of chlorine molecules? A. 70.0 g B. 71.0 g C. 84.0 g D. 142.0 g □
21.
What is the number of moles of carbon atoms in 4.7 g of ethane, C
2
H
6
? A. 0.182 mol B. 0.283 mol C. 0.278 mol D. 0.314 mol □
22.
What is the formula mass of iron(II) sulphate-7-water, FeSO
4
∙ 7H
2
O? A. 151.9 B. 169.9 C. 229.9 D. 277.9 □
23.
What is the number of moles of 160.0 g sodium hydroxide? A. 0.25 mol B. 1 mol C. 4 mol D. 40 mol □
24.
How many moles of calcium ions are present in 200.2 g of calcium carbonate? A. 0.5 mol B. 1 mol C. 2 mol D. 4 mol □
25.
One mole of a substance A. has the same relative atomic mass as carbon-12. B. is the amount containing the Avogadro constant of formula units. C. contains 6.02 × 10
23
atoms. D. is the smallest amount of a substance which could exist on its own under room conditions. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
299 26.
One mole of sodium oxide contains A. 1 mole of molecules. B. 2 moles of anions. C. 2 moles of cations. D. 4 moles of ions. □
27.
The formula mass of a compound A. is measured in grams. B. has a unit of g mol
−
1
. C. is always a whole number. D. is the mass of one formula unit of the compound on the 12
C = 12.000 00 scale. □
28.
A mixture of magnesium chloride and magnesium sulphate contains 0.6 mole of chloride ions and 0.2 mole of sulphate ions. The number of moles of magnesium ions present is A. 0.4 mol. B. 0.5 mol. C. 0.8 mol. D. 1.0 mol. □
29.
Which of the following represents the mass of an oxygen molecule? A. 16.0 g B. 16.0 × 2 g C. 23
10
6.02
16.0
g D. 23
10
6.02
2
16.0
g □
30.
What is the percentage by mass of chlorine in 11.8 g of aluminium chloride? A. 20.2% B. 56.8% C. 72.4% D. 79.8% □
31.
What is the percentage by mass of C in C
6
H
12
O
6
? A. 37.5% B. 40.0% C. 50.0% D. 67.5% □
32.
What is the mass of iron in 15 g of iron(II) sulphate-7-water, FeSO
4
∙
7H
2
O? A. 0.2 g B. 3.0 g C. 6.2 g D. 20.0 g
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
300 33.
The chloride of a metal X
has the formula X
Cl
3
and contains 65.6% by mass of chloride. Find the relative atomic mass of X
. A. 12.2 B. 18.6 C. 34.4 D. 55.8 □
34.
Given that the relative atomic mass of X
is 48.0. What is the percentage by mass of X
in Ca
X
2
O
7
? A. 33.31% B. 38.69% C. 46.11% D. 47.98% □
35.
An element forms a compound X
2
Cl
3
which contains 25% by mass of chlorine. What is the relative atomic mass of the element X
? A. 39.9 B. 79.9 C. 106.5 D. 159.8 □
36.
An ore sample contained 60% Al
2
O
3
by mass. The other ingredients did not contain aluminium. Which of the following was the percentage by mass of aluminium in the sample? A. 24.0% B. 31.8% C. 52.9% D. 60.0% □
37.
An element X
forms an oxide X
2
O which contains 11.2% of oxygen by mass. The relative atomic mass of X
is A. 14.0. B. 23.0. C. 63.4. D. 108.0. □
38.
Which of the following is a molecular formula? A. Mg B. CH
4 C. NaCl D. NH
4
Cl □
39.
Which of the following is the structural formula of a molecule? A. K
+
Cl
−
B. O=C=O C. CH
2
O
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
301 D. CCl
4 □
40.
Which of the following is the ionic formula of iron(II) sulphate-7-water? A. FeSO
4
∙
7H
2
O B. Fe
2+
SO
4
−
∙
7H
2
O C. FeSO
11
H
14 D. Fe(H
2
O)
7
2+
SO
4
−
□
41.
What is the empirical formula for a compound having the following composition by mass? Element Composition by mass (%) Aluminium 15.79% Sulphur 28.07% Oxygen 56.14% A. Al
2
S
3
O
9 B. Al
2
S
3
O
12 C. AlSO
4 D. Al
2
SO
4 □
42.
What is the empirical formula for a compound having 92.3% by mass of carbon and 7.7% by mass of hydrogen? A. CH
2 B. C
2
H C. C
2
H
2 D. CH □
43.
A compound is formed when 40.0 g of element X
reacts completely with 69.0 g of element Y
. What is the empirical formula of the compound? (Given that the relative atomic masses of X
and Y
are 20.0 and 23.0 respectively.) A. X
2
Y
3 B. X
3
Y
2 C. XY
D. XY
3 □
44.
13.70 g of an oxide of metal X
(relative atomic mass = 207.0) reacts with excess hydrogen to produce 1.44 g of water. What is the empirical formula of the oxide? A. X
O B. X
O
2
C. X
2
O D. X
3
O
4
□
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
302 45.
Complete combustion of 1.86 g of an organic compound Y
gave 2.64 g of carbon dioxide and 1.62 g of water as the only products. If the relative molecular mass of Y
is equal to 62, what is its molecular formula? A. C
2
H
6
O
2 B. CH
3
O C. CHO D. C
3
H
9
O
3 □
46.
Which of the following data are necessary for the determination of the molecular formula of a compound containing carbon and hydrogen only? (1) The formula mass of the compound (2) The composition by mass of the compound (3) The relative atomic masses of carbon and hydrogen A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. All of them □
47.
20.7 g of lead metal reacts with excess oxygen gas to form lead(II) oxide on strong heating. What is the mass of this solid product formed? A. 11.1 g B. 22.3 g C. 33.4 g D. 44.6 g □
48.
The mass of zinc oxide required to obtain 0.8 mole of zinc by carbon reduction is A. 3.26 g. B. 6.51 g. C. 32.6 g. D. 65.1 g. □
49.
3.9 g of potassium reacts with excess water. What is the mass of the gaseous product formed? A. 0.1 g B. 0.2 g C. 1.0 g D. 2.0 g □
50.
M
is a metal discovered recently. 19.2 g of M
reacts completely with 4.8 g of oxygen to form an oxide, M
2
O. Find the relative atomic mass of M
. A. 24.0 B. 28.0 C. 32.0 D. 64.0 □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
303 51.
To reduce 7.2 g of iron(III) oxide completely, how many grams of carbon is required? A. 0.52 g B. 0.81 g C. 1.36 g D. 2.20 g □
52.
The mass of calcium is twice as that of chlorine in calcium chloride. In one mole of calcium chloride, there are one mole of calcium ions and two moles of chloride ions. □
53.
12 g of carbon-12 contain 1 mole of carbon-12 atoms. One mole of any substances contains 6.02 × 10
23
particles. □
54.
One mole of water has the same mass as one mole of carbon dioxide. One mole of water contains the same number of atoms as one mole of carbon dioxide. □
55.
NaCl is an empirical formula. NaCl shows the simplest whole number ratio of the ions present. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 313 Chemistry: Chapter 13 Corrosion of metals and their protection Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 13 Corrosion of metals and their protection 1.
Consider the information given in the following table. Metal Appearance (after cleaning) Density Resistance to corrosion P Dull Low High Q Dull High Low R Silvery Low High S Slivery Low Low Which of the following metals is most likely to be sodium? A. Metal P
B. Metal Q
C. Metal R
D. Metal S
□
2.
Which of the following metals is the most corrosion resistant? A. Titanium B. Aluminium C. Gold D. Zinc □
3.
Which of the following metals is the most corrosion resistant? A. Silver B. Gold C. Titanium D. Aluminium □
4.
Which of the following are essential factors for rusting to occur? (1) Oxygen (2) Water (3) High temperature A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
5.
In which of the following tube(s) will the iron nail rust after a few days? (1) (2) (3) A. (1) only iron nail air water air iron nail anhydrous calcium chloride iron nail oil
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 314 B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
6.
A setup is shown below. A piece of iron strip wrapped by moist wool is place inside a test tube. The test tube is inverted in water, trapping air in the tube. What will be the water level after a few days? □
7.
Which of the following is the chemical formula of rust? A. Fe B. FeO C. Fe
2
O
3 D. Fe
2
O
3
∙
nH
2
O □
8.
Under which situation would a piece of iron rust faster? A. Placed in desert B. Completely wrapped with tin C. Placed near seashore D. Painted □
9.
Which of the following statements CANNOT explain the rapid rusting of iron car exhaust pipes? A. Exhaust gases contain water vapour. B. Car exhaust pipes are under high temperature. C. Exhaust gases contain much oxygen. D. Exhaust gases usually contain acidic compounds. □
iron strip wrapped with moist wool air water water level at the beginning of the experiment A B C D
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 315 10.
Four set-ups are shown below. Arrange the rates of rusting of the four iron nails in ascending order. A. B. C. D. A. C, B, D, A B. B, C, A, D C. B, D, A, C D. D, A, C, B □
11.
Consider the following diagrams. In which set-up would iron rust fastest? A. B. C. D. □
12.
Iron will rust at the fastest rate when connected to A. magnesium. B. zinc. C. lead. D. copper. □
13.
Iron rusts faster at high temperatures because A. high temperatures change the chemical properties of iron. B. high temperatures speed up the rate of chemical reactions. anhydrous calcium chloride cotton wool iron nail sea water iron nail distilled water iron nail oil layer boiled distilled water iron nail Cu Iron nail dilute NaCl(aq) Zn Iron nail dilute NaCl(aq) Mg Iron nail dilute NaCl(aq) Iron nail dilute NaCl(aq)
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 316 C. air contains a higher oxygen content at high temperatures. D. iron gains electrons more readily at high temperatures. □
14.
Which of the following would speed up rusting of iron? (1) Connecting iron to copper (2) Adding iron to hot water (3) Adding iron to acidic solutions A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
15.
Car exhaust pipes made of iron rust rapidly. Which of the following are correct reasons? (1) Car exhaust pipes are subject to high temperatures. (2) Car exhausts contain water vapour. (3) Car exhausts contain acidic gases. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
16.
At which positions of an iron nail would rusting go faster? (1) Tip (2) Shank (3) Bending areas A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
17.
‘
Tin is used to coat with iron food cans
’
. Which of the following about this statement is correct? A. Tin can do sacrificial protection. B. Tin is poisonous. C. Tin forms a protective oxide layer to keep water and oxygen away from iron. D. Tin gives an attractive appearance to the food cans. □
18.
Which of the following metals can prevent iron from rusting by sacrificial protection? A. Zinc B. Lead C. Copper D. Silver □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 317 19.
Which of the following is the best method to prevent a small iron moving part in a machine from rusting? A. Paint its surface. B. Place a piece of zinc close to it. C. Add oil on its surface. D. Coat it with plastic. □
20.
Which of the following is/are disadvantage(s) of coating tin on iron food cans? (1) Tin is toxic. (2) Iron will rust quickly if the tin layer is scratched. (3) It is difficult to paint tin. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
21.
Zinc, but not tin, is usually used to coat the surface of an iron tool because A. zinc is poisonous while tin is non-poisonous. B. the underlying iron does not rust easily even if the zinc surface is damaged. C. galvanizing is cheaper than tin-plating. D. the extraction cost of zinc is lower than that of tin. □
22.
Painting is not a good method for protecting a bicycle chain from rusting because A. once the paint sticks to the bicycle chain, it is difficult to remove. B. compounds in the painting layer react with iron. C. the bicycle chain does not need attractive colour. D. the paint would be scratched off easily. □
23.
Which of the following methods is/are suitable to protect iron ship body from rusting? (1) Painting (2) Tin-plating (3) Galvanizing A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
24.
Which of the following statements about electroplating is INCORRECT? A. The object to be electroplated makes the anode. B. Electrop
lating can improve the object’s appearance.
C. Metals low in the reactivity series are usually used as plating materials. D. Chromium can be used to plate objects in electroplating. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 318 25.
In which of the following situations will the iron nail rust most rapidly? A. Nail is wrapped with a magnesium ribbon
B. Nail is wrapped with a copper C. Nail is covered with grease
D. □
26.
Pieces of metal are usually attached to the hull of a ship to protect it from rusting. The metal could be A. silver. B. potassium. C. tin. D. zinc. □
27.
Which of the following methods can be used to prevent iron wheels in a machine from rusting? A. Painting B. Oiling C. Chromium-plating D. Coating with plastic □
28.
Which of the following methods could NOT protect iron from rusting? A. Iron is coated with an oxide layer. B. Iron is alloyed with chromium. C. Iron is connected to magnesium. D. Iron is coated with plastic. □
29.
Stainless steel is not used to make large objects because A. stainless steel is easier to corrode in large objects. B. stainless steel is too expensive. C. stainless steel is in l
ow abundance in the Earth’s crust.
D. stainless steel is too soft. □
30.
Which of the following are the advantages of plating iron with chromium? (1) It gives a beautiful shiny appearance. (2) It protects iron from rusting. (3) It becomes more malleable and ductile. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only Nail is untreated
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 319 D. (1), (2) and (3) □
31.
Although iron corrodes more easily than a number of other metals, it is widely used in construction and transport. This is because (1) iron is the cheapest metal. (2) iron is strong. (3) there are methods of preventing or slowing down rusting. (4) iron is the most ductile and malleable. Which of the following combinations is correct? A. (1) and (2) only B. (3) and (4) only C. (1), (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) □
32.
Which of the following are commonly used to coat iron to prevent rusting? (1) Sodium (2) Aluminium (3) Zinc (4) Tin A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only □
33.
Which of the following methods CANNOT prevent iron from rusting? A. Iron alloyed with chromium B. Iron coated with paint C. Iron coated with grease D. Iron connected by a wire to a tin plate □
34.
The following experiments were set up to investigate the corrosion of an iron nail (in the figure below). In which situation would the nail corrode most rapidly? A. B. sea water magnesium nail nail zinc plate sea water
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 320 C. D. □
35.
Which of the following statements about rusting is INCORRECT? A. The chemical formula of rust is Fe
2
O
3
∙
nH
2
O. B. Rusting causes great economic losses. C Corrosion of aluminium is also called rusting. D Acid rain speeds up rusting. □
36.
Aluminium is resistant to corrosion because A. it is unreactive. B. there is a protective hydroxide layer on its surface. C. there is a protective oxide layer on its surface. D. it corrodes so slowly that it cannot be noticed. □
37.
Which of the following statements about galvanizing is correct? A. Zinc is used as it is more reactive than iron. B. Zinc is used as it is harder than iron. C. Aluminium is used as it has a protective oxide layer. D. Aluminium is used as it provides an attractive appearance. □
38.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. Rusting goes faster in summer than in winter. B. Rust indicator turns blue if it contacts with Fe
2+
(aq) ions. C. Rusting can be prevented by anodizing the iron objects. D. An iron nail does not rust in vacuum. □
39.
Which of the following substances corrodes most easily? A. Stainless steel B. Aluminium C. Iron D. Tin □
40.
Both iron and aluminium react with air to form oxides. Aluminium oxide can form a protective oxide layer, while iron(III) oxide cannot. It is because A. aluminium is more reactive than iron. B. iron(III) oxide is corrosive to iron. nail iron plate tap water tap water iron plate nail
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 321 C. iron(III) oxide layer flakes off easily. D. aluminium has a smaller atomic number than iron does. □
41.
Which of the following substances are NOT made of anodized aluminium? A. Window frames B. Saucepans C. Bottle caps D. Electrical wires □
42.
After anodizing, aluminium metal A. becomes stronger. B. has a thinner aluminium hydroxide layer on its surface. C. becomes more resistant to corrosion. D. has a more attractive appearance. □
43.
Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of anodizing aluminium? (1) It makes aluminium stronger. (2) It enables dyeing on the metal surface. (3) It increases the percentage of oxygen in a piece of aluminium. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
44.
Which of the following statements about aluminium is INCORRECT? A. Anodized aluminium can be dyed easily. B. The oxide layer of aluminium can be thickened by further reaction with air. C. Aluminium can be extracted by electrolysis of its molten ore. D. Aluminium reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to give hydrogen. □
45.
Which of the following methods can be used to prevent iron from rusting? (1) Anodizing (2) Electroplating (3) Galvanizing A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
46.
Aluminium metal is protected by anodizing. This process adds A. aluminium. B. zinc. C. oxygen. D. grease. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part III Metals © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009 322 47.
An iron nail kept in the moon will not rust at all. Rusting only occurs when both oxygen and water are present. □
48.
Tin-plating can be used to prevent iron cans from rusting. Tin corrodes less readily than iron. □
49.
Tin blocks are often attached to the steel legs of offshore oil platforms. Tin is more reactive than iron. □
50.
Galvanized iron is not used for making food cans. Zinc ions are poisonous. □
51.
Iron does not rust when it is connected to silver. Silver protects iron from rusting by sacrificial protection. □
52.
Tin protects iron from rusting by sacrificial protection. Tin loses electrons more easily than iron and prevents iron from forming Fe
2+
(aq) ions. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
1
Multiple Choice Questions Chemistry: Chapter 14 Introduction to acids and alkalis Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 14 Introduction to acids and alkalis 1.
Which of the following combinations about acids is INCORRECT? Acids Present in A. Sulphuric acid Gastric juice B. Citric acid Orange juice C. Ethanoic acid Vinegar D. Carbonic acid Soft drinks □
2.
Which of the following acids is commonly found in lemon? A. Ethanoic acid B. Ascorbic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Lactic acid □
3.
Which of the following acids is/ are organic acid(s)? (1) Carbonic acid (2) Ethanoic acid (3) Citric acid A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
4.
Which of the following acids is a mineral acid? A. Ethanoic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Citric acid D. Oxalic acid □
5.
Which of the following are the characteristic properties of acids? (1) They react with potassium carbonate to form carbon dioxide and water. (2) They react with copper to form hydrogen and a salt. (3) They produce hydrogen ions in aqueous solution. A. (1) and (2) only
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
2
B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
Solid
X
can react with dilute sulphuric acid but will NOT give water as one of the products. What is X
? A. Zinc hydroxide B. Magnesium oxide C. Potassium carbonate D. Calcium chloride □
7.
Which of the following statements about pure citric acid at room conditions is correct? A. It is a white crystalline solid. B. It is a colourless liquid. C. It is a colourless gas. D. It is a colourless solution. □
8.
Which of the following statements about pure acids is correct? A. All are covalent compounds. B. All contain hydrogen ions. C. All are liquids at room conditions. D. All have sour smell. □
9.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of dilute aqueous acids? A. It turns wet blue litmus paper red. B. It reacts with copper to give hydrogen. C. It conducts electricity. D. It reacts with copper(II) carbonate to give carbon dioxide. □
10.
Which of the following reactions will NOT produce a gas? A. Reacting zinc with dilute sulphuric acid B. Reacting copper(II) carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid C. Heating silver oxide in air D. Reacting copper with steam □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
3
11.
Which of the following equations represents a reaction which is impossible to take place? A. Cu(OH)
2
+ H
2
SO
4
CuSO
4
+ 2H
2
O B. CuO + 2HNO
3
Cu(NO
3
)
2
+ H
2
O C. Cu + 2HCl
CuCl
2
+ H
2
D. CuCO
3
+ 2CH
3
COOH
(CH
3
COO)
2
Cu + H
2
O + CO
2
□
12.
Which of the following substances reacts with hydrochloric acid to give hydrogen? A. Calcium carbonate B. Mercury C. Iron D. Magnesium hydroxide □
13.
Under suitable conditions, hydrochloric acid reacts with each of the following substances. Which substance reacts to give a colourless solution? A. CuCO
3
B. Fe(OH)
3
C. MgCO
3
D. AgNO
3
□
14.
Two solutions were mixed in a beaker. The mass of the beaker and contents was then noted at various times. The mass of the beaker and contents is plotted against time as below. What could the two solutions be? A. Sodium chloride solution and iron(II) sulphate solution B. Potassium hydroxide solution and aluminium nitrate solution C. Potassium carbonate solution and dilute hydrochloric acid D. Dilute nitric acid and magnesium sulphate solution Mass of the beaker and contents Time
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
4
□
15.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of acids in aqueous solution? A. They react with all metals to give hydrogen. B. They liberate carbon dioxide from metal carbonates. C. They have a pH value smaller than 7. D. They turn blue litmus paper red. □
16.
Which of the following salts CANNOT be prepared by reacting a metal with a dilute acid? A. Silver chloride B. Zinc sulphate C. Lead(II) nitrate D. Iron(II) sulphate □
17.
Which of the following combinations of the reagents will NOT produce a gas? A. magnesium + steam B. zinc + solid citric acid C. iron + orange juice D. calcium + water □
18.
Which of the following ionic equations correctly shows the reaction between sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide? A. 2Na
+
(aq) + SO
4
2
(aq)
Na
2
SO
4
(aq) B. H
+
(aq) + OH
(aq)
H
2
O(l) C. 2NaOH(aq) + SO
4
2
(aq)
Na
2
SO
4
(aq) + 2OH
(aq) D. 2Na
+
(aq) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
Na
2
SO
4
(aq) + 2H
+
(aq) □
19.
Which of the following ionic equations correctly shows the reaction between magnesium and dilute sulphuric acid? A. Mg(s) + SO
4
2
(aq)
MgSO
4
(aq) B. Mg(s) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + SO
4
2
(aq) + H
2
(g) C. Mg(s) + 2H
+
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + H
2
(g) D. Mg
2+
(aq) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
MgSO
4
(aq) + H
2
(g) □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
5
20.
Which of the following statements about solid citric acid in methylbenzene is/ are correct? (1) It turns dry blue litmus paper red. (2) When anhydrous calcium carbonate is added, carbon dioxide is not evolved. (3) It can conduct electricity. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
21.
Which of the following substances is/ are usu
ally present in ‘fizzy drink’ tablets?
(1) Citric acid (2) Ethanoic acid (3) Sodium hydrogencarbonate A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
22.
Which of the following states of hydrogen chloride will NOT turn dry blue litmus paper red? (1) HCl gas (2) HCl in water (3) HCl in methylbenzene A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
23.
Which of the following acids is NOT a dibasic acid? A. Sulphuric acid B. Ethanoic acid C. Carbonic acid D. Oxalic acid □
24.
What is the basicity of CH
3
COOH? A. 1 B. 2
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
6
C. 3 D. 4 □
25.
Which of the following statements concerning ethanoic acid are correct? (1) It cannot be completely neutralized by sodium hydroxide. (2) Some colourless gas will be given out when it reacts with calcium granules. (3) It is a monobasic acid. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
26.
Which of the following substances is found in window cleaners? A. Ammonia B. Sodium hydroxide C. Hydrochloric acid D. Calcium hydroxide □
27.
Limewater is a dilute aqueous solution of A. calcium oxide. B. calcium carbonate. C. calcium hydroxide. D. calcium chloride. □
28.
Which of the following household cleaners contain alkalis? (1) Oven cleaners (2) Window cleaners (3) Drain cleaners A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
29.
Which of the following compounds is a soluble base? A. Lead(II) oxide B. Iron(II) sulphate C. Potassium hydroxide D. Zinc oxide
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
7
□
30.
Which of the following statements shows that calcium hydroxide is a base? A. Anhydrous calcium hydroxide decomposes to calcium oxide and water on heating. B. Anhydrous calcium hydroxide is a white solid. C. Calcium hydroxide is slightly soluble in cold water. D. Calcium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to form a salt and water only. □
31.
Which of the following statements about carbon dioxide is INCORRECT? A. It is a colourless gas. B. It turns limewater milky. C. It relights a glowing splint. D. It dissolves in water to give carbonic acid. □
32.
Which of the following properties does dilute sulphuric acid have? A. It turns universal indicator blue. B. It reacts with all metal carbonates to form aqueous metal sulphates. C. It reacts with zinc to produce hydrogen gas. D. It liberates ammonia from ammonium salts. □
33.
Which of the following statements about calcium hydroxide is INCORRECT? A. It is alkaline. B. It is very soluble in water. C. It is a white solid. D. It reacts with carbon dioxide. □
34.
Limewater is a saturated aqueous solution of A. calcium oxide. B. calcium chloride. C. calcium sulphate. D. calcium hydroxide. □
35.
Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky because A. calcium carbonate is formed. B. calcium oxide is formed. C. carbon dioxide is insoluble in limewater. D. calcium hydroxide is formed.
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
8
□
36.
Which of the following are the characteristic properties of dilute aqueous solution of alkalis? (1) They turn wet red litmus paper blue. (2) They conduct electricity. (3) They have a soapy feel. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
A sample of air was shaken with an alkaline solution of a compound called pyrogallol. The remaining gases collected put off a glowing splint. Which of the following gas(es) is/ are removed by the alkaline pyrogallol? (1) Oxygen (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Nitrogen A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
38.
Which of the following gases is formed when ammonium sulphate is warmed with aqueous potassium hydroxide? A. Carbon dioxide B. Sulphur dioxide C. Nitrogen D. Ammonia □
39.
Which of the following compounds would react with ammonium sulphate on heating? A. Dilute sulphuric acid B. Concentrated hydrochloric acid C. Sodium chloride solution D. Sodium hydroxide solution □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
9
40.
Gas U
is bubbled into a solution of V
as shown in the above diagram. There is a reaction between U
and the solution of V.
Which of the following combinations about U
and V
is correct? U V A. Hydrogen Sodium iodide B. Oxygen Sodium hydroxide C. Chlorine Potassium sulphate D. Sulphur dioxide Sodium hydroxide □
41.
Copper(II) oxide is a base. Calcium hydroxide is an alkali. Which of the following statements is correct for calcium hydroxide but not for copper(II) oxide? A. It contains oxygen. B. It is slightly soluble in water. C. It forms salts with acids. D. It reacts with nitrogen. □
42.
Which of the following is NOT a property of ammonia? A. It is very soluble in water. B. It has an irritating smell. C. It is heavier than air. D. It is colourless. □
43.
Which of the following statements about an ammonia solution is/ are correct? (1) It has a pH value greater than 7. (2) Hydroxide ion concentration is higher than hydrogen ion concentration. (3) It reacts with sodium hydroxide to give ammonia gas. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
U solution of V
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
10
44.
Which of the following statements about a 2 M sodium hydroxide solution is/ are correct? (1) It is acidic. (2) It conducts electricity. (3) It contains 2 M hydroxide ions. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
45.
Which of the following substances can react with limewater to give a white precipitate? (1) Carbon dioxide gas (2) Zinc nitrate solution (3) Iron(II) nitrate solution A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
46.
It is found from experiments that the same copper(II) hydroxide precipitate is formed from copper(II) ions, no matter sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide or ammonia solution is used. It can be concluded that A. all alkalis have the same chemical properties. B. aqueous solutions of different alkalis contain an ion in common −
the OH
−
(aq) ion. C. most metal hydroxides are insoluble in water. D. the most stable copper(II) compound is copper(II) hydroxide. □
47.
Which of the following oxides dissolves in water to form an acidic solution? A. CaO B. SO
2
C. SiO
2
D. Al
2
O
3
□
48.
Which of the following chemicals is/ are alkaline? (1) Sodium hydroxide (2) Magnesium hydroxide
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
11
(3) Ammonia A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
49.
Which of the following substances will NOT react with sodium hydroxide solution? A. Ammonium sulphate B. Iron(III) nitrate C. Nitric acid D. Copper □
50.
Which of the following statements about all alkalis is/ are INCORRECT? (1) They must contain metal ions. (2) They produce hydroxide ions when dissolved in water. (3) Their aqueous solutions turn red litmus blue. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
51.
Which of the following ions when treated with excess aqueous ammonia, gives a clear solution without any precipitates? A. Fe
2+
(aq) B. Al
3+
(aq) C. Cu
2+
(aq) D. Pb
2+
(aq) □
52.
Which of the following oxides reacts with water to form an alkaline solution? A. Aluminium oxide B. Calcium oxide C. Lead(II) oxide D. Iron(III) oxide □
53.
A solution containing one mole of sodium hydroxide is added to a solution containing one mole of iron(II) sulphate. The equation for this reaction is as follows:
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
12
FeSO
4
(aq) + 2NaOH(aq)
Fe(OH)
2
(s) + Na
2
SO
4
(aq) What is the number of moles of iron(II) hydroxide precipitated? A. 1 B. 2 C. 2
1
D. 3
1
□
54.
Which of the following combinations is INCORRECT? Metal hydroxides Colour A. Copper(II) hydroxide Pale blue B. Iron(II) hydroxide Yellow C. Magnesium hydroxide White D. Lead(II) hydroxide White □
55.
Which of the following aqueous solutions will give a coloured precipitate when mixed with ammonia solution? A. Magnesium nitrate B. Iron(III) sulphate C. Sodium hydroxide D. Zinc chloride □
56.
Ammonia gas CANNOT turn dry red litmus paper blue because A. it is an acid. B. it is neutral. C. it contains no OH
ion. D. it contains no H
+
ion. □
57.
Which of the following salts would form an acidic solution when dissolved in water? (1) Ammonium nitrate (2) Iron(III) chloride (3) Potassium iodide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only
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13
C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
58.
Which of the following concentrated acids is/ are corrosive? (1) Nitric acid (2) Ethanoic acid (3) Sulphuric acid A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
59.
Which of the following concentrated acids is/ are usually stored in brown bottle? (1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Nitric acid (3) Sulphuric acid A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 60.
Carbonic acid is an organic acid. It contains carbon. □
61.
Pure sulphuric acid can conduct electricity. Pure sulphuric acid contains hydrogen ions. □
62.
HCl in methylbenzene can turn dry blue litmus paper red. H
+
ions are present when HCl is dissolved in methylbenzene.
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14
□
63.
‘Fizzy drink’ tablets effervesce when they are added to methylbenzene. Hydrogen ions are formed when the tablets are dissolved in methylbenzene. □
64.
The basicity of an acid with formula CH
3
CH
2
COOH is 6. There are 6 hydrogen atoms per molecule that can form 6H
+
ions when dissolved in water. □
65.
Sodium carbonate is a base. It reacts with acid to form salt and water only. □
66.
Aqueous ammonia is an alkali. It is a soluble base. □
67.
Carbon dioxide can turn limewater milky. Calcium carbonate is an insoluble white solid. □
68.
Carbon dioxide can turn sodium hydroxide solution milky. Sodium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form insoluble sodium carbonate. □
69.
Magnesium hydroxide can turn dry red litmus paper blue. Magnesium hydroxide is a soluble base. □
70.
Ammonia solution is alkaline. Ammonia reacts with water to give hydroxide ions (OH
−
(aq)). □
71.
Ammonia solution turns red litmus paper blue. Ammonia reacts with water to give hydroxide ions. □
72.
Concentrated nitric acid is stored in brown bottle. Concentrated nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. □
73.
Concentrated sulphuric acid is highly corrosive. Concentrated sulphuric acid is a very strong dehydrating agent. 74.
Concentrated alkalis have to be handled with great care. They are highly corrosive □
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23
Chemistry: Chapter 15 Concentration of solutions Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 15 Concentration of solutions 1.
Which of the following substances is the most concentrated? A. B. C. D. □
2.
Which of the following solutions contains the largest amount of chloride ions? A. 100 cm
3
of 1 M KCl(aq) B. 70 cm
3
of 2 M NaCl(aq) C. 80 cm
3
of 1 M CaCl
2
(aq) D. 50 cm
3 of 1 M AlCl
3
(aq) □
3.
How many moles of ions are present in 200 cm
3
of 1.5 M (NH
4
)
2
CO
3
? A. 0.3 mole B. 0.9 mole C. 1.2 mole D. 1.5 mole □
4.
What volume of 0.8 M NaOH solution can be prepared from 12 g NaOH? A. 0.375 cm
3
B. 15 cm
3
C. 375 cm
3
D. 1500 cm
3
□
5.
What volume of water has to be added to 200 cm
3
of 0.7 M CaCl
2
solution so as to dilute it to 0.5 M? A. 80 cm
3
B. 100 cm
3
C. 140 cm
3
D. 280 cm
3
100 ml 50 ml 50 ml 100 ml
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24
□
6.
What is the molarity of the resultant MgCl
2
solution formed by mixing 100 cm
3
of 0.5 M MgCl
2
solution and 150 cm
3
of 0.9 M MgCl
2
solution? A. 0.70 M B. 0.74 M C. 1.23 M D. 1.85 M □
7.
What is the concentration of aqueous sodium ions in a 500 cm
3
solution containing 0.585 g of pure sodium chloride? A. 0.01 mol dm
−
3
B. 0.02 mol dm
−
3
C. 0.03 mol dm
−
3
D. 0.04 mol dm
−
3
□
8.
What is the concentration of bromine in a 200 cm
3
solution containing 1.598 g of bromine? A. 0.02 mol dm
−
3
B. 0.04 mol dm
−
3
C. 0.05 mol dm
−
3
D. 0.06 mol dm
−
3 □
9.
A sample of a certain concentrated acid has a density of 1.96 g cm
3
and contains 95.0% of the acid by mass. What is the concentration (correct to one decimal place) of the acid in the sample? (Relative molecular mass of the acid is 100) A. 17.4 M B. 18.2 M C. 18.6 M D. 19.3 M □
10.
A 2.0 M potassium chloride solution is prepared by dissolving 37.3 g of potassium chloride in distilled water. What is the volume of the solution formed? A. 75.0 cm
3
B. 100.0 cm
3
C. 250.0 cm
3
D. 400.0 cm
3 □
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25
11.
Which of the following concentrations is INCORRECT if 10 g of sodium carbonate solid is dissolved in water to give a 500 cm
3
solution? A. 20 g dm
3
B. 0.02 g cm
-3
C. 0.19 mol dm
3
D. 0.24 mol dm
3
□
12.
What volume of 0.05 M Na
2
CO
3 solution can be prepared from 2.65 g of Na
2
CO
3
? A. 0.05 dm
3
B. 500 dm
3
C. 0.5 dm
3
D. 50 cm
3
□
13.
What is the mass of solute in 250.0 cm
3
of 0.50 M HCl(aq)? A. 2.63 g B. 4.75 g C. 5.2 g D. 6.5 g □
14.
Which of the following cases has different masses of solutes in the two solutions? Solution 1 Solution 2 A. 500 cm
3
of 0.50 M Na
2
SO
4
100 cm
3
of 2.50 M Na
2
SO
4
B. 0.25 dm
3
of 0.15 M Na
2
CO
3
0.05 dm
3
of 0.75 M Na
2
CO
3
C. 25 cm
3
of 0.10 M NaOH 0.05 dm
3
of 0.05 M NaOH D. 100 cm
3
of 0.05 M NaCl 0.025 dm
3
of 0.02 M NaCl □
15.
Which of the following statements about a 0.50 M MgCl
2
solution is correct? A. There are 0.50 M Mg
2+
ions and 0.50 M Cl
ions. B. There are 0.50 M Mg
2+
ions and 1.0 M Cl
ions. C. There are 1.0 M Mg
2+
ions and 0.50 M Cl
ions. D. There are 1.0 M Mg
2+
ions and 1.0 M Cl
ions. □
16.
Which of the following information about a 0.025 M sodium carbonate solution is correct? Concentration of Na
+
ions / M Concentration of CO
3
2
ions / M A. 0.025 0.025
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26
B. 0.025 0.05 C. 0.05 0.025 D. 0.05 0.05 □
17.
Which of the following information about the number of moles of ions present in 25 cm
3
of 0.20 M ammonium sulphate solution is correct? Ammonium ion Sulphate ion A. 5 × 10
3
mol 5 × 10
3
mol B. 5 × 10
3
mol 1 × 10
2
mol C. 1 × 10
2
mol 1 × 10
2
mol D. 1 × 10
2
mol 5 × 10
3
mol □
18.
What volume of water has to be added to 250 cm
3
of 0.20 M K
2
CO
3
solution to dilute it to 0.05 M? A. 250 cm
3
B. 500 cm
3
C. 750 cm
3
D. 1000 cm
3
□
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 19.
1 M solution means there is 1 mole of a solute being dissolved in 100 cm
3
of water. A 1 M solution is more concentrated than a 0.5 M of the same kind of solution. □
20.
0.15 mole Na
2
CO
3
contains 0.45 mole ions. 1 formula unit of Na
2
CO
3
gives 2 formula units of Na
+
ions and 1 formula unit of CO
3
2
ions. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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30 Chemistry: Chapter 16 Indicators and pH Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 16 Indicators and pH 1.
Which of the following solutions are neutral? (1) HCl(aq) (2) NaCl(aq) (3) NaOH(aq) (4) Na
2
SO
4
(aq) A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (4) only D. (3) and (4) only □
2.
Arrange the following solutions in ascending order of pH values: (1) 1 M KHCO
3
(aq) (2) 1 M HNO
3
(aq) (3) 1 M KOH(aq) (4) 0.1 M KOH(aq) A. (1),(2),(3),(4) B. (2),(1),(4),(3) C. (2),(4),(3),(1) D. (3),(4),(1),(2) □
3.
Which of the following elements burns in air to form an oxide that gives a solution with a pH value smaller than 7 when shaken with water? A. Sulphur B. Iron C. Zinc D. Hydrogen □
4.
One mole of each of the following substances is dissolved in water to make 1 dm
3 solutions respectively. Which will have the highest pH value? A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen chloride C. Sodium chloride D. Sodium hydroxide □
5.
The pH scale below shows the position of four aqueous solutions W
, X
, Y
and Z
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31 of equal concentration. What could the aqueous solutions be? Ethanoic acid Potassium chloride Ammonia Sodium hydroxide A. X Y Z W B. Z Y X W C. W X Y Z D. Y Z W X □
6.
A sample of gas was bubbled into pure water. The pH value of the solution slowly changed from 7 to 10. Which of the following gases could it be? A. Carbon monoxide B. Nitrogen C. Ammonia D. Carbon dioxide □
7.
Which of the following substances has a pH value greater than 7 when dissolved in water? A. Orange juice B. Vinegar C. ‘Milk of M
agnesia’
D. Grapefruit juice □
8.
Which of the following statements about a neutral aqueous solution at room conditions is correct? A. H
+
(aq) concentration > OH
(aq) concentration B. H
+
(aq) concentration = OH
(aq) concentration C. H
+
(aq) concentration < OH
(aq) concentration D. There is no H
+
(aq) ion and OH
(aq) ion. □
9.
Which of the following substances has a pH value above 7 at room conditions? A. Limewater B. Soft drinks C. Rainwater D. Orange juice □
W X 1 7 14 Y Z
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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32 10.
In which of the following cases will the pH value increase when the second reactant is added to the first one? A. hydrochloric acid + magnesium B. sodium hydroxide solution + sulphuric acid C. ammonia solution + magnesium sulphate solution D. water + hydrochloric acid □
11.
Four aqueous solutions have the pH values shown in the table. Solution P Q R S pH 1 3 8 9 If pairs of the solutions are mixed, which pair must produce an alkaline mixture? A. P
and Q
B. Q
and R
C. R
and S
D. P
and S
□
12.
Which of the following solutions will have the lowest pH value? A. 2.0 M hydrochloric acid B. 1.0 M sulphuric acid C. 2.0 M ethanoic acid D. 2.0 M ammonium chloride solution □
13.
The pH value of a solution with [H
+
(aq)] being equal to 1.00
10
−
3
mol dm
−
3
is A. 3. B. 8. C. 11. D. 14. □
14.
Solutions P
, Q
, R
and S
are four different solutions: P
: 0.01 M HCl solution Q
: 0.01 M H
2
SO
4
solution R
: 0.01 M NH
4
Cl solution S
: 0.01 M NH
3
solution When these solutions are arranged in order of increasing acidity, the correct order is A. P
, S
, R
, Q
. B. Q
, R
, S
, P
. C. S
, R
, P
, Q
. D. R
, P
, Q
, S
.
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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33 □
15.
Solution A
is an aqueous solution with pH 3 while solution B
is an aqueous solution with pH 1. How does the [H
+
(aq)] in solution A
compare with that in solution B
? A. The [H
+
(aq)] in solution A
is three times greater than the [H
+
(aq)] in solution B
. B. The [H
+
(aq)] in solution A
is one third of the [H
+
(aq)] in solution B
. C. The [H
+
(aq)] in solution A
is 10
1
of the [H
+
(aq)] in solution B
. D. The [H
+
(aq)] in solution A
is 100
1
of the [H
+
(aq)] in solution B
. □
16.
Which of the following solutions, each at concentration of 1.0 M, has the highest pH value? A. HCl(aq) B. H
2
SO
4
(aq) C. NaCl(aq) D. FeCl
3
(aq) □
17.
Which of the following combinations for acid-base indicators is correct? Acid-base indicator Colour of the indicator in strongly acidic solutions Colour of the indicator in strongly alkaline solutions (1) Litmus Red Blue (2) Methyl orange
Yellow Orange (3) Phenolphthalein Pink Colourless A. (1) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (1) and (3) only □
18.
The table below gives information about three indicators. Indicator Colour in strongly acidic solution pH at which colour change Colour in strongly alkaline solution Methyl orange Red 3.1 –
4.4 Yellow Congo red Blue 5.0 Red Phenolphthalein Colourless 8.3 –
10.0 Red
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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34 Which of the following sets of colours would be obtained when each indicator was added separately to a sample of rainwater of pH 5.6? Methyl orange Congo red Phenolphthalein A. Red Red Red B. Yellow Red Colourless C. Yellow Red Red D. Red Blue Colourless □
19.
The table below gives information about three indicators: Indicator Colour change Low pH to high pH pH at which colour change takes place Thymol blue Red to yellow 3.0 Bromothymol blue Yellow to blue 6.5 Phenolphthalein Colourless to pink 9.0 If equal volumes of these three indicators were mixed, which colour would be observed at pH 4? A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Yellow □
20.
The colour of indicator X
in solutions of different pH values is shown below. pH: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Colour: Red Green Blue Indicator X
would be possible for distinguishing A. aqueous solutions of sodium chloride and calcium hydroxide. B. aqueous solutions of hydrogen chloride and pure water. C. aqueous solutions of ammonia and sodium hydroxide. D. pure water and limewater. □
21.
The following table gives information about two indicators: Indicator Colour change Low pH to high pH pH at which colour change takes place Methyl orange Red to yellow 3.5 Methyl red Red to yellow 5.5 The table shows the pH of four aqueous solutions. Solution P Q R S
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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35 pH 2.0 3.0 4.0 7.0 In which of the following solutions will both indicators appear yellow? A. P
only B. Q
and R
only C. R
and S
only D. S
only □
22.
Which of the following gases turns a moist red litmus paper blue? A. Sulphur dioxide B. Hydrogen sulphide C. Ammonia D. Chlorine □
23.
Which of the following substances has a pH value below 7 at room conditions? A. ‘Milk of M
agnesia’
B. Limewater C. Soap solution D. Vinegar □
24.
Which of the following substances is NOT used to test the acidity or alkalinity of aqueous solutions? A. Methyl orange B. Limewater C. Phenolphthalein D. Litmus □
25.
Which of the following acid-base indicators can be used to determine pH values most accurately? A. Universal indicator B. Methyl orange C. pH meter D. Phenolphthalein □
26.
The colours of the universal indicator in four sample solutions are summarized as follows: Solution Colour W Orange
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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36 X Blue Y Green Z Red Which of the following is the correct descending order in pH values of the solutions? A. W
, X
, Y
, Z
B. X
, Y
, Z
, W
C. Z
, W
, Y
, X
D. X
, Y
, W
, Z
□
27.
Which of the following indicators is used to measure pH of aqueous solutions accurately? A. pH meter B. Universal indicator C. Methyl orange D. Litmus paper □
28.
Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Hydrochloric acid can have a pH value of zero. (2) pH paper contains more than one indicators. (3) The pH value of an acidic solution increases when water is added to it. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 29.
Unpolluted rainwater is acidic. It contains dissolved carbon dioxide.
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37 □
30.
pH of limewater is higher than water. The OH
(aq) concentration is higher in limewater than that in water. □
31.
Addition of copper(II) sulphate solution to sodium hydroxide solution will cause a decrease in pH. Copper(II) hydroxide is formed which is a blue insoluble solid. □
32.
Universal indicator can measure the pH of aqueous solutions very accurately. It gives different colours in different pH ranges. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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41
Chemistry: Chapter 17 Strength of acids and alkalis Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 17 Strength of acids and alkalis 1.
Which of the following solutions has the lowest electrical conductivity? (All solutions are of the same concentration.) A. Ethanoic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium chloride □
2.
The following set-up is used to collect hydrogen gas produced from the reaction between an acid and magnesium. Which of the following acids (with the same concentration) can produce hydrogen at the highest rate? A. Citric acid B. Carbonic acid C. Ethanoic acid D. Hydrochloric acid □
3.
Which of the following statements about ammonia solution is INCORRECT? A. It contains ammonia molecules. B. It has a pH value greater than 7. C. It ionizes completely in water. D. It is very soluble in water. □
4.
Sodium hydroxide is described as a strong alkali because it A. reacts with strong acid only. B. is corrosive. hydrogen magnesium acid
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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42
C. can dissolve oil stains. D. fully dissociates in aqueous solution. □
5.
Which of the following statements about a dilute aqueous solution of strong acid is correct? A. It is a strong electrolyte. B. It has a pH value of 1. C. It is very sour. D. It reacts with all metals. □
6.
Which of the following is/are (a) strong acid(s)? (1) Carbonic acid (2) Hydrochloric acid (3) Ethanoic acid A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
7.
Which of the following combinations is correct? NaOH(aq) NH
3
(aq) A. Complete dissociation Complete ionization B. Complete dissociation Slight ionization C. Slight dissociation Complete ionization D. Slight dissociation Slight ionization □
8.
Which of the following acids is a strong acid? A. 1 M CH
3
COOH(aq) B. 12 M CH
3
COOH(aq) C. 0.01 M HCl(aq) D. 0.5 M CH
3
COOH(aq) □
9.
Which of the following acids is a weak acid? A.
Carbonic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Nitric acid □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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43
10.
Which of the following particles is NOT present in a dilute aqueous solution of ammonia? A. NH
4
+
B. NH
3
C. OH
D. NH
4
OH □
11.
Which of the following particles is in the smallest amount in a dilute aqueous solution of ethanoic acid? A. CH
3
COOH B. OH
C. H
+
D. CH
3
COO
□
12.
Which of the following statements about a concentrated acid is correct? A. It can react with copper metal. B. It cannot react with copper(II) oxide. C. It is an acid that fully ionizes in water. D. It must contain hydrogen ions when in aqueous form. □
13.
Which of the following diagrams represents the strongest acid? A. B. C. D. □
( represents H
+
, represents the anion of the acid after ionization) 14.
Which of the following solutions has the lowest pH? A. 1 M HCl(aq) B. 1 M CH
3
COOH(aq) C. 1 M NH
3
(aq) D. 1 M NaOH(aq)
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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44
□
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 15.
Sodium hydroxide is very soluble in water but ammonia is just slightly soluble in water. 1 M sodium hydroxide solution has a higher electrical conductivity than that of 1 M ammonia solution. □
16.
HCl(aq) is a stronger acid than CH
3
COOH(aq). HCl fully ionizes when it dissolves in water. □
17.
Ammonia is a weak alkali. Ammonia is a colourless gas. □
18.
HCl dissolved in methylbenzene reacts with magnesium to give hydrogen. HCl(aq) is a strong acid. □
19.
Pure sulphuric acid changes blue litmus paper red. Dilute sulphuric acid is a strong acid. □
20.
12 M ammonia solution is a stronger alkali than 1 M sodium hydroxide solution. Ammonia reacts with water to give hydroxide ions. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
48 Chemistry: Chapter 18 Salts and neutralization Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 18 Salts and neutralization 1.
Which of the following is NOT a neutralization reaction? A. ZnO(s) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
ZnSO
4
(aq) + H
2
O(l) B. Cu(OH)
2
(s) + 2H
+
(aq)
Cu
2+
(aq) + 2H
2
O(l) C. H
+
(aq) + OH
−
(aq)
H
2
O(l) D. Fe
3+
(aq) + 3OH
−
(aq)
Fe(OH)
3
(s) □
2.
Which of the following substances can neutralize an alkaline solution? A. Sulphur dioxide B. Sodium sulphate C. Sodium hydrogencarbonate D. Carbon monoxide □
3.
There is NO reaction between limewater and A. carbon dioxide. B. potassium sulphate solution. C. ethanoic acid. D. aqueous ammonia. □
4.
X
is a white solid. When dilute sulphuric acid is added to X
, a colourless gas is produced. When mixed with lead(II) nitrate solution, an aqueous solution of X
gives a white precipitate. X
is probably A. magnesium carbonate. B. ammonium carbonate. C. sodium chloride. D. ammonium chloride. □
5.
Which of the following equations best represents the reaction between dilute nitric acid and potassium hydroxide? A. 2H
2
+ O
2
2H
2
O B. NO
3
+ K
+
KNO
3
C. H
+
+ OH
H
2
O D. H
+
+ NO
3
HNO
3 □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
49 6.
Which of the following ionic equations represents neutralizing aqueous potassium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid? A. K
+
+ Cl
KCl B. HCl + OH
H
2
O + Cl
C. K
+
+ HCl
KCl + H
+
D. H
+
+ OH
H
2
O □
7.
A white solid dissolves in water to form an acidic solution. The solution reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide on heating to give a gas. The solid is probably A. calcium oxide. B. sodium carbonate. C. ammonium chloride. D. sodium chloride. □
8.
A base reacts with an acid to give A. salt and carbon dioxide only. B. water only. C. salt and water only. D. salt, water and carbon dioxide only. □
9.
When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron(II) oxide, A. iron and water are formed. B. iron(II) chloride and carbon dioxide are formed. C. iron(II) chloride and water are formed. D. only iron(II) chloride is formed. □
10.
What gaseous product is formed when dilute sulphuric acid reacts with magnesium oxide? A. Hydrogen B. Carbon dioxide C. Sulphur dioxide D. None □
11.
Two bottles were found in the laboratory. One bottle was known to contain potassium chloride solution. The other bottle was known to contain potassium carbonate solution. The labels had fallen off from the bottles. Which of the following substances could be used to distinguish the two solutions? A. Dilute potassium hydroxide
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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50 B. Blue litmus solution C. Dilute sulphuric acid D. Sodium chloride solution □
12.
A hydrochloric acid solution has a pH value of 3. Which of the following substances would increase the pH value of the solution when mixed with it? (1) Dilute ammonia solution (2) Dilute sulphuric acid (3) Water A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
13.
Which of the following always occur(s) when an acid is neutralized with an alkali? (1) There is a decrease in pH. (2) A salt is formed. (3) Heat is given out. (4) A gas is produced. A. (3) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) □
14.
Which of the following statements about the reaction of aqueous ammonia with sulphuric acid is correct? A. The reaction is endothermic. B. A coloured solution is formed. C. Ammonia is produced. D. Ammonium sulphate is the product formed. □
15.
In an experiment, 20 cm
3 of 0.5 M nitric acid is added slowly into 10 cm
3
of 1.0 M potassium hydroxide solution. Which of the following statements about the experiment is correct? A. The concentration of nitrate ions in the mixture remains unchanged. B. The mixture does not conduct electricity at the end of the experiment. C. The pH value of the mixture decreases.
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51 D. The temperature of the mixture decreases. □
16.
A certain solution is known to be either dilute nitric acid, hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid. Which of the following can be added to identify it as sulphuric acid? A. Ba(NO
3
)
2
solution to see if a precipitate forms B. An indicator to determine the pH C. NH
3
(aq) to obtain NH
4
+
(aq) D. CH
3
COONa(aq) to form CH
3
COOH(aq) □
17.
Which of the following methods is best for preparing sodium nitrate? A. Add sodium sulphate solution to nitric acid. B. Add sodium to nitric acid. C. Add sodium hydroxide solution to nitric acid. D. Add sodium to zinc nitrate solution. □
18.
Which of the following statements about salts is INCORRECT? A. Salts can be made by reacting acids with metal oxides. B. Salts are ionic compounds. C. Salts can be made by neutralizing acids with alkalis. D. Salts never contain water of crystallization. □
19.
Which of the following reactions will NOT give a white precipitate? A. NaCl(aq) + AgNO
3
(aq) B. MgSO
4
(aq) + NaOH(aq) C. Ca(OH)
2
(aq) + CO
2
(g) D. CuSO
4
(aq) + NH
3
(aq) □
20.
Which of the following salts is best prepared by titration method? A. Copper(II) chloride B. Iron(II) sulphate C. Zinc sulphate D. Sodium chloride □
21.
Which of the following substances should NOT be used with hydrochloric acid to prepare magnesium chloride? A. Magnesium hydroxide B. Magnesium nitrate
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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52 C. Magnesium carbonate D. Magnesium oxide □
22.
Which of the following salts could be obtained as an insoluble product from the reaction between a dilute acid and an aqueous salt? A. Iron(II) sulphate B. Copper(II) nitrate C. Calcium sulphate D. Magnesium chloride □
23.
Which of the following salts can be prepared directly by precipitation method? A. PbSO
4
B. K
2
CO
3
C. Ca(NO
3
)
2
D. NH
4
Cl □
24.
Which of the following reactions CANNOT be used to prepare zinc sulphate? A. zinc + dilute sulphuric acid B. zinc oxide + dilute sulphuric acid C. zinc carbonate + dilute sulphuric acid D. zinc nitrate + dilute sulphuric acid □
25.
Which of the following techniques is/ are commonly used to prepare insoluble salts? (1) Filtration (2) Titration (3) Crystallization A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
26.
Which of the following equations represents a practicable way of preparing the salt underlined? A. Mg(OH)
2
+ Na
2
SO
4
MgSO
4
+ 2NaOH B. NH
3
+ HNO
3
NH
4
NO
3
C. Cu + H
2
SO
4
CuSO
4
+ H
2
D. AgCl + NaNO
3
NaCl + AgNO
3
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
53 27.
Which of the following mixtures of three substances will dissolve completely in water to give a clear solution? A. NaCl, KNO
3
and NaNO
3
B. NaCl, CaCO
3
and KOH C. Na
2
CO
3
, NaOH and AgCl D. NaOH, Mg(OH)
2
and Cu(OH)
2 □
28.
Why caves are usually found in mountains mainly composed of limestone? A. Limestone reacts with acid rain to form calcium hydroxide, which is then washed away by the rain. B. A type of bacterium feeds on limestone. C. Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid formed by dissolving of carbon dioxide in rainwater. D. Limestone dissolves in the moisture in the atmosphere gradually. □
29.
Why a statue made of limestone is easily corroded when it is placed at a region which sometimes experiences acid rain? A. Limestone and acid rain react to form a product, which is corrosive to limestone. B. Limestone and acid rain react to form a product, which can be easily washed away. C. Limestone enhances the acidity of acid rain to make it more corrosive. D. Acid rain initiates the self-corrosion of limestone. □
30.
Two buildings, both using marble as the building material, are located at district P
and district Q
respectively. The air pollution in district Q
is much more serious than in district P
. Which of the following statements about the erosion rates of the two buildings is correct? A. The two buildings erode at the same rate. B. The building in district P
erodes faster. C. The building in district Q
erodes faster. D. There is insufficient information to deduce which building erodes faster. □
31.
An ancient statue made of marble in an area with plenty of rainfall, is being eroded as time goes by. It is because A. rainwater reacts with marble to form a corrosive product. B. marble enhances the corrosiveness of rainwater. C. rainwater washes away the particles of the statue.
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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54 D. The carbonic acid in rainwater reacts with marble to form a product, which can be easily washed away. □
32.
Which of the following statements about crystallization is correct? A. A well-formed crystal can be formed from hot concentrated salt solution by fast cooling. B. A newly formed crystal should be washed with hot water after filtration. C. Solute particles need time to arrange themselves in a regular pattern in order to form large crystal. D. Crystallization cannot be done under room temperature. □
33.
Which of the following methods is suitable for preparing calcium carbonate solid? A. Bubbling carbon dioxide into limewater until it becomes clear and then evaporating the water by heating. B. Adding calcium sulphate to sodium carbonate solution and then filtering the solid formed. C. Adding potassium carbonate solution to calcium chloride solution and then filtering the solid formed. D. Adding carbonic acid to calcium metal until the calcium metal completely dissolves. □
34.
The table below shows the observations of the chemical tests of three ionic compounds. Which of the following combinations of ions involved is most likely to be correct? X Q T Z A. Potassium ion Sodium ion Carbonate ion Sulphate ion B. Sodium ion Calcium ion Sulphate ion Hydrogencarbonate ion C. Calcium ion Sodium ion Sulphate ion Hydrogencarbonate ion D. Sodium ion Calcium ion Sulphate ion Carbonate ion □
Compound Adding barium chloride solution acidified by dilute HNO
3
Adding dilute hydrochloric acid Flame test QT White precipitate No observable change Brick-red XZ Colourless solution Colourless gas bubbles Golden yellow X
2
T
White precipitate No observable change Golden yellow
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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55 35.
When a magnesium ribbon is placed in sodium hydrogensulphate solution, A. a gas is given off. B. a precipitate is formed. C. the pH value of the solution decreases. D. there is no reaction. □
36.
Which of the following statement(s) about 25.0 cm
3
of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution and 25.0 cm
3
of 0.1 M ammonia solution is/ are correct? (1) They have the same pH value. (2) They turn methyl orange indicator yellow. (3) Each of them requires 25.0 cm
3
of 0.1 M hydrochloric acid for complete neutralization. A. (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
Which of the following combinations is INCORRECT? Salt Parent acid A. Sodium carbonate Carbonic acid B. Lead(II) chloride Hydrochloric acid C. Ammonium nitrate Nitric acid D. Copper(II) sulphide Sulphuric acid □
38.
What is the name of the salt with formula Na
2
SO
3
? A. Sodium sulphide B. Sodium sulphite C. Sodium sulphate D. Sodium sulphur □
39.
Which of the following statements about the reaction of 25 cm
3
of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution and 25 cm
3
of 0.1 M sulphuric acid is/ are correct? (1) Heat energy is absorbed. (2) An acid salt is produced. (3) Sulphur dioxide is produced. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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56 D. (2) and (3) only □
40.
Which of the following salts is soluble in water? A. Sodium nitrate B. Lead(II) sulphate C. Magnesium carbonate D. Potassium hydroxide □
41.
Liquid waste from an electroplating factory is acidic. The fish in a nearby river will probably be killed by the waste. To prevent this, a substance is added to the waste before its disposal. Which of the following is preferred? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Sodium chloride C. Ammonium chloride D. Slaked lime □
42.
Which of the following substances is commonly used to reduce soil acidity? A. Ammonium sulphate B. Sodium chloride C. Magnesium nitrate D. Calcium hydroxide □
43.
In an accident, some hydrochloric acid is spilt out. Which of the following substances, when added in excess, would neutralize the acid without leaving any alkaline solution? A. Sodium nitrate B. Limewater C. Calcium carbonate D. Water □
44.
Which of the following chemicals is/are used to neutralize the excess acid in stomach? (1) Mg(OH)
2
(2) Ca(OH)
2
(3) NaOH A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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57 D. (1), (2) and (3) □
45.
Which of the following is NOT used to neutralize the acidic liquid waste from industries? A. Sodium hydroxide B. Sodium carbonate C. Calcium carbonate D. Calcium hydroxide □
46.
Lime can be used to reduce the acidity of soil. It is because A. lime absorbs acid. B. lime gives alkaline products when dissolved in water. C. lime reacts with soil to form alkaline products. D. lime prevents acidic substances dissolving in soil. □
47.
Copper(II) oxide is a soluble base. Copper(II) oxide reacts with dilute sulphuric acid. □
48.
Sodium carbonate is a base. Sodium carbonate reacts with dilute acid to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide. □
49.
Sodium ion and chloride ion are spectator ions in the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution. Sodium ion and chloride ion do not react in the neutralization reaction. □
50.
CaCO
3
can be prepared by bubbling CO
2
into limewater. CaCO
3
is insoluble in water. □
51.
PbCl
2
(s) can be prepared by titration method. PbCl
2
(s) is a white precipitate. □
52.
Mixing CuSO
4
(aq) with Na
2
CO
3
(aq) can be used to prepare CuCO
3
. CuCO
3
is an insoluble salt. □
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58 53.
Sodium hydroxide is used to neutralize the excess acid in stomach. Sodium hydroxide is a base. □
54.
Magnesium sulphate is not a salt. Salt refers to sodium chloride only. □
55.
Farmers sometimes add slaked lime to soil. Slaked lime can neutralize the acid in soil. □
56.
Limewater will turn milky in the presence of carbon dioxide. It is sometimes given to babies as a kind of medication. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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65 Chemistry: Chapter 19 Volumetric analysis involving acids and alkalis Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 19 Volumetric analysis involving acids and alkalis 1.
A standard solution is A. a solution with highest concentration. B. a solution with lowest concentration. C. a solution with known concentration. D. a solution with concentration of 1 mol dm
3
. □
2.
Which of the following is a correct procedure to prepare a standard solution starting with a pure solid? A. Weigh the solid
Put into volumetric flask
Dissolve the solid
Add water to the mark of volumetric flask B. Weigh the solid
Dissolve the solid
Put into volumetric flask
Add water to the mark of volumetric flask C. Add water to the mark of volumetric flask
Weigh the solid
Dissolve the solid
Put into volumetric flask D. Add water to the mark of volumetric flask
Weigh the solid
Put into volumetric flask
Dissolve the solid □
3.
Which of the following substances CANNOT be used to prepare a standard solution directly? (1) Concentrated H
2
SO
4
(2) Solid NaOH (3) Liquid NH
3
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
4.
In titrating 0.101 M sodium hydroxide solution with ~0.1 M hydrochloric acid, the conical flask containing the alkali has to be first washed with A. water. B. the alkali solution. C. water and then the alkali solution. D. the acid solution. □
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66 5.
|!|EMA041919005O|!| During a titration experiment, which of the following pieces of apparatus should be rinsed with the solution they would deliver (or hold)? (1) Pipette (2) Conical flask (3) Burette A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
In a titration experiment, 25.0 cm
3
of dilute sodium hydroxide solution is titrated against a standard solution of sulphuric acid with phenolphthalein as an indicator. Which of the following statements concerning this experiment is/ are correct? (1) The colour of phenolphthalein changes from colourless to pink at the end point. (2) The colour of phenolphthalein changes from pink to colourless at the end point. (3) The volume of the dilute sodium hydroxide is measured by a pipette. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
7.
Which of the following apparatus can transfer 28.7 cm
3
of solution most accurately? A. Measuring cylinder B. Burette C. Pipette D. Conical flask □
8.
Which of the following apparatus should be cleaned with the solution to be held just before using it/ them? (1) Burette (2) Conical flask (3) Pipette A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only
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67 9.
Which of the following is NOT very important for an accurate titration? A.
Burette reading B. Pipette reading C. End point detection D. Volume of solution in conical flask □
10.
Which of the following indicators can be used in the titration of HCl(aq) with NH
3
(aq)? A. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange C. Universal indicator D. No suitable indicator □
11.
In a titration experiment, 25.0 cm
3
of ammonia solution is titrated against a standard solution of hydrochloric acid with methyl orange as indicator. Which of the following colour change is correct at the end point? A. Yellow to orange B. Red to orange C. Red to colourless D. Colourless to orange □
12.
Which of the following solutions would neutralize 50 cm
3
of 0.1 M H
2
SO
4
completely when mixed? A. 50 cm
3
of 0.1 M KOH B. 100 cm
3
of 0.1 M NaOH C. 50 cm
3
of 0.1 M NH
3
D. 100 cm
3
of 0.1 M Ca(OH)
2
□
13.
Which of the following apparatus is usually used to deliver 25.0 cm
3
of a solution into a conical flask? A. Burette B. Pipette C. Beaker D. Volumetric flask □
14.
Which of the following is a correct procedure before filling the burette with dilute hydrochloric acid? A. Wash the burette with hydrochloric acid only.
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68 B. Wash the burette with distilled water only. C. Wash the burette with distilled water and then hydrochloric acid. D. Wash the burette with hydrochloric acid and then distilled water. □
15.
What is the burette reading as shown in the diagram below? 19 20 21 22 cm
3
A. 20.40 B. 20.60 C. 20.80 D. 21.20 □
16.
Which of the following are correct procedures just before using a conical flask in titration? (1) It is washed with the solution which is going to be delivered by the pipette. (2) It is washed with the distilled water. (3) A piece of white tile is placed under it during titration. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
The following table shows the results of a titration. What is the average volume of acid added in this titration? Titration Burette reading 1 2 3 4 Final reading (cm
3
) 24.6 26.1 25.4 26.6 Initial reading (cm
3
) 1.1 1.4 0.6 2.1 Volume of acid added (cm
3
) 23.5 24.7 24.8 24.5 A. 24.4 cm
3
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69 B. 24.7 cm
3 C. 24.8 cm
3
D. 24.5 cm
3
□
18.
Which of the following apparatus should be used to deliver 25.0 cm
3
solution accurately from a volumetric flask to a conical flask? (1) Pipette (2) Burette (3) Measuring cylinder A. (1) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only □
19.
Which of the following indicators are suitable for detection of the end point in the titration between 0.2 M HCl and 0.2 M NaOH? (1) Methyl orange (2) Phenolphthalein (3) Universal indicator A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
The following were titration results for the reaction between 25.00 cm
3
of a sodium hydroxide solution and 0.100 M nitric acid: Burette readings (cm
3
) 1
st
2
nd
3
rd
Final reading 32.50 32.40 33.20 Initial reading 1.00 2.50 3.10 The molarity of the sodium hydroxide solution would be A. 0.126 M. B. 0.124 M. C. 0.122 M. D. 0.120 M. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
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70 21.
If 25.0 cm
3
of 0.1 M potassium hydroxide solution is allowed to react with 25.0 cm
3
of 0.1 M sulphuric acid, the resultant product is A. K
2
SO
4
. B. KHSO
4
. C. K
2
SO
3
. D. KHSO
3
. □
22.
Consider the following two solutions: Solution P
: 50 cm
3
of 0.05 M HCl Solution Q
25 cm
3
of 0.1 M CH
3
COOH Which of the following statements about solutions P
and Q
is correct? A. P
reacts with Mg while Q
does not. B. P
and Q
require the same volume of 0.1 M NaOH for neutralization. C. P
can turn blue litmus paper red while Q
cannot. D. P
reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate while Q
does not. □
23.
What volume of 0.25 mol dm
3
sulphuric acid is required to neutralize 40.0 cm
3
of 0.2 mol dm
3
sodium carbonate? Na
2
CO
3
+ H
2
SO
4
Na
2
SO
4 + H
2
O + CO
2 A. 2
.
0
40
25
.
0
cm
3
B. 2
.
0
2
40
25
.
0
cm
3
C. 25
.
0
40
2
.
0
cm
3
D. 2
25
.
0
40
2
.
0
cm
3
□
24.
The concentration of an aqueous solution of an acid is 2.0 M. 20.0 cm
3 of this acid solution requires 80.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization. What is the basicity of the acid? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 □
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71 25.
In an experiment, 2.0 M sodium hydroxide solution was added to 20.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M sulphuric acid until the acid was completely neutralized. What is the concentration of sodium sulphate (correct to two decimal places) in the resultant solution? A. 0.25 M B. 0.33 M C. 0.50 M D. 1.00 M □
26.
The formula of a solid tribasic acid is H
3
X
. 3.89 g of the acid is dissolved in 250.0cm
3
of distilled water. 25.0 cm
3
of the dilute solution requires 18.0 cm
3
of 0.50 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization. What is the molar mass of H
3
X
? (correct to the nearest gram) A. 100 g B. 110 g C. 120 g D. 130 g □
27.
The formula of a metal carbonate is X
2
CO
3
. 50 cm
3
of a solution containing 0.53 g of the carbonate requires 25 cm
3
of 0.2 M sulphuric acid for complete neutralization. What is the relative atomic mass of metal X
? A. 19.0 B. 21.0 C. 23.0 D. 25.0 □
28.
Different volumes of 1.0 M sodium hydroxide solutions and 1.0 M of hydrochloric acid are mixed in a polystyrene cup. In which of the following combinations would the temperature rise be the greatest? Volume of 1.0 M NaOH(aq)/ cm
3
Volume of 1.0 M HCl(aq)/ cm
3
A. 20 100 B. 40 80 C. 60 60 D. 80 40 □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
72 29.
0.57 g of a sample of hydrated sodium carbonate Na
2
CO
3
∙
nH
2
O required 20.0 cm
3
of 0.20 M hydrochloric acid for complete neutralization. What is the number of crystallization, n, in the formula? A. 1 B. 5 C. 9 D. 10 □
30.
1.05 g of a mixture of anhydrous sodium carbonate and sodium chloride was dissolved in 50 cm
3
of deionized water. The resultant solution required 28.5 cm
3
of 0.15 M sulphuric acid for complete reaction. What is the percentage purity of the anhydrous sodium carbonate sample? A. 21.4 % B. 43.8 % C. 64.3 % D. 85.6 % □
31.
8.5 g of sodium carbonate can neutralize 25.0 cm
3
of 1 M sulphuric acid. What is the mass of carbon dioxide liberated at room temperature and pressure? A. 1.1 g B. 1.8 g C. 3.5 g D. 4.5 g □
32.
What mass of magnesium will react completely with 25.0 cm
3
of 0.20 M hydrochloric acid? A. 0.06 g B. 0.12 g C. 0.18 g D. 0.24 g □
33.
3.65 g of HCl(g) is dissolved in 100 cm
3
of distilled water. What volume of 0.2 M NaOH can neutralize the resultant solution? A. 250 cm
3
B. 500 cm
3
C. 750 cm
3
D. 1000 cm
3
□
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
73 34.
25.0 cm
3
of 0.20 M sulphuric acid is completely neutralized by 15.5 cm
3
of sodium hydroxide solution. What is the resultant concentration of the sodium sulphate solution formed? A. 0.645 M B. 0.323 M C. 0.247 M D. 0.123 M □
35.
A 25.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M ethanoic acid and a 25.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid are each titrated with a sodium hydroxide solution. Which of the following will be the same for these two titrations? (1) Initial pH (2) pH at the end point (3) Volume of sodium hydroxide solution required to reach the end point A. (1) only B. (3) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only □
36.
Which of the following solutions could completely neutralize 25.0 cm
3
of 0.2 M sulphuric acid? (1) 25.0 cm
3
of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide solution (2) 50.0 cm
3
of 0.2 M potassium hydroxide solution (3) 25.0 cm
3
of 0.2 M calcium hydroxide solution A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
A solution of 1.0 M is a standard solution. A standard solution is a solution of known molarity. □
38.
A 25.0 cm
3
pipette is usually used to deliver 22.5 cm
3
solution in titration experiment. There is a graduation mark on a pipette. □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part IV Acids and Bases © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
74 39.
Before doing a titration, distilled water is used to wash a conical flask. Water present in a conical flask will not change the number of moles of solute in the conical flask. □
40.
In a titration, 1 mole of any acid always neutralizes 1 mole of any alkali. 1 mole of hydrogen ions, H
+
(aq) reacts with 1 mole of hydroxide ions, OH
−
(aq). □
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
188
Multiple Choice Questions Chemistry: Chapter 20 Hydrocarbons from fossil fuels Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 21 Hydrocarbons from fossil fuels 1.
All fossil fuels A. consist mainly of hydrocarbons. B. contain hydrocarbons. C. consist mainly of carbon. D. contain mainly carbon compounds. □
2.
What percentage of coal mined in the world today is burnt in power stations to generate electricity? A. About 10% B. About 30% C. About 50% D. About 70% □
3.
Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons. It can be separated into fractions by fractional distillation. This is because different hydrocarbons have different A. boiling points. B. densities. C. melting points. D. flammabilities. □
4.
During fractional distillation of petroleum, different fractions condense at different levels inside the fractionating tower. Fractions with high boiling point ranges condense at A. hotter lower levels. B. cooler lower levels. C. hotter upper levels. D. cooler upper levels. □
5.
A fraction obtained from fractional distillation of crude oil has a boiling point range of 40
C to 120
C. This fraction may be used as A. diesel fuel. B. lubricating oil. C. petrol.
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189
D. kerosene. □
6.
Which of the following has the lowest boiling point range? A. Bitumen B. Kerosene C. Fuel oil D. Gas oil □
7.
Which of the following molecular formulae would stand for a compound which is probably present in petrol? A. C
3
H
8 B. C
4
H
10
C. C
6
H
14
D. C
8
H
16
O
2
□
8.
Fractional distillation of crude oil involves (1) physical separation. (2) chemical decomposition. (3) redox changes. Which of the following is correct? A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
The diagram below represents the process of fractional distillation of crude oil. At which position, A, B, C or D is the raw material for LPG obtained? □
30 200 400 A B C D product fractions 300 crude oil at high temperature temperature (
°
C)
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190
10.
Fractional distillation of crude oil is a chemical change. New substances such as petrol and kerosene are formed during fractional distillation of crude oil.
□
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
192
Chemistry: Chapter 21 Consequences of using fossil fuels Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 22 Consequences of using fossil fuels 1.
Which of the following is NOT a product of combustion of fuels? A. Carbon monoxide B. Hydrogen C. Water D. Carbon □
2.
Which of the following processes is exothermic? A. Petrol evaporating B. Ice melting C. Cracking of heavy oils D. Calcium oxide added to water □
3.
The reaction between natural gas and oxygen A. never produces carbon monoxide gas. B. requires an input of energy to start. C. is endothermic. D. is called cracking. □
4.
It is extremely dangerous to use a flueless water heater in a bathroom with all windows and doors closed. This is because A. there is a danger of fire. B. there is a danger of explosion. C. the flue gases are harmful to the eyes. D. the carbon monoxide produced is a ‘silent killer’.
□
5.
Which of the following pollutants is usually NOT present in car exhaust gases? A. Hydrogen sulphide B. Carbon monoxide C. Nitrogen dioxide D. Lead(II) bromide □
6.
Which of the following pollutants is produced only by human activities? A. Carbon monoxide B. Trichlorofluoromethane C. Sulphur dioxide
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193
D. Methane □
7.
Which of the following building materials is most easily damaged by acid rain? A. Sandstone B. Limestone C. Concrete D. Brick □
8.
Which of the following is/ are ‘greenhouse gases’?
(1) CO
2
gas (2) CH
4
gas (3) CCl
3
F gas (4) H
2
O vapour A. (1) only B. (2) and (4) only C. (1), (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) □
9.
Which of the following are indications of serious air pollution? (1) Red tide (2) Photochemical smog (3) Acid rain A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
10.
Which of the following statements about an electrostatic precipitator is INCORRECT? A. It collects solid waste. B. It requires electricity to operate. C. It does not remove sulphur dioxide. D. It does not remove dust. □
11.
Which of the following energy sources is likely to run out first? A. Coal B. Crude oil and natural gas C. Geothermal power
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194
D. Hydroelectric power □
12.
Which of the following is a renewable fuel? A. Hydrogen B. Uranium C. Coal D. LPG □
13.
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy? A. Tidal power B. Wind power C. Hydroelectric power D. Nuclear power □
14.
Heat energy is given out in an exothermic reaction.
All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions. □
15.
Naphtha is cheaper than coal. Nowadays, town gas is made from naphtha instead of coal. □
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A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
197
Chemistry: Chapter 22 Homologous series, structural formulae and naming of carbon compounds Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 23 Homologous series, structural formulae and naming of carbon compounds Section 22.1 (Section 23.1) |!|EMA052223001O|!| 1.
Which of the following is NOT an organic compound? A. CHCl
3
B. NaC
2
O
4 C. Na
2
CO
3
D. CH
3
COONa □
2.
Which of the following formulae represent the same compound? (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. (2) and (3) only B. (1), (2) and (4) only C. (1), (4) and (5) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) only □
3.
Which of the following structural formulae are WRONGLY written? (1) (2) (3) (4) A. (1) and (2) only B. (3) and (4) only
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198
C. (1), (2) and (4) only D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) □
4.
Candle wax contains an alkane with 28 carbon atoms per molecule. What is the molecular formula of this alkane? A. C
28
H
54
B. C
28
H
56
C. C
28
H
58 D. C
28
H
60 □
5.
Which of the following might be the respective relative molecular masses of four consecutive members of a homologous series? (Relative atomic masses: H = 1.0, C = 12.0, O = 16.0) A. 32, 46, 60, 74 B. 26, 38, 50, 62 C. 28, 38, 48, 58 D. 44, 57, 70, 83 □
6.
Which of the following is/ are alkene(s)? (1) (2) CH
3
CH=CH
2
(3) CH
2
= CH
CH = CH
2
A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following is an alkanoic acid? A. Ethanoic acid B. Sulphuric acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Carbonic acid □
8.
The condensed structural formula of an organic compound is written as CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
X
CH
3
, where X represents a functional group. Which of the following functional groups could X be? (1)
COOH (2) (3)
OH (4)
O
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199
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (2) and (4) only □
9.
Which of the following pairs can represent the respective empirical formula and molecular formula of a certain compound? A. CH and CH
4
B. CH and C
6
H
6
C. CH
2
and C
2
H
2
D. CH
3
and C
3
H
6
□
10.
Which of the following compounds have the same empirical formula? (1) But-2-ene (2) Propane (3) Ethene A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
11.
Which of the following statements concerning homologous series is INCORRECT? A. Members of a series have identical chemical properties. B. Members of a series have the same general formula. C. Each member differs from the next by a
CH
2
group. D. Members of a series show a gradual change of physical properties. □
12.
Which of the following is a hydrocarbon? A. Petroleum B. Oct-3-ene C. Ethanol D. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon □
13.
Which of the following names are INCORRECT? (1) But-3-ene (2) 1-bromo-propan-3-ol (3) 2,3-chlorobutane
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200
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
202
Chemistry: Chapter 23 Alkanes and alkenes Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 24 Alkanes and alkenes 1.
Which of the following compounds is an unsaturated hydrocarbon? A. CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH B. CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
C. CH
3
CH
2
C
CH D. CH
2
=CHCH
2
OH □
2.
Which of the following structural formulae represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon? A. B. C. D. □
3.
Which of the following substances CANNOT be a product of the following reaction? CH
4
+ Br
2
-
-
-
? A. HBr B. CH
3
Br C. CH
2
Br
2
D. CHBr
4
□
4.
Which of the following statements about the reaction of propane with bromine in an organic solvent are correct? (1) The reaction does not occur in darkness. (2) The reaction is a substitution reaction. (3) The colour of the reaction mixture fades. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
diffuse sunlight
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A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
203
5.
Which of the following are the products of the reaction between chlorine in an organic solvent and methane under sunlight? (1) CH
3
Cl (2) CHCl
3
(3) CCl
4
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
Which of the following statements about the gradual change in properties on ascending the alkane series are INCORRECT? (1) The reactivity with acids is decreasing. (2) The molecular mass is increasing. (3) The boiling point is decreasing. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following substances are produced during complete combustion of alkanes? (1) Carbon dioxide (2) Water (3) Carbon monoxide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
8.
Which of the following statements about substitution reaction are correct? (1) It is the process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones. (2) It involves chemical changes. (3) The reaction between methane and bromine (in an organic solvent) in the presence of light is a substitution reaction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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204
D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
Which of the following is/are saturated hydrocarbon(s)? (1) (2) (3) A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
10.
Which of the following substances are unsaturated hydrocarbons? (1) (2) (3) A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
11.
Which of the following substance(s) is/ are unsaturated hydrocarbon(s)? (1)
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205
(2) (3) A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
12.
Which of the following experiments gives an observable change when the test tubes are exposed to diffuse sunlight? A. B. C. D. □
13.
Which of the following is/ are saturated hydrocarbon(s)? (1) CH
3
(CH
2
)
3
CH
3
(2) (3) CH
3
CH=CH
2
(4) A. (3) only B. (1) and (4) only C. (2) and (3) only hexane + acidified KMnO
4
solution
hexane + Br
2
in chloroform
hexane + acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7 solution hexane + conc. H
2
SO
4
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206
D. (1), (2) and (4) only □
14.
There is no bottled liquefied methane for sale. This is because A. methane is much more expensive than butane. B. methane burns with a flame not hot enough for practical usage. C. methane can never be liquefied. D. methane cannot be liquefied at room temperature. □
15.
Complete combustion of propane can be represented by the equation: C
3
H
8
(g) + xO
2
(g)
yCO
2
(g) + zH
2
O(l) The respective values of x, y and z would be: x y z A. 4 3 2 B. 5 3 4 C. 6 5 2 D. 7 5 4 □
16.
CH
3
CH
3
+ 2Br
2
BrCH
2
CH
2
Br + 2HBr The above reaction can be classified as (1) a substitution reaction. (2) a redox reaction. (3) a spontaneous reaction at room conditions in the presence of light. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
Which of the following are substitution reactions? (1) CH
4
+ 4Cl
2
CCl
4
+ 4HCl (2) CH
4
+ 2Cl
2
C + 4HCl (3) CH
2
Br
2
+ Br
2
CHBr
3
+ HBr A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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207
18.
In a homologous series, which of the following would decrease as the number of carbon atoms increases? (1) Density (2) Solubility in water (3) Ease of ignition A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
19.
Which of the following statements about cracking of alkane is INCORRECT? A. It is a chemical change. B. It is carried out in the absence of oxygen. C. Unsaturated hydrocarbon(s) is/ are formed. D. Carbon dioxide is formed. □
20.
Which of the following statements about cracking is correct? A. Plastics are produced by cracking. B. Alcohols are produced by cracking. C. Petroleum is produced by cracking. D. Extra petrol is produced by cracking. □
21.
Which of the following combinations about the supply and demand of different oil fractions is INCORRECT? Oil fractions Supply (%) Demand (%) A. Petrol 25 10 B. Kerosene 20 25 C. Gas oil 15 35 D. Heavy oils 45 5 □
22.
Which of the following statements are the reasons for cracking heavy oil fractions? (1) Heavy oil fractions are in less demand so they are cracked to produce extra petrol. (2) Cracking produces alkenes, which can be used to make many useful organic chemicals. (3) Cracking can separate oil fractions with different boiling point ranges. A. (1) and (2) only
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B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
23.
Which of the following statements about the cracking of heavy oils are correct? (1) It involves physical changes only. (2) Aluminium oxide mixed with silicon(IV) oxide is used as a catalyst. (3) Alkanes must be cracked in the absence of air. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
24.
C
18
H
38
is cracked to C
9
H
20
, C
4
H
10
,
C and 2
X
when heated with a catalyst. Which of the following substances would X
probably be? A. C
2
H
4
B. C
2
H
6
C. C
3
H
8
D. C
4
H
8
□
25.
A long-chain alkane C
30
H
62
is cracked into smaller products. Which of the following is NOT the possible set of products? A. C
3
H
6
, C
8
H
18
, C
5
H
10
, C
10
H
20
, C
4
H
8
B. C
10
H
22
, C
12
H
26
, C
4
H
8
, C
3
H
6
, C C. C
2
H
6
, C
7
H
14
, C
11
H
22
, C
4
H
10
, C
6
H
12
D. CH
4
, C
9
H
18
, C
6
H
12
, C
10
H
20
, C
4
H
8
□
26.
A long-chain alkane C
17
H
36
called heptadecane is cracked. One possible reaction can be represented by the equation: C
17
H
36
(
X
+ Y
+ Z
+ C) Where X
and Y
are saturated hydrocarbons and Z
is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. Which of the following combinations is INCORRECT? X Y Z A. C
4
H
10
C
9
H
20
C
3
H
6
B. C
5
H
12
C
10
H
10
C
2
H
4
C. C
9
H
20
C
3
H
8
C
4
H
8
D. C
6
H
14
C
8
H
18
C
2
H
4
□
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HKDSE Chemistry –
A Modern View Part V Fossil Fuels and Carbon Compounds © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2009
209
27.
Industrially, alkane molecules of higher molecular masses are cracked to give molecules of lower relative molecular masses. The most important single compound (can be used to make many useful organic chemicals) produced by cracking is A. methane. B. ethane. C. ethene. D. propene. □
28.
Cracking A. produces smaller molecules. B. always involves the use of a catalyst. C. always occurs when an organic compound is heated strongly in air. D. may not involve heating. □
29.
C
18
H
38
C
9
H
20
+ C
4
H
10
+ C + 2
X
For the above process, which of the following combinations is correct? Process X A. Catalytic cracking an alkane B. Catalytic cracking an alkene C. Fractional distillation an alkane D. Fractional distillation an alkene □
30.
Which of the following is NOT the safety precaution for cracking experiment in school laboratory? A. Wear safety goggles. B. Use combustion tubes for the experiment. C. Heat evenly under the unglazed porcelain. D. Stop heating before pulling the delivery tube out of the water. □
heat, catalyst
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210
31.
In the school laboratory, decane can be cracked by the following set-up. The oily liquid may contain (1) hexane. (2) hex-1-ene. (3) decane. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
32.
Which of the following statements about cracking of oil fractions is INCORRECT? A. Cracking is a chemical change. B. Cracking can separate light oil fractions from heavy fractions. C. Alkenes are always produced in cracking. D. Cracking can be carried out in the school laboratory. □
33.
Organic compound G
is an acid and can decolorize bromine in an organic solvent even in the dark. Which of the following formulae may G
be? A. CH
3
CH
2
CH=CH
2 B. CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CO
2
H
C. CH
3
CH
2
CO
2
CH
3 D. CH
2
=CHCH
2
CO
2
H
□
broken porcelain strong heat rocksil soaked with decane oily liquid water
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211
34.
Which of the following is the correct set of numbers which fits into the equation a
C
4
H
8 + b
O
2
c
CO
2
+ d
H
2
O? a
b
c
d
A. 2 10 8 8 B. 1 6 4 8 C. 1 6 4 4 D. 2 5 3 4 □
35.
Which of the following compounds is the product of the following reaction? A. B. C. D. □
36.
Which of the following statements is true for both ethene and ethane? A. They can undergo addition reaction to decolorize bromine in an organic solvent. B. They can undergo substitution reaction with halogens in an organic solvent. C. They can undergo combustion to give CO
2
and H
2
O. D. They are readily oxidized by acidified potassium permanganate. □
37.
Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish ethane from ethene? (1) Shaking the gases with bromine in an organic solvent in darkness. (2) Shaking the gases with universal indicator. (3) Shaking the gases with acidified potassium permanganate solution. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
38.
What reaction will occur between propene and hydrogen? A. Dehydration B. Elimination
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212
C. Addition D. Substitution □
39.
Upon complete combustion of ethene, which of the following does NOT occur? A. Production of water B. Release of energy C. Breaking of carbon-carbon double bond D. Production of soot □
40.
In an experiment, one mole of hydrocarbon reacts completely with one mole of hydrogen gas in the presence of a heated catalyst. Which of the following may be the formula of the hydrocarbon? A. C
5
H
10
B. C
5
H
11
OH C. C
5
H
12
D. C
9
H
20
□
41.
Which of the following combinations of experiment and observation is correct? Experiment Observation A. Ethene is added to acidified potassium permanganate solution Colourless to purple B. Ethene is added to bromine (dissolved in methylbenzene) Red-orange to colourless C. Ethene is added to limewater Clear to milky D. Ethene is added to acidified potassium dichromate solution Orange to dark green □
42.
Which of the following will NOT produce hydrogen? A. A reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid B. Electrolysis of water C. Manufacture of margarine D. The reaction between sodium and water □
43.
Which of the following statements about ethane are correct? (1) It is commonly used as a fuel in gas lighters. (2) It has the same number of carbon atoms as ethene.
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213
(3) It has a higher density than methane. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
44.
Which of the following statements about alkenes are correct? (1) The reaction between bromine (in an organic solvent) and an alkene is a substitution reaction. (2) Alkenes rapidly decolorize an acidified potassium permanganate solution. (3) Alkenes contain a functional group. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
45.
One of the compounds in fuel oil is C
26
H
54
, which can be converted into smaller molecules as shown in the following equation: C
26
H
54
C
18
H
38
+ 2
X
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of X
? (1) It decolorizes bromine in 1,1,1-trichloroethane. (2) It is a liquid at room temperature and pressure. (3) It undergoes polymerization to give polyethene. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
46.
Which of the following statements about propene are correct? (1) The chemical formula of propene is C
3
H
8
. (2) It is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. (3) It has the same number of carbon atoms as propane. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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214
47.
C
4
H
10
is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. C
4
H
10
contains one C=C double bond. □
48.
Bromine in an organic solvent reacts with hexane in the presence of sunlight. The reaction between bromine in an organic solvent and hexane is a substitution reaction. □
49.
The market demand of petrol is much greater than heavy oils. The market supply of petrol can be increased by cracking of heavy oils. □
50.
Cracking is a physical change. Cracking converts an alkene into smaller alkenes. □
51.
Cracking separates petroleum into different fractions. Cracking involves the breaking and formation of covalent bonds. □
52.
Cracking of large alkane molecules always produces alkenes. Catalysts can be used to speed up the cracking process. □
53.
Cracking is used to separate petroleum fractions with different boiling points Petroleum is a mixture of many hydrocarbons which need to be refined before being used as fuel. □
54.
Medicinal paraffin reacts with broken porcelain in the process of cracking. Medicinal paraffin can be cracked to give smaller alkanes and alkenes. □
55.
But-2-ene is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. But-2-ene decolorizes bromine dissolved in methylbenzene. □
56.
Ethene and ethane can be distinguished by reacting them respectively with bromine dissolved in methylbenzene in darkness. Ethene decolorizes bromine dissolved in methylbenzene but ethane does not in darkness. □
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215
57.
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
OH and CH
3
CH
2
COOH belong to the same homologous series.
Both CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
OH and CH
3
CH
2
COOH have the same functional group
OH. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
193
Multiple Choice Questions Chemistry: Chapter 29 Chemical cells in daily life Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 27 Chemical cells in daily life 1.
Which of the following is NOT a chemical cell? A. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell B. Zinc-carbon cell C. Silver oxide cell D. Solar cell □
2.
Which of the following statements about electric current is INCORRECT? A. It is a flow of electric charges. B. It is a flow of electrons in metals and graphite. C. It is a movement of ions in electrolytes. D. It is a movement of electrons in water. □
3.
Which of the following chemical cells is considered a dry cell? A. Silver oxide cell B. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell C. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell D. Car battery □
4.
Which of the following electrical appliances CANNOT be powered by dry cells? A. B. C. D. □
5.
Which of the following is NOT a secondary cell? A. Nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell B. Lithium-ion rechargeable cell C. Alkaline manganese cell
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
194
D. Lead-acid accumulator □
6.
Which of the following cells is/are rechargeable? (1) Zinc-carbon cell (2) Nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell (3) Silver oxide cell A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
7.
Which of the following cells is a secondary cell? A. Alkaline manganese cell B. Nickel-cadmium cell C. Zinc-carbon cell D. Silver oxide cell □
8.
Which of the following dry cells is rechargeable? A. Alkaline manganese cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
9.
Simple chemical cells are NOT commonly used as a source of electricity for large domestic electrical appliances. Which of the following are the correct reasons? (1) The electric current generated is usually small. (2) The electromotive force generated is not steady. (3) It is inconvenient to use a simple chemical cell. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
10.
Which of the following statements best describes the ‘
service life
’
of a chemical cell? A. It refers to the period of effective service of a cell before its voltage falls to 0.8 V.
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
195
B. It refers to the period of effective service of a cell before it still retains 90% capacity. C. It refers to the period of effective service of a cell before it is still capable of producing a large current. D. It refers to the period of effective service of a cell before it is still capable of supplying a steady current at room temperature. □
11.
Which of the following discharge curves is correct for a nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell? A. B. C. D. Voltage Time of discharge Voltage Time of discharge Voltage Time of discharge Voltage Time of discharge
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
196
□
12.
Which of the following statements is correct? A. Charge capacity of a cell is expressed in mAh. B. Service life of a cell usually refers to the time the cell taken to have its voltage drop to 0.1 V by continuous discharging through a certain resistance. C. Most electrical appliances cannot operate below 0.5 V, a cell can be considered as ‘dead’
if its voltage drops to 0.1 V. D. Silver oxide cell has a greater charge capacity than zinc-carbon cell does. □
13.
Which of the following statements about primary cells are INCORRECT? (1) All are rechargeable. (2) All give an unsteady voltage over discharge. (3) All have poor performance at low temperatures. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
14.
Which of the following cells has the shortest shelf life? A. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
15.
Which of the following cells CANNOT supply a steady voltage? A. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
16.
Which of the following cells will be the first to drop its voltage to 0.8 V when connected to a motor? A. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
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197
17.
Which of the following cells contains an electrolyte that is different from the others? A. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
18.
Which of the following cells has a negative electrode that is different from the others? A. Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cell B. Silver oxide cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Zinc-carbon cell □
19.
Which of the following combinations is correct? Type of cell Positive electrode Negative electrode A. Zinc-carbon cell Zinc Graphite B. Alkaline manganese cell Manganese(IV) oxide Zinc C. Silver oxide cell Zinc oxide Silver D. Zinc-carbon cell Ammonium chloride Graphite □
20.
Which of the following is/are the advantages of nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell over alkaline manganese cell? (1) It provides a constant voltage over discharge. (2) It is rechargeable. (3) It has a longer shelf life. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only □
21.
Lithium-ion rechargeable cells are commonly used in mobile phones because (1) they are lightweight. (2) they are inexpensive. (3) they are able to operate at a relatively high discharge rate. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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198
D. (1), (2) and (3) □
22.
Which of the following statements concerning a silver oxide cell is correct? A. The voltage falls rapidly over discharge. B. The negative electrode of the cell is a mixture of powdered graphite and silver oxide. C. The charge capacity is greater than that of a zinc-carbon cell. D. The electrolyte in the cell is potassium hydroxide. □
23.
Lithium-ion rechargeable cells are commonly used in computer notebooks because (1) they can be recharged more than 1200 times. (2) they have a longer service life than that of nickel-cadmium rechargeable cells. (3) they have high energy density. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
24.
Which of the following statements concerning a lead-acid accumulator are correct? (1) It supplies 12 V electricity during discharge. (2) It provides an extremely high current. (3) It is able to operate at a relatively high discharge rate. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
25.
Which of the following dry cells is most suitable for a quartz watch? A. Nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell B. Zinc-carbon cell C. Alkaline manganese cell D. Silver oxide cell □
26.
Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of zinc-carbon cells? (1) Lightweight (2) Cheap
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(3) Performance is good at low temperatures A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
27.
Which of the following statements about an alkaline manganese cell are INCORRECT? (1) The cell is rechargeable. (2) The cell contains ammonium chloride as the electrolyte. (3) The new cell gives a voltage of 1.25 V. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
28.
Three AA-sized cells: zinc-carbon cell(
X
), nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell(
Y
) and alkaline manganese cell(
Z
) are under test. Each cell is continuously discharged (by connecting to a motor toy), until its voltage drops to 0.8 V. Three discharge curves obtained are shown as follow. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. The nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell delivers a higher voltage in its service life compared with that of the zinc-carbon cell. B. The nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell can maintain a voltage around 1.25 V during discharge. C. The zinc-carbon cell has the shortest service life. D. The voltage of the nickel-cadmium rechargeable cell drops to 0.8 V suddenly. Voltage (V) Time (hour) X
Y
Z
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
200
□
29.
A dry cell with a flat discharge curve is most suitable for an electrical appliance that requires A. a steady output voltage. B. a large current. C. to work at low temperatures. D. a cheap source of electricity. □
30.
The table below lists the prices and service lives of four AA-sized dry cells when used in a cassette player. Which would be the ‘best buy’?
Cell type Cost (HK$) Service Life (hour) A. Zinc-carbon cell(Brand P
) $1.80 2.0 B. Zinc-carbon cell(Brand Q
) $2.10 2.2 C. Zinc-carbon cell(Brand R
) $5.20 8.5 D. Zinc-carbon cell(Brand S
) $6.50 9.0 □
31.
Which of the following should NEVER be attempted? A. Joining zinc-carbon cells of different brands in series B. Exposing a well-used zinc-carbon cell to bright sunlight C. Discharging a zinc-carbon cell for a long time D. Charging an alkaline manganese cell □
32.
Nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cells are considered more environmentally friendly than primary cells because A. nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cells contain no toxic substances. B. nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cells are rechargeable. C. nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cells have a shorter shelf life than most primary cells. D. nickel-metal hydride rechargeable cells operate at a relatively high discharge rate. □
33.
Which of the following substances could be recovered from secondary cells? (1) Iron (2) Nickel (3) Graphite A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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D. (1), (2) and (3) □
A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 34.
Dry cells contain no water. Dry cells are convenient to use. □
35.
Lithium-ion rechargeable cells have a long shelf life. Lithium-ion rechargeable cells have a voltage of 1.2 V. □
36.
Silver oxide cells are able to produce a large current. Silver oxide cells have a long service life. □
37.
Silver oxide cells are primary cells. Alkaline manganese cells give a flat discharge curve. □
38.
Silver oxide cells are used in hearing aids. Silver oxide cells are primary cells. □
39.
Silver oxide cells are cylindrical cells. Silver oxide cells are used in quartz watch. □
40.
Alkaline manganese cells have a shorter service life than zinc-carbon cells. Electrolyte used in zinc-carbon cells is potassium hydroxide. 41.
Zinc-carbon cells can supply a steady current over discharge. Zinc-carbon cells use ammonium chloride as electrolyte. □
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Chemistry: Chapter 30 Simple chemical cells Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 28 Simple chemical cells 1.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following statements are correct? (1) Magnesium electrode is the negative electrode. (2) Hydrogen gas is evolved at the lead electrode. (3) Electrons flow from magnesium electrode to lead electrode in the lemon. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
2.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following combinations is correct? Electrode X
Electrode Y
A. Copper Copper B. Silver Copper C. Zinc Copper D. Plastic rod Copper □
electrode Y
electrolyte electrode X
connecting wires magnesium electrode lead electrode lemon
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3.
Which of the following sets of substances can form a simple chemical cell? A. Zinc, iron and tetrachloromethane B. Iron, plastic rod and potassium chloride solution C. Magnesium, zinc and lemon juice D. Copper, graphite and distilled water □
4.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following solutions should be used as an electrolyte in order to produce the largest ammeter reading? A. 0.3 M sulphuric acid B. 0.5 M sulphuric acid C. 0.3 M ethanoic acid D. 0.5 M ethanoic acid □
5.
Consider the following set-up: Which of the following substances is/are NOT suitable to be used as an electrolyte? (1) Concentrated nitric acid (2) Dilute sulphuric acid (3) Aqueous solution of citric acid A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only iron electrode silver electrode electrolyte zinc electrode silver electrode electrolyte
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D. (2) and (3) only □
6.
Which of the following substances is the best electrical conductor in molten state? A. Sulphur B. Wax C. Lead(II) bromide D. Phosphorus □
7.
Which of the following substances conducts electricity by the movement of ions? A. Potassium nitrate solution B. Iron metal C. Molten zinc D. Graphite □
8.
An apparatus was set up as shown in the diagram below. Which of the following substances, when added to distilled water, would cause the bulb to glow? A. Oil B. Iron fillings C. Sugar D. Copper(II) sulphate □
9.
Which of the following equations is correct for the reactions taking place in the chemical cell as shown below? graphite electrode graphite electrode distilled water
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A. Mg(s)
Mg
2+
(aq) + 2e
B. Cu(s)
Cu
2+
(aq) + 2e
C. Na
+
(aq) + e
Na(s) D. 2Cl
(aq)
Cl
2
(g) + 2e
□
10.
Which of the following metals loses electrons most readily (to form cations) in an aqueous solution? A. Magnesium B. Lead C. Sodium D. Potassium □
11.
Which of the following statements is true? A. Electricity can be generated from all chemical reactions. B. Copper always forms the positive pole of any chemical cell. C. Heat is produced when a chemical cell operates. D. Simple chemical cells are commonly used in everyday life as a source of electricity. □
12.
Metal X
is higher than metal Y
in the Electrochemical Series. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. In most cases, X
should be more reactive than Y
. B. X
loses electrons to form cations in aqueous solution more readily than Y
. C. The further apart X
and Y
are in the series, the greater is the voltage of the chemical cell formed using the two metals. D. Y
is the negative pole in the chemical cell with the metal couple X
/
Y
. □
13.
Which of the following statements about the Electrochemical Series are correct? (1) The positions of metals in the Electrochemical Series are identical with that in bulb lights magnesium electrode copper electrode sodium chloride solution
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the metal reactivity series. (2) It arranges metals according to their tendencies to lose electrons. (3) For a simple chemical cell consisting of two different metals and an electrolyte, the further apart the two metals are in the Electrochemical Series, the higher is the voltage of the cell. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
14.
Which of the following metal couples would give the greatest voltage? Electrode X
Electrode Y
A. Zinc Copper B. Magnesium Copper C. Silver Copper D. Iron Copper □
15.
Which of the following cells would give the greatest voltage? A. electrode X
electrode Y
sodium chloride solution lead electrode copper electrode sodium chloride solution
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
212
B. C. D. □
16.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. magnesium electrode silver electrode sugar solution zinc electrode lead electrode sodium chloride solution zinc electrode copper electrode sodium chloride solution
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
213
Which of the following pairs of metals will produce the largest voltage? Electrode P Electrode Q A. Iron Zinc B. Magnesium Copper C. Magnesium Iron D. Copper Iron □
17.
In which of the following simple chemical cell does the bulb glow most brightly? A. B. C. D. digital multimeter (as voltmeter) electrode Q
electrode P
sodium chloride solution Mg Cu distilled water Mg Cu dilute hydrochloric acid Zn Fe dilute hydrochloric acid Zn Fe distilled water
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
214
□
18.
Consider the following set-up: Which of the following does the set-up demonstrate? (1) A chemical reaction producing electricity. (2) The electrolysis of dilute hydrochloric acid. (3) There is a difference in reactivity between iron and copper. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
19.
Which of the following circuits would produce the highest reading on the ammeter? A. B. Mg Cu distilled water Zn Pb dilute sulphuric acid iron rod copper rod dilute hydrochloric acid
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
215
C. D. □
20.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following changes would lead to an increase in the voltage of the cell? (1) The magnesium electrode is replaced by a zinc electrode. (2) The iron electrode is replaced by a copper electrode. (3) The sodium chloride solution is replaced by ethanol. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
21.
Consider the following set-up: Mg Cu dilute sulphuric acid Mg Cu sugar solution magnesium electrode iron electrode sodium chloride solution
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
216
In an experiment, the tendency of four metals W
, X
, Y
and Z
to lose electrons in aqueous solution are compared. In each case, the voltmeter reading was recorded. The results were tabulated as follows: Metal under test Direction of electron flow in the external circuit Voltage recorded (volts) W W
to Cu +0.79 X Cu to X
0.22 Y Y
to Cu +1.41 Z Z
to Cu +0.20 Which of the following represents the decreasing order of tendency to lose electrons (in aqueous solution) of the metals? A. X
> Y
> Z
> W
B. W
> X
> Z
> Y
C. Y > W
> Z
> X
D. Z
> W
> X
> Y
□
22.
Which of the following is correct for the positions of some metals in the Electrochemical Series? A. Na > Ca > Zn > Mg B. Mg > K > Zn > Cu C. Ca > Na > Fe > Ag D. Zn > Al > Ca > Mg □
23.
Consider the following set-up: digital multimeter (as voltmeter) another metal foil filter paper soaked in NaCl(aq) plastic sheet copper foil
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
217
Which of the following statements about the set-up is correct? A. Silver dissolves inside the lemon. B. Silver is the negative pole of the cell. C. Chemical energy is changed into electrical energy. D. Electrons flow from magnesium to silver inside the lemon. □
24.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. To obtain the largest current, X
should be A. silver. B. copper. C. zinc. D. magnesium. □
25.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. silver magnesium lemon connecting wires flow of electrons electrode X
lead potassium nitrate solution
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
218
Which of the following statements about this cell is correct? A. Zinc dissolves in sodium nitrate solution to form Zn
2+
(aq) ions. B. Electrons flow from silver to zinc. C. The voltmeter gives a negative reading. D. Zinc is the positive electrode. □
26.
The diagram shows a simple cell in which metals P
and Q
are the electrodes. Which pair of metals would produce the highest voltage? Electrode P
Electrode Q
A. Fe Cu B. Mg Cu C. Mg Zn D. Zn Cu □
27.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. zinc electrode silver electrode sodium nitrate solution electrode P
electrode Q
electrolyte
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
219
Which of the following statements are correct? (1) The mass of the copper electrode increases. (2) The filter paper acts as a salt bridge. (3) Electrons flow from zinc electrode to copper electrode through the external circuit. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
28.
Which of the following statements concerning salt bridge are correct? (1) It completes the circuit by allowing ions to move from one half-cell into the other. (2) It provides ions to balance the charges in the solutions of the two half-cells. (3) It allows electrons to flow from one electrode to the other electrode. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
29.
Consider the following set-up: copper electrode zinc electrode salt bridge copper(II) sulphate solution zinc sulphate solution digital multimeter (as voltmeter)
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
220
Which of the following statements concerning the above set-up is correct? A. Electrons flow from zinc electrode to copper electrode through the salt bridge. B. The copper electrode loses electrons. C. The concentration of copper(II) ions increases. D. The zinc electrode is the negative electrode. □
30.
Consider the following set-up: Which of the following substances is/are NOT suitable for preparing salt bridge? (1) Sodium hydroxide solution (2) Sodium chloride solution (3) Lead(II) nitrate solution A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only zinc electrode copper electrode zinc sulphate solution copper(II) sulphate solution salt bridge digital multimeter (as voltmeter) magnesium electrode copper electrode magnesium sulphate solution copper(II) sulphate solution salt bridge digital multimeter (as voltmeter)
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A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
221
□
31.
Consider the following set-up: After the cell operates, its voltage drops quickly. It is because A. zinc electrode dissolves gradually in sodium chloride solution. B. hydrogen gas evolved at the zinc and copper electrodes stops the reaction. C. a thin layer of oxide is formed on the copper electrode. D. the hydrogen ions in the sodium chloride solution have been used up. □
32.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following substances is/are suitable for preparing salt bridge? (1) Potassium hydroxide solution (2) Sodium nitrate solution (3) Silver nitrate solution A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
33.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. zinc electrode copper electrode sodium chloride solution magnesium electrode copper electrode copper(II) sulphate solution magnesium chloride solution salt bridge digital multimeter (as voltmeter)
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222
Which of the following would NOT occur? A. Copper electrode would react with dilute hydrochloric acid. B. Zinc electrode would react with dilute hydrochloric acid. C. A gas is evolved at the zinc electrode. D. A gas is evolved at the copper electrode. □
34.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following statements about the cell is/are correct? (1) Lead metal deposits on the lead electrode. (2) The concentration of zinc ions increases in half-cell P
. (3) Salt bridge allows electrons to flow from one half-cell into the other. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
35.
Which of the following statements about salt bridge is INCORRECT? A. It completes the circuit of a simple chemical cell. B. It allows ions to move from one half-cell into the other. zinc electrode copper electrode dilute hydrochloric acid zinc electrode lead electrode 1 M zinc sulphate solution 1 M lead(II) nitrate solution P Q digital multimeter (as voltmeter) salt bridge
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223
C. It provides ions to balance the charges in the solutions of the two half-cells. D. Silver chloride solution can be used to make a salt bridge. □
36.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following statements about the salt bridge in the diagram is INCORRECT? A. Zn
2+
(aq) ions move from half-cell P
to half-cell Q
through the salt bridge. B. Cu
2+
(aq) ions move from half-cell Q
to half-cell P
through the salt bridge. C. NO
3
(aq) ions move into the salt bridge to half-cell P
. D. Na
+
(aq) ions move in the salt bridge to half-cell Q
. □
37.
In an experiment, a copper rod and an iron rod are dipped into dilute sulphuric acid, with their top ends touching each other. Hydrogen bubbles are found around the copper rod. Which of the following statements about the experiment is correct? A. Electrons flow from copper rod to iron rod. B. The iron rod becomes coated with copper. C. Iron is more reactive than copper. P Q zinc electrode copper electrode digital multimeter (as voltmeter) 1 M ZnSO
4
(aq) 1 M CuSO
4
(aq) salt bridge (soaked in NaNO
3
(aq)) iron rod copper rod dilute sulphuric acid hydrogen gas bubbles
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224
D. Copper reacts with the acid. □
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 38.
If an iron/copper metal couple is used as electrodes in a simple chemical cell, electrons flow from iron to copper through the external circuit. Iron is the negative electrode of this cell. □
39.
A simple chemical cell can be set up by putting two different metals in an electrolyte. The two metals are connected by an external wire. Electrons flow from the more reactive metal to the less reactive metal through the external wire in the simple chemical cell. □
40.
In the Cu/Ag chemical cell, copper is the negative pole. Copper loses electrons more readily than silver. □
41.
Calcium is at a lower position than sodium in the Electrochemical Series. Calcium loses electrons in aqueous solution more readily than sodium. □
42.
A salt bridge used to complete the circuit by joining the two half-cells of a chemical cell. Salt bridge helps to maintain electrical neutrality of the two half-cells. □
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230
Chemistry: Chapter 31 Redox reactions Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 29 Redox reactions 1.
Which of the following statements about an oxidizing agent is always true? (1) It gains electrons. (2) It loses oxygen. (3) It oxidizes other substances in a reaction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
2.
Consider the chemical equation below: SO
2
(g) + 2Mg(s)
2MgO(s) + S(s) Which of the following substances is an oxidizing agent? A. MgO(s) B. S(s) C. Mg(s) D. SO
2
(g) □
3.
Which of the following substances CANNOT reduce lead(II) oxide to lead? A. Zinc B. Coke C. Sodium carbonate D. Carbon monoxide □
4.
Consider the following reaction, which is the reducing agent? Mg(s) + Cu
2+
(aq)
Mg
2+
(aq) + Cu(s) A. Mg(s) B. Cu
2+
(aq) C. Mg
2+
(aq) D. Cu(s) □
5.
The reaction between zinc and dilute sulphuric acid can be represented by the ionic equation below. Zn(s) + 2H
+
(aq)
Zn
2+
(aq) + H
2
(g) Which of the following statements correctly describes the conversion of zinc atoms to zinc ions?
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A. The change is an oxidation because there has been a release of hydrogen. B. The change is an oxidation because there has been a loss of electrons. C. The change is a reduction because there has been a gain of electrons. D. The change is a reduction because there has been a loss of electrons. □
6.
What is the oxidation number of carbon in CaCO
3
? A.
4 B. 0 C. +4 D. +5 □
7.
Which of the following statements concerning oxidation number are correct? (1) The oxidation number of a free element is zero. (2) The oxidation numbers of Group I elements in all of their compounds are +1. (3) The oxidation number of oxygen in all of its compounds is
2. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
8.
Which of the following underlined species have an oxidation number of +2? (1) PbO (2) Mg (3) [CuCl
4
]
2
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
Manganese has an oxidation number of +6 in A. MnO
2
. B. Mn
3
O
4
. C. MnO
4
2
. D. MnO
4
. □
10.
In which of the following substances does sulphur exhibit the highest oxidation number? A. Na
2
SO
4
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232
B. SO
2
C. Na
2
SO
3 D. S
8
□
11.
In which of the following substances does nitrogen exhibit the lowest oxidation number? A. NaNO
2
B. HNO
3
C. NH
4
Cl D. N
2
□
12.
In which of the following compounds is the oxidation number of oxygen NOT equal to
2? A. MgO B. H
2
O C. CO D. F
2
O □
13.
What are the oxidation numbers of Cr in the following three chromium-containing species? Cr
2
O
7
2
, CrO
4
2
, CrO
3
A. +7, +4, +3 B. +6, +6, +6 C.
2,
2, 0 D. +7, +3, +3 □
14.
What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO
4
? A. +4 B. +5 C. +6 D. +7 □
15.
Which of the following names is correct for the compound with a formula of Na
2
SO
3
? A. Sodium sulphide B. Sodium sulphate(VI) C. Sodium sulphate(IV) D. Sodium thiosulphate
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233
□
16.
Which of the following names is/are correct for compound with a formula of KMnO
4
? (1) Potassium permanganate (2) Potassium manganate(VI) (3) Potassium manganate(VII) A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
17.
The manufacture of sulphuric acid, starting from iron(II) sulphide, can be represented as follows: FeS
SO
2
SO
3
H
2
SO
4
Oxidation number W X Y Z Which of the following correctly shows the oxidation number of sulphur at each stage of the process? W X Y Z A. 0 +2 +6 +6 B.
1 +2 +6 +6 C.
2 +4 +4 +6 D.
2 +4 +6 +6 □
18.
The oxidation number of zinc in [Zn(OH)
4
]
2
is A. 0. B.
2. C. +2. D. +4. □
19.
Which reactant (underlined) is NOT a reducing agent in the reaction indicated? A. PbO(s) + CO(g)
Pb(s) + CO
2
(g) B. Zn(s) + 2Ag
+
(aq)
Zn
2+
(aq) + 2Ag(s) C. Br
2
(l) + 2I
(aq)
2Br
(aq) + I
2
(aq) D. SO
2
(g) + H
2
O(l)
H
2
SO
3
(aq) □
20.
Which of the following is a redox reaction? A. CO
2
(g) + Ca(OH)
2
(aq)
CaCO
3
(s) + H
2
O(l)
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234
B. HNO
3
(aq) + KOH(aq)
KNO
3
(aq) + H
2
O(l) C. Na
2
CO
3
(aq) + 2HCl(aq)
2NaCl(aq) + CO
2
(g) + H
2
O(l) D. 2AgNO
3
(s)
2Ag(s) + 2NO
2
(g) + O
2
(g) □
21.
The atomic structure of an element is: Number of protons 19 Number of electrons 19 Number of neutrons 20 In its compounds, this element is most likely to have an oxidation number of A. +2. B. +1. C.
1. D.
2. □
22.
Refer to the following reaction: C(s) + O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) The oxidation number of carbon A. increases from 0 to +4. B. increases from 0 to +2. C. remains unchanged, that is +4. D. decreases from +4 to +2. □
23.
Refer to the following reaction: 2NaOH(aq) + CO
2
(g)
Na
2
CO
3
(aq) + H
2
O(l) The oxidation number of carbon A. increases from +2 to +4. B. remains unchanged, that is +4. C. decreases from +2 to
2. D. decreases from +2 to
4. □
24.
Which of the following statements concerning the reaction between chlorine gas and dilute sodium hydroxide solution is/are correct? Cl
2
(g) + 2NaOH(aq)
NaCl(aq) + NaOCl(aq) + H
2
O(l) (1) NaOH(aq) is an oxidizing agent in the reaction. (2) Cl
2
(g) is an oxidizing agent in the reaction. (3) Cl
2
(g) is a reducing agent in the reaction. A. (1) only B. (2) only
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235
C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
25.
Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction? A. Na
2
SO
4
+ BaCl
2
BaSO
4
+ 2NaCl B. CaCO
3
CaO + CO
2
C. CH
4
+ 2O
2
CO
2
+ 2H
2
O D. Ca(OH)
2
+ SO
2
CaSO
3 + H
2
O □
26.
In which of the following chemical equations, does an element in the reducing agent show the greatest change in oxidation number? A. Mg + 2NO
3
+ 4H
+
Mg
2+
+ 2NO
2
+ 2H
2
O B. 3Cu + 2NO
3
+ 8H
+
3Cu
2+
+ 2NO + 4H
2
O C. N
2
+ 2O
2
NO
2
D. N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
□
27.
Consider the following reaction, which is being reduced? Cl
2
+ 2I
2Cl
+ I
2
A. Cl
2
B. I
C. Cl
D. I
2
□
28.
Which of the following changes is an example of oxidation? A. Iodide ions to iodine molecules B. Zinc ions to zinc atoms C. Iron(III) ions to iron(II) ions D. Sulphur dioxide to sulphurous acid □
29.
Which of the following indicates reduction? Oxidation number Electrons Oxygen A. Decrease Lose Removal B. Decrease Lose Addition C. Decrease Gain Removal D. Increase Gain Addition □
30.
The reaction between iron(III) sulphate solution and sodium iodide solution can be represented by the ionic equation below.
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236
2Fe
3+
(aq) + 2I
(aq)
2Fe
2+
(aq) + I
2
(aq) Which of the following shows the correct change in the oxidation number of iodine? A. 0 to
2 B. 0 to
1 C.
1 to 0 D.
1 to
2 □
31.
Which of the following represents reduction? A. Hydrogen ion changes to hydrogen. B. Iron(II) ion changes to iron(III) ion. C. Lead changes to lead(II) oxide. D. Calcium ion reacts with sulphate ion to form calcium sulphate. □
32.
In which of the following reactions does the oxidation number of carbon show the greatest increase? A. CH
4
(g) + 2O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) B. C(s) + O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) C. 2CO(g) + O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g) D. CO
2
(g) + Ca(OH)
2
(aq)
CaCO
3
(s) + H
2
O(l) □
33.
Which of the following equations does NOT represent a redox reaction? A. Cl
2
(g) + 2Br
(aq)
2Cl
(aq) + Br
2
(aq) B. 2Fe
3+
(aq) + 2I
(aq)
2Fe
2+
(aq) + I
2
(aq) C. Ca
2+
(aq) + CO
3
2
(aq)
CaCO
3
(s) D. 2Ag
+
(aq) + Cu(s)
2Ag(s) + Cu
2+
(aq) □
34.
An element is oxidized if (1) oxygen atom(s) is/are added to it. (2) its oxidation number decreases. (3) it loses electron(s). A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
35.
Which of the following are redox reactions? (1) ZnO(s) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
ZnSO
4
(aq) + H
2
O(l) (2) Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq)
FeCl
2
(aq) + H
2
(g)
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237
(3) 2MnO
2
(s) + H
2
(g)
Mn
2
O
3
(s) + H
2
O(l) A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
36.
In which of the following changes is chlorine reduced? A. HCl to Cl
2
O B. HCl to HClO
3
C. Cl
to Cl
2
D. Cl
2
to HCl □
37.
The equation for the reaction between hydrogen peroxide, H
2
O
2
, and an oxide, M
2
O is shown below: M
2
O(s) + H
2
O
2
(l)
2M(s) + H
2
O(l) + O
2
(g) What is the function of hydrogen peroxide, H
2
O
2
, in this reaction? A. A drying agent B. A base C. An oxidizing agent D. A reducing agent □
38.
When a spatula measure of metal X
powder was added to a test tube containing copper(II) sulphate solution, a brown precipitate was obtained. The temperature of the test tube rose and no metal X
remained. Which of the following conclusions CANNOT be deduced from the information provided? A. Copper(II) ions have been reduced. B. Copper(II) sulphate solution is in excess. C. The reaction is exothermic. D. X
can form an ion with a charge of +2. □
39.
Which of the following equations represents a redox reaction? A. 2KNO
3
(s)
2KNO
2
(s) + O
2
(g) B. MgCO
3
(s)
MgO(s) + CO
2
(g) C. Ca(HCO
3
)
2
(aq)
CaCO
3
(s) + H
2
O(l) + CO
2
(g) D. 2CrO
4
2
(aq) + 2H
+
(aq)
Cr
2
O
7
2
(aq) + H
2
O(l) □
40.
Which of the following changes is NOT a redox reaction? A. 2NaHCO
3
Na
2
CO
3
+ H
2
O + CO
2
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238
B. Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 2HI
2FeSO
4
+ I
2
+ H
2
SO
4
C. 2NaClO
3
2NaCl + 3O
2
D. Zn + 2HCl
ZnCl
2
+ H
2
□
41.
In which of the following reactions is the underlined reactant being oxidized? A. SO
2
+ 2Mg
2MgO + S B. CuO + CO
Cu + CO
2
C. Fe
2+
+ 2OH
Fe(OH)
2
D. Cu + 2AgNO
3
Cu(NO
3
)
2
+ 2Ag □
42.
The equation below represents the reaction of chlorine with sodium hydroxide solution. Cl
2
(g) + 2NaOH(aq)
NaCl(aq) + NaOCl(aq) + H
2
O(l) Which of the following statements about this reaction is/are correct? (1) Sodium hydroxide acts as an oxidizing agent. (2) The oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to
1. (3) The oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +1. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
43.
The oxidation product of SO
3
2
(aq) is A. SO
4
2
(aq). B. SO
2
(aq). C. SO
3
(aq). D. S(s). □
44.
Cr
2
O
7
2
(aq) + x
H
+
(aq) + y
e
2Cr
3+
(aq) + z
H
2
O(l) The values of x
, y
and z
in the above balanced ionic half equation are x y z A. 7 3 7 B. 9 1 9 C. 14 4 7 D. 14 6 7 □
45.
Acidified potassium dichromate solution is a strong oxidizing agent because A. K
+
(aq) ions in aqueous solution can be easily reduced.
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239
B. chromium metal is a good oxidizing agent. C. the ionic half equation Cr
2
O
7
2
(aq) + 14H
+
(aq) + 6e
2Cr
3+
(aq) + 7H
2
O(l) is low in the E.C.S. D. the acid present is a strong oxidizing agent. □
46.
Which of the following are reducing agents? (1) MnO
4
(aq) (2) Pb(s) (3) I
(aq) A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2), and (3) □
47.
When dilute sodium hydroxide solution is added to iron(II) sulphate solution, a dirty green gelatinous precipitate is formed. If a gas is bubbled into iron(II) sulphate solution before dilute sodium hydroxide solution is added to it, a reddish brown gelatinous precipitate is formed. What is this gas? A. Nitrogen dioxide B. Sulphur dioxide C. Chlorine D. Carbon dioxide □
48.
Potassium permanganate solution needs to be acidified to exhibit its oxidizing power. Dilute sulphuric acid instead of dilute hydrochloric acid is usually used to acidify potassium permanganate solution because A. sulphuric acid is a stronger acid. B. dilute sulphuric acid is also an oxidizing agent. C. potassium permanganate solution will react with chloride ions in hydrochloric acid to form chlorine gas. D. dilute hydrochloric acid will give an acid mist which is dangerous if inhaled. □
49.
Which of the following statements about dichromate ions is INCORRECT? A. Acidified dichromate ion solution can oxidize fluoride ion solution. B. Acidified dichromate ion solution can oxidize iron(II) ion solution. C. The oxidation number of chromium in dichromate ion is +6. D. The oxidation number of oxygen in dichromate ion is
1.
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240
□
50.
Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT when silver nitrate solution is added to iron(II) sulphate solution? (1) Iron(II) ions are reduced to iron. (2) The oxidation number of sulphur changes from +6 to +4. (3) Iron(II) sulphate is an oxidizing agent. A. (1) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
51.
In which of the following experiments will a redox reaction occur? A. Adding iodine solution to sodium chloride solution B. Adding copper turnings to zinc(II) nitrate solution C. Adding lead(II) nitrate solution to sodium sulphate solution D. Adding calcium to hot water □
52.
Consider the half equation below: IO
3
(aq) + x
H
+
(aq) + y
e
I
(aq) + z
H
2
O(l) Which of the following combinations is correct? x y z A. 2 4 6 B. 4 4 6 C. 4 6 5 D. 6 6 3 □
53.
Which of the following substances can react with acidified potassium permanganate solution? (1) Propene (2) Sodium sulphate solution (3) Potassium iodide solution A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) 54.
Which of the following statements about the reaction between acidified potassium dichromate solution and sodium sulphite solution are correct? (1) The oxidation number of sulphur increases.
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(2) The colour of acidified potassium dichromate solution changes from orange to green. (3) Chromium(III) ions are oxidized in the reaction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
55.
Consider the following equation: x
Fe
2+
+ MnO
4
+ 8H
+
x
Fe
3+
+ Mn
2+
+ 4H
2
O What should
x
be? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 □
56.
When sodium sulphite solution is added to acidified potassium permanganate solution, a reaction occurs. Which of the following statements about this reaction are correct? (1) The oxidation number of sulphur will increase after the reaction. (2) The colour of the acidified potassium permanganate solution changes from purple to colourless. (3) The half ionic equation for the reduction is MnO
4
(aq) + 8H
+
(aq) + 5e
Mn
2+
(aq) + 4H
2
O(l). A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
57.
Consider the ionic half equations of a redox reaction: 8H
+
(aq) + MnO
4
(aq) + 5e
Mn
2+
(aq) + 4H
2
O(l) SO
3
2
(aq) + H
2
O(l)
SO
4
2
(aq) + 2H
+
(aq) +2e
How many moles of MnO
4
(aq) ions react completely with one mole of SO
3
2
(aq) ions? A. 0.2 mol B. 0.4 mol C. 0.5 mol D. 0.6 mol
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242
□
58.
Consider the following chemical equation: HNO
3
+ p
FeCl
2
+ q
HCl
r
FeCl
3
+ NO + 2H
2
O Which of the following combinations is correct? p q r A. 3 2 1 B. 3 3 3 C. 1 2 3 D. 1 2 1 □
59.
In an experiment, sulphur dioxide is passed into bromine water. Which of the following statements about this experiment is correct? A. The colour of the bromine water changes from brown to yellow. B. A brown solid is formed. C. A redox reaction occurs. D. Sulphur dioxide is oxidized to sulphur trioxide. □
60.
Which of the following elements is the strongest reducing agent? A. Fluorine B. Chlorine C. Sodium D. Potassium □
61.
X
is a group VII element. A reaction occurs when X
2
gas is bubbled into sodium chloride solution at room temperature. Which of the following statements concerning X
is/are INCORRECT? (1) Cl
2
is a stronger oxidizing agent than X
2
. (2) If Cl
2
is bubbled into Na
X
(aq), X
(aq) will be oxidized. (3) X
(aq) can be oxidized more easily than Cl
(aq). A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
62.
Which of the following substances has the strongest oxidizing power? A. H
+
B. Fe
2+
C. Mg
2+
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243
D. Na
+
□
63.
Which of the following halogens has the strongest oxidizing power? A. I
2
B. Br
2
C. Cl
2
D. F
2
□
64.
Which of the following halide ions has the strongest reducing power? A. F
B. Cl
C. Br
D. I
□
65.
When hot concentrated nitric acid reacts with sulphur, A. sulphur is oxidized to sulphite ions. B. sulphur is oxidized to sulphate ions. C. nitric acid is reduced mainly to nitrogen monoxide. D. nitric acid is reduced mainly to nitrogen. □
66.
Dilute nitric acid is not used to acidify potassium permanganate solution. This is because nitric acid A. is much more expensive than other mineral acids. B. would react with potassium permanganate, turning it colourless. C. is itself an oxidizing agent and would compete for the reducing agent, thus interfering with the reaction. D. readily decomposes even at low temperatures. □
67.
Which of the following statements about nitric acid is correct? A. It is a strong acid only in concentrated solutions. B. It is an oxidizing agent only in concentrated solutions. C. It is a weak acid in extremely dilute solutions. D. Its corrosive nature may be explained by its oxidizing property. □
68.
Which of the following observations are correct when a piece of copper foil is put into dilute nitric acid? (1) The colour of the solution turns blue. (2) The copper foil dissolves.
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244
(3) Brown fumes are seen at the mouth of the test tube. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
69.
Consider the following equation: Cu(s) + 2NO
3
(aq) + 4H
+
(aq)
Cu
2+
(
x
) + 2NO
2
(
y
) + 2H
2
O(
z
) Which of the following combinations is correct? x y z A. aq aq g B. aq g g C. aq g l D. l g l □
70.
Which of the following statements about concentrated nitric acid is INCORRECT? A. It is a strong acid. B. It is a strong oxidizing agent. C. It is a dehydrating agent. D. It is highly corrosive. □
71.
Which of the following can be observed when copper turnings are added to dilute nitric acid? (1) Copper dissolves to give a colourless solution. (2) A brown gas is formed. (3) The solution becomes warm. A. (1) and (2) only B. (2) and (3) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
72.
Which of the following metals can react with dilute nitric acid? (1) Mg (2) Fe (3) Cu A. (1) and (2) only B. (2) and (3) only
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245
C. (1) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
73.
Which of the following substances react with both concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid? A. S B. C C. Zn D. FeSO
4
□
74.
A large piece of zinc is added to a beaker half filled with copper(II) sulphate solution. The mixture is allowed to stand for 5 minutes. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. The resultant solution becomes paler in colour. B. Zinc partly dissolves. C. Zinc is reduced. D. The oxidation number of copper decreases. □
75.
Consider the simple chemical cell shown below. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) A larger current is produced when pure sulphuric acid is used instead of dilute sulphuric acid. (2) Current flows from lead electrode to zinc electrode. (3) Lead metal will be deposited on the lead electrode. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
76.
Which of the following metal oxides can be reduced by heating with carbon? lead electrode zinc electrode dilute sulphuric acid
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(1) Calcium oxide (2) Copper(II) oxide (3) Iron(II) oxide A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
77.
The following are part of an E.C.S.: A
2+
(aq) + 2e
A
(s) Stronger reducing agent
B
2+
(aq) + 2e
B
(s) Stronger oxidizing agent C
2+
(aq) + 2e
C
(s) Which of the following reactions is possible? A. B
(s) + A
2+
(aq)
B
2+
(aq) + A
(s) B. A
(s) + B
2+
(aq)
A
2+
(aq) + B
(s) C. A
2+
(aq) + C
(s)
A
(s) + C
2+
(aq) D. B
2+
(aq) + C
(s)
B
(s) + C
2+
(aq) □
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 78.
A reducing agent is a substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction. A reducing agent is a substance which reduces others in a redox reaction. □
79.
H
2
O
2
is an ionic compound. The oxidation number of oxygen in H
2
O
2
is
1.
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80.
There are Si
4+
ions in the compound SiO
2
. The oxidation number of silicon in SiO
2
is +4. □
81.
The oxidation number of Mg in MgCl
2
is +2. The oxidation number of an element in a simple ion is equal to the ionic charge. □
82.
The oxidation number of nitrogen in all nitrogen-containing compounds is +5. Nitrogen is a group V element. □
83.
Sodium is an oxidizing agent. Each sodium atom loses an electron when it reacts. □
84.
Ca is a stronger reducing agent than Fe. Ca loses electrons more readily than Fe. □
85.
I
2
is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl
2
. I
2
loses electrons more readily than Cl
2
. □
86.
Concentrated nitric acid is highly corrosive. Concentrated nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent. □
87.
Copper does not react with dilute nitric acid at room conditions. Copper is at a lower position than hydrogen in the Electrochemical Series. □
88.
Ag reacts with the H
+
(aq) ions in dilute nitric acid to give hydrogen gas. Nitric acid is a strong acid. □
89.
Cu can displace Ag
+
(aq) ions from its aqueous salt solution. Cu is a stronger reducing agent than Ag. □
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Chemistry: Chapter 32 Redox reactions in chemical cells Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 30 Redox reactions in chemical cells 1.
A simple chemical cell is shown below. Which of the following reactions is taking place at the anode?
A. Cu(s)
Cu
2+
(aq) + 2e
B. 2H
+
(aq) + 2e
H
2
(g)
C. Mg(s)
Mg
2+
(aq) + 2e
D. 4OH
(aq)
O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) + 4e
□
2.
Which of the following statements about the cathode of a chemical cell is/are correct? (1) The electrode at which reduction takes place. (2) It is the positive pole. (3) Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode through the external circuit. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
3.
The following diagram shows a simple chemical cell. magnesium copper dilute sulphuric acid platinum electrode platinum electrode salt bridge acidified potassium dichromate solution iron(II) sulphate solution
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Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are correct? (1) The platinum electrodes could be replaced by the graphite electrodes. (2) The colour of the iron(II) sulphate solution changes from pale green to yellow. (3) Electrons flow from the left electrode to the right electrode in the external circuit. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
4.
The following diagram shows a simple chemical cell. Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are INCORRECT? (1) Electrons flow from the right electrode to the left electrode in the external circuit. (2) Potassium chloride solution can be used as an electrolyte in the salt bridge. (3) The colour of acidified potassium permanganate solution changes from purple to colourless. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
5.
Which of the following chemical cell(s) will give zero reading(s) in the voltmeter? (1) graphite electrode graphite electrode salt bridge acidified potassium permanganate solution silver sulphite solution
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(2) (3) A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
6.
Consider the following chemical cell. salt bridge soaked in KCl(aq) silver zinc silver nitrate solution zinc sulphate solution platinum platinum salt bridge soaked in NaCl(aq) sodium sulphite solution acidified potassium dichromate solution platinum platinum salt bridge soaked in KNO
3
(aq) acidified potassium permanganate solution potassium iodide solution
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Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are correct? (1) Electrons flow from electrode Y
to electrode X
through the external circuit. (2) The electrodes can be made of platinum or graphite. (3) The solution near electrode X
changes from colourless to purple. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Consider the following chemical cell. Which of the following combinations can light up the bulb? Solution A
Solution B
A. Sodium sulphite Sodium iodide B. Potassium iodide Iron(II) nitrate C. Acidified potassium dichromate Iron(III) nitrate D. Iron(III) nitrate Sodium sulphite □
8.
Consider the following chemical cell. electrode X
electrode Y
salt bridge soaked in KNO
3
(aq) acidified potassium permanganate solution iron(II) sulphate solution platinum platinum salt bridge solution A
solution B
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Which of the following combinations will cause electrons to flow from electrode A
to electrode B
through the external circuit? Electrode A
Electrode B
Solution C
Solution D
(1) Iron Copper Iron(II) sulphate Copper(II) sulphate (2) Graphite Graphite Acidified potassium dichromate Sodium sulphite (3) Graphite Graphite Concentrated sulphuric acid Iron(III) nitrate A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only □
9.
Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell is correct? A. Electrons flow from electrode X
to electrode Y
through the external circuit. B. The solution near electrode Y
changes from green to orange. C. Oxidation occurs around electrode Y
. D. The solution near electrode X
changes from brown to colourless. □
electrode A
electrode B
salt bridge solution C
solution D
digital multimeter (as voltmeter) graphite electrode Y
acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(aq) salt bridge KI(aq) graphite electrode X
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10.
Which of the following statements concerning the set-up above is/are INCORRECT? (1) Reduction occurs around electrode X
. (2) The solution near electrode Y
changes from yellow to colourless. (3) Electrons flow from electrode Y
to electrode X
through the external circuit. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
11.
Which of following combinations can form a simple chemical cell with two platinum electrodes dipped in two separate half-cells X
and Y
? Solution in half-cell X
Solution in half-cell Y
A. Acidified KMnO
4
(aq) Acidified K
2
Cr
2
O
7
(aq) B. Br
2
(aq) KI(aq) C. Concentrated H
2
SO
4
(l) Br
2
(aq) D. FeSO
4
(aq) Na
2
SO
3
(aq) □
12.
Consider the following experiment. platinum electrode
X
salt bridge Na
2
SO
3
(aq) Br
2
(aq) digital multimeter (as voltmeter) platinum electrode
Y
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Which of the following statements concerning the above experiment is correct? A. Platinum electrodes are used because they are chemically inert. B. Oxidation takes place at electrode Y
. C. Electrons flow from electrode Y
to electrode X
in the external circuit. D. The solution around electrode Y
changes from colourless to purple. □
13.
The following diagram shows a simple chemical cell. Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are correct? (1) The solution around electrode Q
changes from colourless to brown. (2) The electrodes used can be made of platinum instead of graphite. (3) Reduction occurs around electrode P
. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
14.
The following diagram shows a simple chemical cell. platinum electrode
Y
salt bridge acidified potassium permanganate solution sodium sulphite solution digital multimeter (as voltmeter) platinum electrode
X
graphite electrode P
graphite electrode Q
electron flow iron(III) sulphate solution sodium iodide solution
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Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are correct? (1) Electrons flow from electrode P
to electrode Q
through the salt bridge. (2) The solution around electrode P
changes from pale green to yellow. (3) Reduction occurs at electrode Q
. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
15.
The following diagram shows a simple chemical cell. Which of the following statements concerning the above chemical cell are correct? (1) The salt bridge is made of filter paper soaked with sodium chloride solution. (2) Oxidation occurs at electrode Q
. (3) The overall reaction is 2I
(aq) + 2Fe
3+
(aq)
I
2
(aq) + 2Fe
2+
(aq). A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) 16.
Which of the following statements concerning a simple chemical cell constructed with inert electrodes and a salt bridge are correct? (1) The inert electrodes can be either made of platinum or graphite. (2) The two beakers must be connected by a salt bridge. graphite electrode P
graphite electrode Q
iron(II) sulphate solution acidified potassium permanganate solution graphite electrode P
graphite electrode Q
iron(III) sulphate solution potassium iodide solution salt bridge
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(3) The chemical cell converts chemical energy mainly into electrical energy. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
Which of the following combinations can construct a simple chemical cell with inert electrodes and a salt bridge? Electrolyte in half-cell A
Electrolyte in half-cell B
A. Potassium iodide solution Sodium nitrate solution B. Potassium iodide solution Iron(III) sulphate solution C. Iron(III) sulphate solution Sodium nitrate solution D. Iron(II) nitrate solution Sodium sulphites solution □
18.
Which of the following is used as the electrolyte of a zinc-carbon cell? A. Manganese(IV) oxide B. Sulphuric acid
C. Ammonium chloride
D. Potassium hydroxide □
19.
Which of the following are the differences between a well-used zinc-carbon cell and a new one? (1) The well-used one has a thinner zinc cup than the new one. (2) The internal resistance of the well-used one is higher than that of the new one. (3) The graphite rod of the well-used one is wetter than that of the new one. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
Which of the following statements about a zinc-carbon cell are INCORRECT? (1) Manganese(IV) oxide acts as the electrolyte. (2) The zinc cup acts as the cathode and gains electrons when the cell operates. (3) The zinc-carbon cell produces electrons. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only
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D. (1), (2) and (3) □
21.
Which of the following statements concerning manganese(IV) oxide in a zinc-carbon cell is correct? A. It increases the electrical conductivity of the cell. B. It acts as the electrolyte. C. It converts hydrogen gas bubbles produced into water. D. It improves the discharge rate of the cell. □
22.
Which of the following substances acts as the anode in a zinc-carbon cell? A. Zinc case B. Graphite rod C. Ammonium chloride paste D. Manganese(IV) oxide □
23.
Which of the following concerning the powdered graphite in a zinc-carbon cell is correct? A. It increases the electrical conductivity.
B. It absorbs hydrogen gas formed.
C. It acts as the positive electrode.
D. It converts hydrogen ions formed to water. □
24.
Which of the following combinations about a zinc-carbon cell is correct? Anode Cathode A. A zinc cup Powdered graphite B. A zinc cup Ammonium chloride C. A zinc cup A graphite rod D. A zinc cup Manganese(IV) oxide □
25.
Which of the following statements concerning a zinc-carbon cell are correct? (1) The manganese(IV) oxide is reduced to manganese(II) oxide. (2) The ammonium chloride paste is acidic. (3) The zinc case is a negative electrode. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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26.
The following diagram shows a longitudinal section of a zinc-carbon cell. Which of the following substances acts as the negative electrode in a zinc-carbon cell? A. Manganese(IV) oxide B. Zinc case C. Ammonium chloride paste D. Graphite rod □
27.
Which of the following statements about a zinc-carbon cell is correct? A. The reaction at cathode is Zn(s)
Zn
2+
(aq) + 2e
. B. The reaction at anode is 2MnO
2
(s) + 2H
+
(aq) + 2e
Mn
2
O
3
(s) + H
2
O(l). C. The hydrogen gas formed reacts with manganese(IV) oxide. D. The metal cap at the positive terminal becomes thinner and thinner after the cell is used. □
28.
Which of the following statements about a zinc-carbon cell are correct? (1) The electrolyte of the cell is mainly a paste of ammonium chloride. (2) The powdered graphite in the cell increases the electrical conductivity of the mixture surrounding the graphite rod. (3) The manganese(IV) oxide in the cell acts as a reducing agent. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
29.
In a zinc-carbon cell, manganese(IV) oxide acts as A. a conductor. B. an insulator. C. an oxidizing agent. D. a drying agent. □
30.
The diagram below shows a longitudinal section of a dry cell. graphite rod ammonium chloride paste manganese(IV) oxide and powdered graphite zinc case
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Which of the following statements concerning the above dry cell are correct? (1) The ammonium chloride paste is acidic due to the formation of H
+
(aq) ions from ammonium ions. (2) One of the side reactions in the dry cell is the formation of hydrogen gas. (3) The zinc case in the dry cell acts as a reducing agent. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
31.
Which of the following combinations about a lead-acid accumulator is correct? Negative electrode Positive electrode Electrolyte A. Lead plates Lead plates coated with lead(IV) oxide Hydrochloric acid B. Lead plates Lead plates coated with lead(IV) oxide Sulphuric acid C. Lead plates coated with lead(IV) oxide Lead plates Hydrochloric acid D. Lead plates coated with lead(IV) oxide Lead plates Sulphuric acid □
32.
Which of the following statements about a lead-acid accumulator is INCORRECT? A. It is rechargeable. B. It has deposits of PbSO
4
(s) on its electrodes during discharge. C. Its concentration of electrolyte decreases after discharge. D. Its positive electrode is made of lead plates coated with lead(II) oxide. □
33.
Which of the following statements concerning the lead-acid accumulators are correct? (1) They are commonly used as car batteries. (2) Theoretically, they can be discharged and recharged indefinitely. graphite rod ammonium chloride paste manganese(IV) oxide and powdered graphite zinc case
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(3) To recharge them, the household electricity is supplied to the cells. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
34.
Which of the following combinations concerning the concentration of the electrolyte, sulphuric acid, of a lead-acid accumulator during discharge and recharge is correct? Concentration of H
2
SO
4
(aq) during discharge Concentration of H
2
SO
4
(aq) during recharge A. Increase Increase B. Decrease Decrease C. Increase Decrease D. Decrease Increase □
35.
Which of the following statements concerning a lead-acid accumulator are correct? (1) During discharge, the reaction at the negative electrode is Pb(s) + SO
4
2
(aq)
PbSO
4
(s) + 2e
. (2) The positive electrode is coated with lead(IV) oxide. (3) The electrolyte used is nitric acid. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
36.
Which of the following statements concerning a lead-acid accumulator are correct? (1) It is commonly used as car batteries. (2) The concentration of the electrolyte decreases during discharge. (3) In practice, it can be discharged and recharged indefinitely. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
Which of the following chemical cells is/are primary cell(s)?
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(1) A zinc-carbon cell
(2) A lead-acid accumulator
(3) A fuel cell
A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (3) only
D. (2) and (3) only □
38.
Which of the following are the features of fuel cells? (1) High efficiency (2) High reliability (3) Non-polluting A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
39.
Which of the following statements about a fuel cell is correct? A. It is rechargeable. B. It has two lead plates as electrodes. C. Its concentration of electrolyte decreases after discharge. D. Its electrolyte is hot, concentrated sulphuric acid. □
40.
Which of the following concerning fuel cells are correct? (1) Fuel cells have relatively high efficiency in terms of energy production. (2) Fuel cells do not produce greenhouse gases or acidic gases. (3) Fuel cells are used in spacecraft. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
41.
Which of the following are the functions of porous nickel electrodes in the hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells? (1) They act as electrical conductors that connect the fuel cell to the external circuit. (2) They act as catalysts for the reactions. (3) They increase the surface area for the reactions. A. (1) and (2) only
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B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
42.
Which of the following statements concerning the hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells is/are correct? (1) They consist of three compartments separated from one another by two porous nickel electrodes. (2) The porous nickel electrodes can be replaced by graphite rods. (3) Hydrogen is fed into the cathode compartment and oxygen is fed into the anode compartment. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
43.
Which of the following substances is fed into the anode compartment in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. Carbon dioxide □
44.
Which of the following substances is fed into the cathode compartment in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. Carbon dioxide □
45.
Which of the following is the waste product of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell? A. Hydrogen B. Oxygen C. Water D. Carbon dioxide 46.
Which of the following statements concerning a zinc-carbon cell and a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell are correct? (1) The electrolyte of a zinc-carbon cell is acidic while the electrolyte of a
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hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is alkaline. (2) Both are primary cells. (3) Both generate water as the product in the cell reactions. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
47.
Which of the following concerning the advantages of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells are correct? (1) They have relatively high efficiency. (2) They do not emit any greenhouse gases like CO
2
. (3) They are rechargeable. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
48.
Which of the following statements concerning a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell are correct? (1) The nickel electrodes act as a catalyst for the reactions. (2) The half equation at the anode is H
2
(g)
2H
+
(aq) + 2e
. (3) The electrolyte used is a hot, concentrated potassium hydroxide solution. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
49.
Which of the following are the advantages of fuel cells over the internal combustion engines in vehicles? (1) No greenhouse gases are emitted during the operation of fuel cells. (2) The fuel cells have an efficiency of about 70%. (3) Fuel cells can be applied in small electronic products, e.g. notebook computers, MP3 players, mobile phones, etc. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3)
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□
Each question below consists of two separate statements. Decide whether each of the two statements is true or false; if both are true, then decide whether or not the second statement is a correct
explanation of the first statement. Then select one option from A to D according to the following table: A. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is a correct explanation of the 1st statement. B. Both statements are true and the 2nd statement is NOT a correct explanation of the 1st statement. C. The 1st statement is false but the 2nd statement is true. D. Both statements are false. 50.
When zinc granules are added to dilute hydrochloric acid, an electric current will be produced. The reaction between zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid is a redox reaction. □
51.
In a simple chemical cell, the electrons flow from the negative electrode to the positive electrode through the external circuit. In a simple chemical cell, oxidation occurs at the negative electrode and reduction occurs at the positive electrode. □
52.
Reduction occurs at the anode of a zinc-carbon cell. Oxidation occurs at the negative electrode of a zinc-carbon cell. □
53.
When a zinc-carbon cell is discharged rapidly, there is a drop in voltage. During rapid discharge, a large amount of hydrogen is produced around the graphite rod to form an insulating layer. □
54.
A well-used zinc-carbon cell contains less water than a new one. Water is evaporated from a zinc-carbon cell even when it is not used. □
55.
The positive electrode of a zinc-carbon cell is a zinc cup. The graphite rod in a zinc-carbon cell can produce electricity. □
56.
An unused zinc-carbon cell will become useless after a few years. The electrolyte can slowly react with other chemicals inside a cell.
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□
57.
A lead-acid accumulator has unlimited lifespan. A lead-acid accumulator can be discharged and recharged indefinitely. □
58.
The fuel cells are environmentally friendly. In fuel cells, hydrogen and oxygen are used as the fuel and the oxidant respectively. □
59.
The fuels used in fuel cells must be hydrogen. The fuel cells have a wide range of applications, including power sources for remote locations and portable electronic devices. □
60.
In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, hydrogen is fed into the cathode compartment and oxygen is fed into the anode compartment. Fuel cells do not emit any greenhouse gases like CO
2
. □
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Chemistry: Chapter 33 Electrolysis Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 31 Electrolysis 1.
Which of the following statements about electrolysis are INCORRECT? (1) An alternating current (a.c.) power source could be used for electrolysis. (2) It refers to the decomposition of compounds by chemical energy. (3) Redox reactions take place in an electrolytic cell spontaneously. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
2.
Electrolysis means decomposition by A. heat. B. light. C. electricity. D. electrons. □
3.
Which of the following statements about electrolysis is INCORRECT? A. It is a redox reaction. B. It is a chemical reaction forced to take place. C. It occurs when electricity is passed through an electrolyte. D. It is a physical change. □
4.
Which of the following are essential elements for constructing a basic set-up for electrolysis? (1) Direct current power supply of suitable voltage (2) An electrolyte in molten or aqueous states (3) Electrodes A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
5.
Which of the following statements concerning an electrolytic cell and a chemical cell are correct? (1) The reactions involved in both cells are redox reactions. (2) Reduction occurs at the cathodes of both cells.
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(3) Both cells generate electricity by chemical changes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
Which of the following substances CANNOT be decomposed by electricity? (1) Molten aluminium (2) Solid lead(II) bromide (3) Solid sodium chloride A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide is correct? A. Bromide ions lose electrons at the anode to form bromine molecules. B. Lead(II) ions gain electrons at the anode to form lead metal. C. Bromide ions undergo oxidation at the cathode to form bromine molecules. D. Lead(II) ions undergo reduction at the anode to form lead metal. □
8.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using graphite electrodes is correct? Product at the anode Product at the cathode A. Oxygen gas Hydrogen gas B. Hydrogen gas Oxygen gas C. Lead Bromine gas D. Bromine gas Lead □
9.
The following set-up shows an electrolysis using inert electrodes. lead lead(II) bromide
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In the apparatus, the bulb glows when (1) lead is in molten state and lead(II) bromide is in solid state. (2) lead is in solid state and lead(II) bromide is in molten state. (3) both lead and lead(II) bromide are in molten states. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
10.
The diagram below shows the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid with a few drops of litmus solution added, using graphite electrodes. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolytic cell are correct? (1) The gas collected at electrode Y
can relight the glowing splint. (2) The colour of solution around electrode X
becomes red. (3) The volume of gas collected at electrode X
is less than that at electrode Y
. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
graphite electrode Y dilute sulphuric acid with litmus solution graphite electrode
X
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11.
The following diagram shows the electrolysis of dilute sodium chloride solution using a Hofmann voltameter. What are gases X
and Y
collected in the apparatus? Gas X
Gas Y
A. Oxygen Hydrogen B. Hydrogen Chlorine C. Hydrogen Oxygen D. Chlorine Hydrogen □
12.
The electrolysis of dilute nitric acid is carried out by using inert electrodes. What is the expected volume ratio of hydrogen and oxygen collected over the electrodes after electrolysis? A. H
2
: O
2
= 1 : 1 B. H
2
: O
2
= 1 : 2 C. H
2
: O
2
= 2 : 1 D. H
2
: O
2
= 4 : 1 □
13.
Which of the following methods could produce hydrogen gas? (1) Electrolysis of dilute sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes. (2) Adding magnesium to dilute hydrochloric acid. (3) Electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide using graphite electrodes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only dilute sodium chloride solution gas Y
gas X
platinum foil platinum foil
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D. (1), (2) and (3) □
14.
Which of the following electrolysis could produce hydrogen gas at cathode? (1) Electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes. (2) Electrolysis of dilute sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes. (3) Electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution using a mercury cathode and a graphite anode. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
15.
In which of the following processes will the electrolyte become alkaline? A. Electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using graphite electrodes B. Electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes C. Electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using graphite electrodes D. Electrolysis of dilute silver nitrate solution using graphite electrodes □
16.
Consider the following electrolytic cell. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolytic cell are correct? (1) Chlorine gas and hydrogen gas can be collected at electrodes X
and Y
respectively. (2) The actual volume of chlorine gas collected is less than the actual volume of hydrogen gas collected. (3) The solution gradually becomes alkaline. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only graphite electrode Y
concentrated sodium chloride solution graphite electrode X
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C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
The following set-up shows the electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution with a mercury cathode. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolysis are correct? (1) Chlorine gas is the main product at the anode. (2) Sodium amalgam is formed at the cathode. (3) The sodium chloride solution is diluted after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
18.
Which of the following are the advantages of using graphite electrodes in the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution? (1) Graphite is chemically inert. (2) Copper could be coated on the cathode. (3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
plastic-covered wire graphite water bare platinum wire mercury concentrated sodium chloride solution
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19.
Consider the following electrolytic cell. Which of the following combinations can produce oxygen gas and hydrogen gas at electrodes M
and
N
during electrolysis respectively? Electrode M
Electrode N
Solution X
A. Platinum Platinum Dilute sulphuric acid B. Copper Copper Dilute copper(II) sulphate solution C. Graphite Graphite Concentrated sodium chloride solution D. Graphite Graphite Sugar solution □
20.
Which of the following combinations concerning the above electrolytic cell is correct? Product formed at electrode X
Product formed at electrode Y
A. Oxygen Potassium B. Bromine Potassium C. Bromine Hydrogen D. Oxygen Hydrogen □
electrode M
electrode N
solution X
graphite electrode Y
concentrated potassium bromide solution graphite electrode X
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21.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using graphite electrodes is correct? Product formed at the anode Product formed at the cathode Concentration of Cu
2+
(aq) ions in the solution A. Colourless gas Colourless gas Decreases B. Colourless gas Reddish brown solid Decreases C. Colourless gas Reddish brown solid Increases D. Reddish brown solid Colourless gas Decreases □
22.
Consider the following experiment. Which of the following observations is/are correct? (1) The colour of the copper(II) sulphate solution remains unchanged. (2) At the cathode, copper electrode dissolves. (3) Colourless bubbles evolve around the anode. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
23.
Which of the following materials is/are usually used as inert electrode(s) in electrolysis? (1) Copper (2) Platinum (3) Graphite A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
copper electrode
copper(II) sulphate solution copper electrode
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24.
The following diagram shows the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using copper electrodes. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolysis are correct? (1) The copper anode dissolves to form Cu
2+
(aq) ions. (2) Copper deposits at the copper cathode. (3) The blue colour of copper(II) sulphate solution becomes paler after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
25.
The electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution was carried out using copper electrodes. Which of the following graphs represents the mass of the copper cathode against time if a constant current was used? A. B. copper anode copper cathode copper(II) sulphate solution Mass of copper cathode Time Time Mass of copper cathode
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C. D. □
26.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of dilute magnesium chloride solution using graphite electrodes is correct? Ions oxidized at anode Ions reduced at cathode A. OH
(aq) H
+
(aq) B. H
+
(aq) OH
(aq) C. Cl
(aq) Mg
2+
(aq) D. Cl
(aq) H
+
(aq) □
27.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of concentrated potassium bromide solution using graphite electrodes is correct? Product formed at cathode Product formed at anode Resultant solution A. H
2
(g) O
2
(g) KBr(aq) B. H
2
(g) Br
2
(l) KOH(aq) C. K(s) O
2
(g) KBr(aq) D. K(s) Br
2
(l) H
2
O(l) □
28.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of sodium nitrate solution using graphite electrodes are INCORRECT? (1) Na
+
(aq) ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode to form Na(s). (2) OH
(aq) ions are preferentially discharged at the anode to form O
2
(g). (3) The concentration of the sodium nitrate solution remains unchanged after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
Mass of copper cathode Time Mass of copper cathode Time
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29.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of dilute copper(II) chloride solution using graphite electrodes are correct? (1) The main product at the cathode is Cu(s). (2) OH
(aq) ions are preferentially discharged at the anode to form O
2
(g). (3) The copper(II) chloride solution becomes hydrochloric acid after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
30.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of concentrated sodium bromide solution using graphite electrodes are correct? (1) The main product at the anode is O
2
(g). (2) H
+
(aq) ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode to form H
2
(g). (3) The solution becomes sodium hydroxide solution after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
31.
Dilute nitric acid is electrolysed using graphite electrodes. Which of the following equations correctly represents the reaction taking place at the cathode? A. 4H
+
(aq) + NO
3
(aq) + 3e
NO(g) + 2H
2
O(l) B. 4OH
(aq)
O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) + 4e
C. 2H
+
(aq) + 2e
H
2
(g) D. 2H
2
O(l)
2H
2
(g) + O
2
(g) □
32.
Which of the following processes will give hydrogen and oxygen as the main products? (1) Electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using graphite electrodes (2) Electrolysis of dilute sodium hydroxide solution using graphite electrodes (3) Electrolysis of dilute sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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33.
The following set-up shows the electrolysis of concentrated zinc chloride solution using graphite electrodes X
and Y
. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolysis are correct? (1) Chlorine gas is the main product at electrode X.
(2) Hydrogen gas is formed at electrode Y
. (3) The platinum electrodes can be used instead of the graphite electrodes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
34.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of concentrated sodium bromide solution using graphite electrodes is correct? Product at the anode Product at the cathode A. Bromine gas Sodium B. Oxygen gas Sodium C. Bromine gas Hydrogen gas D. Oxygen gas Hydrogen gas □
35.
In an experiment of electrolysis, 24.0 g of copper and 13.0 g of chromium deposit respectively after passing through the same amount of electricity. What is the charge of the chromium ion? (Given that the relative atomic mass of Cu and Cr are 64.0 and 52.0 respectively.) A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4 □
graphite electrode X
graphite electrode Y
concentrated zinc chloride solution
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36.
What are the products of the electrolysis of dilute potassium chloride solution using inert electrodes? Anode Cathode A. Chlorine gas Hydrogen gas B. Chlorine gas Oxygen gas C. Oxygen gas Chlorine gas D. Oxygen gas Hydrogen gas □
37.
Which of the following elements requires the largest number of electrons for one mole of atoms to be liberated during electrolysis? A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Aluminium D. Lead □
38.
The diagram below shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid using inert electrodes. What would be the product if gas A
was allowed to react with gas B
? A. Carbon dioxide B. Steam C. Hydrogen chloride gas D. Water □
39.
Which of the following observations concerning electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using graphite electrodes are correct? (1) The anode dissolves. (2) Reddish brown solid is deposited at the cathode. (3) Colourless bubbles appear at the anode. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only inert electrode inert electrode gas A
gas B
concentrated hydrochloric acid
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C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
40.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using graphite electrodes are correct? (1) The pH value of the solution gradually decreases. (2) Copper is deposited at the cathode. (3) Hydrogen gas is given off at the anode. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
41.
Which of the following processes will produce oxygen gas at the anode? (1) Electrolysis of dilute nitric acid using graphite electrodes (2) Electrolysis of dilute sodium hydroxide solution using graphite electrodes (3) Electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
42.
The diagram below shows the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using graphite electrodes
X
and Y
. What happens at electrode X
? A. Hydroxide ions are oxidized. B. Hydroxide ions are reduced. C. Copper(II) ions are oxidized. D. Copper(II) ions are reduced. □
graphite electrode X
graphite electrode Y
copper(II) sulphate solution
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43.
Which of the following processes will produce hydrogen at the cathode? (1) Electrolysis of dilute sodium chloride solution using graphite electrodes (2) Electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid using graphite electrodes (3) Electrolysis of concentrated sodium chloride solution using mercury cathode and graphite anode A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
44.
The following diagram shows the electrolysis of silver nitrate solution. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolysis are correct? (1) The reaction at the anode is Ag(s)
Ag
+
(aq) + e
. (2) Silvery solid can be observed around the graphite electrode. (3) The pH value of the solution decreases after electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
45.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid using graphite electrodes is correct? Product at the anode Product at the cathode Conc. of hydrochloric acid A. Chlorine gas Hydrogen gas Decrease B. Chlorine gas Hydrogen gas Increase C. Hydrogen gas Oxygen gas Decrease D. Hydrogen gas Oxygen gas Increase □
silver electrode silver nitrate solution graphite electrode
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46.
The diagram below shows the electrolysis of a solution. Which of the following substances would be the solution? A. Sugar solution B. Concentrated silver nitrate solution C. Concentrated sodium chloride solution D. Dilute hydrochloric acid □
47.
Which of the following substances requires the largest number of electrons for complete discharge during electrolysis? A. 4 moles of Cr
3+
(aq) ions B. 5 moles of Pb
2+
(aq) ions C. 6 moles of OH
(aq) ions D. 7 moles of O
2
(aq) ions □
48.
The diagram below shows the electrolysis of dilute nitric acid. What is gas Y
? A. Nitrogen dioxide B. Oxygen C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen □
gas Y
dilute nitric acid graphite electrode graphite electrode
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49.
The following diagrams show the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using different electrodes. A. B. C. D. In which experiment did the electrode(s) dissolve? □
50.
Caesium, Cs, is in the same group of the Periodic Table as sodium. Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of concentrated caesium chloride solution using graphite electrodes is correct? Product at the cathode Solution becomes A. Hydrogen gas Acidic B. Oxygen gas Acidic C. Hydrogen gas Alkaline D. Caesium Alkaline □
51.
Element X
is extracted by the electrolysis of a molten compound of elements X
and Y
. The reactions at the electrodes are shown below: At the cathode: X
2+
(aq) + 2e
X
(s) At the anode: 2
Y
(aq)
Y
2
(g) + 2e
Which of the following substances would be the compound? A. Iron(III) oxide B. Magnesium chloride C. Calcium oxide D. Sodium chloride □
graphite electrode platinum electrode CuSO
4
(aq) CuSO
4
(aq) copper electrode copper electrode CuSO
4
(aq) graphite electrode copper electrode platinum electrode CuSO
4
(aq) copper electrode
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52.
The following diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated sodium sulphate solution using graphite electrodes. Which of the following combinations concerning the above electrolysis is correct? Reaction at the cathode Reaction at the anode A. Na
+
(aq) + e
Na(s) SO
4
2
(aq) + 4H
+
(aq) + 2e
SO
2
+ 2H
2
O(l) B. 2H
+
(aq) + 2e
H
2
(g) SO
4
2
(aq) + 4H
+
(aq) + 2e
SO
2
+ 2H
2
O(l) C. Na
+
(aq) + e
Na(s) 4OH
(aq)
O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) + 4e
D. 2H
+
(aq) + 2e
H
2
(g) 4OH
(aq)
O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) + 4e
□
53.
The following diagram shows the electrolysis of X
with the bulb lit. However, there is no decomposition taking place at the inert electrodes. What is X
? A. Sodium hydroxide solution B. Ethanoic acid C. Molten sodium chloride D. Solid lead(II) bromide □
graphite electrode graphite electrode concentrated sodium sulphate solution inert electrode inert electrode X
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54.
A piece of litmus paper was soaked with concentrated potassium chloride solution and was supported by a glass slide. The paper was connected to a d.c. supply as shown in the diagram below. Which of the following concerning the colour changes near the positive and negative electrodes during electrolysis is correct? Positive electrode Negative electrode A. No colour change No colour change B. Turns colourless Turns red C. Turns blue Turns red D. Turns colourless Turns blue □
55.
When an aqueous solution is electrolysed, there is always A. a gas produced at one of the electrodes. B. oxygen or hydrogen formed. C. a chemical change. D. a metal deposited at the cathode. □
56.
When sodium hydroxide solution is electrolysed with graphite electrodes, hydrogen is liberated at the cathode, but not sodium. Which of the following statements correctly explains the observation? A. The concentration of H
+
(aq) ions is greater that of Na
+
(aq) ions. B. H
+
(aq) ions move faster than Na
+
(aq) ions. C. Sodium which is liberated reacts with water to give off hydrogen. D. H
+
(aq) ion accepts electron more readily than Na
+
(aq) ion. □
glass slide litmus paper soaked in concentrated potassium chloride solution positive electrode negative electrode
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57.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using copper electrodes is correct? Concentration of Cu
2+
(aq) ions after electrolysis Concentration of SO
4
2
(aq) ions after electrolysis A. Decreased Decreased B. Increased Decreased C. Decreased Unchanged D. Unchanged Unchanged □
58.
When a solution containing sodium nitrate and copper(II) sulphate is electrolysed with graphite electrodes, which element is formed at the anode? A. Copper B. Nitrogen C. Sulphur D. Oxygen □
59.
Which of the following processes will give hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode? (1) Electrolysis of dilute copper(II) chloride solution using graphite electrodes (2) Electrolysis of nitric acid using graphite electrodes (3) Electrolysis of potassium hydroxide solution using graphite electrodes A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
60.
Which of the following statements concerning the electrolysis of silver nitrate solution using a platinum anode and a silver cathode is correct? A. Oxidation occurs around the silver cathode. B. The mass of the silver cathode increases. C. H
+
(aq) ions are preferentially discharged at the silver cathode. D. OH
(aq) ions are reduced at the platinum anode to give oxygen. □
61.
A metal (m.p. 327.0
C, b.p. 1600
C, density 11.3 g cm
3
) was obtained by electrolysis of its molten chloride (m.p. 501.0
C, density 5.84 g cm
3
). During the electrolysis, how would the metal occur? A. As a solid on the surface of the electrolyte B. As a solid at the bottom of the electrolyte
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C. As a liquid on the surface of the electrolyte D. As a liquid at the bottom of the electrolyte □
62.
In a plating bath, silver is electroplated on a iron metal cup. Which of the following half equations correctly represents the reaction at the cathode? A. Ag(s)
Ag
+
(aq) + e
B. Ag
+
(aq) + e
Ag(s) C. Fe(s)
Fe
2+
(aq) + 2e
D. Fe
2+
(aq) + 2e
Fe(s) □
63.
In which of the following process(es) will the concentration of electrolyte remain unchanged? (1) Electrolysis of potassium nitrate solution using platinum electrodes (2) Electrolysis of copper(II) sulphate solution using copper electrodes (3) Electrolysis of concentrated copper(II) chloride solution using graphite electrodes A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
64.
Which of the following changes can increase the rate of electrolysis? (1) Increase the resistance of the circuit. (2) Use electrodes of larger surface area. (3) Move the electrodes closer together. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
65.
Which of the following statements concerning the extraction of metals by electrolysis are correct? (1) Potassium, sodium and calcium are extracted from their ores by the electrolysis of their molten chlorides. (2) Aluminium is extracted from its ore by the electrolysis of molten aluminium oxide. (3) The graphite electrodes are commonly used in the electrolysis. A. (1) and (2) only
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B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
66.
Consider the following electrolytic cell. Which of the following statements concerning the above electrolytic cell is INCORRECT? A. The mass of impure copper electrode decreases. B. The intensity of blue colour of the copper(II) sulphate solution remains unchanged. C. Reduction takes place at the pure copper electrode. D. After the electrolytic process, the corrosion resistance of copper can be enhanced. □
67.
The following diagram shows the purification of impure sample of silver by electrolysis. The loss in mass of the anode was 60.0 g and the gain in mass of the cathode was 45.0 g. What was the percentage of purity of this sample of silver? A. 65.0% B. 70.0% C. 75.0% D. 80.0% pure copper electrode copper(II) sulphate solution impure copper electrode impure silver anode pure silver cathode silver nitrate solution
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68.
Which of the following combinations concerning the electroplating of silver on an iron metal cup is correct? Anode Cathode Electrolyte A. Silver Iron metal cup Silver nitrate solution B. Silver Iron metal cup Silver nitrate solution C. Iron metal cup Silver Dilute nitric acid D. Iron metal cup Silver Dilute nitric acid □
69.
The electroplating of copper on a metal fork is carried out by using copper(II) sulphate solution. Which of the following substances should be used as the negative electrode? A. Graphite B. Platinum C. Copper D. The metal fork □
70.
A metal can be obtained by the electrolysis of its molten chloride. The table shows some properties of the metal and its chloride. Substance Melting point Boiling point Density Metal 400
C 1700
C 5.3 g cm
3
Metal chloride 620
C 1200
C 6.2 g cm
3
What state does the metal exist when it is freshly formed in the electrolysis? A. As a solid below the molten chloride B. As a solid on the surface of the molten chloride C. As a liquid below the molten chloride D. As a liquid on the surface of the molten chloride □
71.
Magnesium can be obtained from its ores by electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride. What are the electrodes made of? A. Copper B. Platinum C. Magnesium D. Graphite □
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72.
Which of the following are applications of electrolysis? (1) Electroplating silver metal on a plastic spoon (2) Purifying lead by electrolysis (3) Anodizing aluminium A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
73.
Which of the following metals is usually NOT extracted by electrolysis? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Aluminium D. Iron □
74.
Heavy metal ions are common pollutants produced by electroplating factories. Which of the following actions is NOT a proper way to remove these heavy metal ions? A. Precipitating the metal ions as hydroxides by adding sodium hydroxide solution. B. Electrolysing very dilute solutions and change metal ions to metal. C. Precipitating the metal ions as carbonates by adding sodium carbonate solution. D. Displacing metal ions by adding a more reactive metal to the solution. □
75.
The cathode acts as the positive electrode in an electrolytic cell. Reduction takes place at the cathode. □
76.
Electrolysis reactions are redox reaction. There is a transfer of electrons in electrolysis. □
77.
Electrolysis occurs when a copper wire is conducting electricity. Heat is produced when a copper wire is conducting electricity. □
78.
In a chemical cell, reduction occurs at the negative electrode. In a chemical cell, the anode is the negative electrode. □
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79.
During electrolysis, positive ions are attracted to the anode. In an electrolytic cell, the anode is the negative pole. □
80.
Copper anode dissolves when copper(II) sulphate solution is electrolysed using copper electrodes. Copper is a stronger reducing agent than hydroxide ion and sulphate ion. □
81.
When dilute sodium sulphate solution is electrolysed using graphite electrodes, sodium metal is formed. Sodium ion is a stronger oxidizing agent than hydrogen ion. □
82.
During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using graphite electrodes, the concentration of sulphuric acid gradually decreases. Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode during the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid. □
83.
Using electrodes of larger surface area can increase the rate of electrolysis. Electrodes with larger surface area decrease the total resistance of the circuit. □
84.
In electroplating silver on an iron spoon, the iron spoon is made the cathode. Silver ions are discharged at the cathode during electroplating. □
85.
Anodizing aluminium is an electrolysis reaction. Anodizing aluminium can increase the corrosion resistance of aluminium. □
86.
Anodizing aluminium can increase the corrosion resistance of aluminium. Aluminium oxide layer on the metal surface is thickened by anodization. □
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Chemistry: Chapter 34 Importance of redox reactions in modern ways of living Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 32 Importance of redox reactions in modern ways of living 1.
Which of the following statements about chlorine bleach is INCORRECT? A. It oxidizes the dye to colourless compound. B. Its bleaching action on the dye is temporary. C. It contains sodium hypochlorite as the active ingredient. D. It generates chloride ions after bleaching. □
2.
Which of the following are applications of redox reactions? (1) Fermentation of glucose (2) Bleaching using sodium sulphite (3) Using powdered limestone to reduce acidity of soil A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
3.
Which of the following concerning the conventional breathalyzers are correct? (1) They are used to indicate the blood alcohol content of drivers. (2) They make use of the redox reactions between ethanol and acidified potassium dichromate solution. (3) The content in the breathalyzers change from orange to green if ethanol is present in a driver
’
s breath. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
4.
Which of the following statements concerning redox reactions are correct? (1) Redox reactions sometimes cause problems in daily life. (2) A redox reaction involves changes in oxidation number. (3) A redox reaction must involve both oxidation and reduction processes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3)
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5.
Which of the following processes involve redox reactions? (1) Photosynthesis (2) Respiration (3) Rusting A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
Which of the following statements concerning antioxidants are correct? (1) Antioxidants are toxic and should not be eaten along with the food. (2) Some antioxidants can be found naturally in the environment. (3) Antioxidants prevent the spoiling of food by competing for the oxygen present for oxidation. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following statements concerning bleach are INCORRECT? (1) All bleaches are oxidizing agents. (2) The active ingredient of household bleach is sodium hypochlorite. (3) Bleach neutralizes the acidic stains. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
8.
Which of the following is NOT a redox reaction? (1) C
6
H
12
O
6
2C
2
H
5
OH + 2CO
2
(2) HCl + NaOH
NaCl + H
2
O (3) 2K
2
Cr
2
O
7
+ 3CH
3
CH
2
OH + 8H
2
SO
4
2Cr
2
(SO
4
)
3
+ 3CH
3
COOH + 2K
2
SO
4
+ 11H
2
O A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (1) and (3) only □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
322
9.
Which of the following statements concerning food additives is correct? A. Ascorbic acid is used to prevent rancidity of oil in potato chips. B. Red wine contains carbon dioxide to prevent it from turning sour. C. BHA is added to make cooking oil yellow in colour. D. Oxygen absorber is used to extend the shelf life of packaged cakes. □
10.
To package prawn crackers, we cannot use vacuum packing. We have to use filled-air packing. Which of the following gases should NOT be filled? A. Nitrogen B. Carbon dioxide C. Air D. Oxygen □
11.
Which of the following combinations about antioxidants is INCORRECT? Antioxidant Apply in A. BHA Potato chips B. Sulphur dioxdie Red wines C. BHT Chewing gum D. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) Cooking oil □
12.
Which of the following statements concerning sulphur dioxide, a bleaching agent, are correct? (1) Its bleaching effect is not permanent. (2) It bleaches by oxidizing the dye. (3) It can be applied in bleaching the silk. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
13.
Which of the following concerning antioxidants is correct? A. They are edible. B. They prolong the storage period of foodstuff by trapping oxygen in it. C. They are stronger reducing agents than the foodstuff. D. All antioxidants are man-made. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
323
14.
Which of the following are the applications of redox reactions in our daily life? (1) Fermentation of alcohol (2) Hand-warmers (3) Fuel cell technology A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
15.
Which of the following concerning fuel cells is INCORRECT? A. They are rechargeable. B. Their waste product is water only. C. They are applied in space projects. D. They contain strong alkali as the electrolyte. □
16.
Fuel cells are used in space shuttle to provide electricity for routine operation. Which of the following fuel cells is suitable for the application? A. Alkaline fuel cells B. Molten carbonate fuel cells C. Phosphoric acid fuel cells D. Solid oxide fuel cells □
17.
Which of the following statements concerning hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell are correct? (1) It is a primary cell. (2) The electrodes of the cell act as electrical conductors only. (3) It is a source of green energy. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
18.
Which of the following fuel cells can be operated at the temperature range between 50
C and 100
C? A. Proton exchange membrane fuel cell B. Phosphoric acid fuel cell C. Molten carbonate fuel cell D. Solid oxide fuel cell
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
324
19.
Which of the following statements concerning lithium-ion rechargeable battery are correct? (1) The positive electrode of the battery contains lithium compounds. (2) When the cell is discharging, the lithium ions move from the negative electrode to the positive electrode. (3) Lithium ions are reduced during the charging process. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
Which of the following statements about lithium-ion rechargeable batteries are correct? (1) The self-discharge rate of the batteries is low. (2) They have a wide range of operating temperature. (3) They are environmentally preferred. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
21.
Which of the following about lithium-ion rechargeable batteries is correct?
A. During charging, the overall reaction is CoO
2
+ Li
x
C
6
Li
x
CoO
2
+ 6C. B. During discharging, the lithium ions move to the negative electrode. C. During charging, the reaction at negative electrode is 6C + x
Li
+
+ x
e
Li
x
C
6
. D. During charging, Co in Li
x
CoO
2
is reduced from Co(IV) to Co(III). □
22.
Which of the following are the applications of redox reactions? (1) Applying BHA/BHT in cooking oil (2) Hand-warmers with iron powder inside (3) Lithium-ion polymer rechargeable batteries A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
325
23.
Which of the following statements concerning a lithium-ion rechargeable battery are correct? (1) During discharge, the lithium ions move from the positive electrode to the negative electrode. (2) The electrolyte is a lithium salt in an organic solvent. (3) Cobalt dioxide is applied in the battery. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
24.
Which of the following are the advantages of lithium-ion cells over nickel-cadmium cells? (1) Lithium-ion cells are rechargeable but nickel-cadmium cells are not. (2) Lithium-ion cells have higher charge density than nickel-cadmium cells. (3) Lithium-ion cells are more environmentally friendly than nickel-cadmium cells. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
25.
Which of the following are NOT rechargeable cells? A. Nickel-metal hydride cells B. Lithium-ion cells C. Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells D. Lead-acid accumulators □
26.
Which of the following statements concerning lithium-ion polymer rechargeable batteries are correct? (1) They can be made into any shape. (2) They are commonly used in mobile phones. (3) The rate of self-discharge of lithium-ion polymer rechargeable batteries is relatively lower than that of nickel-cadmium rechargeable cells. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VII Redox Reactions, Chemical Cells and Electrolysis © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
326
27.
Which of the following metal oxides is NOT used as the positive electrode of a lithium-ion rechargeable battery? A. Cobalt dioxide B. Manganese dioxide C. Titanium dioxide D. Nickel dioxide □
28.
Which of the following is NOT the advantage of lithium-ion rechargeable batteries over nickel-cadmium cells? A. Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries have higher self-discharge rate than nickel-cadmium cells. B. Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries can discharge at much larger currents than nickel-cadmium cells continuously for a longer period of time. C. Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries have longer cycle life than nickel-cadmium cells. D. Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries will not cause serious environmental pollution problems after disposal. □
29.
Vitamin C can be used to prevent rancidity of oil. Vitamin C is a natural antioxidant. □
30.
Old newspaper often turns yellow. The dye undergoes oxidation in air. □
31.
All bleaches work by oxidizing the dyes to colourless compounds. Sodium hypochlorite bleach works by oxidizing the dyes to colourless compounds. □
32.
Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries are much more environmentally friendly than nickel-cadmium cells. Lithium-ion rechargeable batteries do not contain heavy metal such as cadmium while nickel-cadmium cells do. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
466
Multiple Choice Questions Chemistry: Chapter 35 Energy changes in chemical reactions Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 33 Energy changes in chemical reactions 1.
Which of the following statements concerning energy is correct? A. According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy can either be created or destroyed. B. The enthalpy of a substance can be measured directly using appropriate apparatus. C. If a chemical reaction is carried out at constant pressure, the heat change measured is called the change in internal energy of the reaction. D. The total amount of energy remains constant. □
2.
A reaction between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid is carried out in a stoppered flask. The heat change is found to be 433.8 kJ. If the same reaction is carried out again without the stopper, what would be the enthalpy change? A. Below 433.8 kJ, as there is energy lost to the surroundings. B. Same as 433.8 kJ, as the difference in work done between two cases is negligible. C. Above 433.8 kJ, as the latter case does not have work done against the wall of flask. D. Same as 433.8 kJ, as the enthalpy change is independent of volume or pressure of flask. □
3.
The change in internal energy and enthalpy change of a reaction involving gases in an open system are 156.0 kJ and 130.0 kJ respectively. Why is there a difference between the two values? A. The products of the reaction absorb energy to form the bonds. B. The reactants of the reaction absorb energy to break the bonds. C. There is work done on the surroundings by the reaction. D. The calculation must be wrong as the total energy should remain the same before and after the reaction, as stated by the Law of Conservation of Energy. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
467
4.
The reaction between zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid is carried out in two different conditions respectively. One reaction is carried out in a stoppered flask, which is regarded as a closed system. The other is carried out in a flask without a stopper, which is regarded as an open system. Which of the following statements concerning the two reactions are correct? (1) The pressure increases in the closed system. (2) The change in internal energy of the reaction in the open system is smaller than that in the closed system. (3) The heat change of the reaction in the open system is smaller than that in the closed system. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
5.
All chemical reactions involve A. catalysts. B. changes of physical state. C. energy changes. D. formation of radioactive substances. □
6.
Which of the following statements about the Law of Conservation of Energy are correct? (1) The total amount of energy of the system and its surroundings remains constant. (2) Energy can be changed from one form to another, e.g. chemical energy is converted to heat energy. (3) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
Which of the following is the most common form of energy transfer during a chemical reaction? A. Heat B. Light C. Electrical D. Mechanical
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
468
8.
Which of the following concerning enthalpy are correct? (1) It refers to the heat content of a substance. (2) It cannot be measured directly. (3) It is denoted by the symbol H
. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
Which of the following concerning enthalpy change of a reaction are correct? (1) It is the heat change of a reaction measured under constant volume. (2) It is equal to enthalpy of products minus enthalpy of reactants. (3) It is denoted by the symbol of Δ
H
. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
10.
Which of the following is the correct unit for enthalpy and enthalpy change? A.
C B. dm
3
C. kJ D. No unit □
11.
Which of the following correctly represents the enthalpy change of a chemical reaction? A. Total enthalpy of reactants
Total enthalpy of products B. Total enthalpy of products
Total enthalpy of reactants C. Total enthalpy of reactants + Total enthalpy of products D. Total enthalpy of products □
12.
Which of the following statements concerning enthalpy change is correct? A. Enthalpy change is equal to change in internal energy of the system at constant pressure. B. Enthalpy change indicates the reaction is heat releasing. C. Enthalpy change is an absolute value. D. Enthalpy change is equal to the sum of change in internal energy of the system and the work done on the surroundings at constant pressure.
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
469
13.
The change in internal energy and enthalpy change of a reaction are 367.0 kJ and 291.0 kJ respectively. What is the total amount of energy change of the system and its surroundings? A. 291.0 kJ B. 0 kJ C. 367.0 kJ D. 76.0 kJ □
14.
The enthalpy change and the work done on the surroundings of a reaction are 65.0 J and 38.0 J respectively. What is the change in internal energy of the reaction? A. 103.0 J B. 65.0 J C. 38.0 J D. 27.0 J □
15.
Which of the following is an endothermic reaction? A. Cracking B. Neutralization C. Combustion D. Precipitation □
16.
Which of the following reaction(s) is/are exothermic? (1) 2NaOH(aq) + H
2
SO
4
(aq)
Na
2
SO
4
(aq) + 2H
2
O(l) (2) CaCO
3
(s)
CaO(s) + CO
2
(g)
(3) ZnSO
4
(aq) + 2NaOH(aq)
Zn(OH)
2
(s) + Na
2
SO
4
(aq) A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
17.
Which of the following statement(s) about dissolving NH
4
NO
3
in water is/are correct? (1) The process involves heat release. (2) The temperature of water decreases. (3) The process involves a positive enthalpy change.
A. (1) only B. (2) only
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
470
C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
18.
For the following reaction: C
10
H
22
(l)
C
4
H
8
(g) + C
6
H
14
(l) Which of the following statements are correct? (1) C
C bond is broken during the reaction. (2) C
C bond is formed during the reaction. (3) The reaction is exothermic. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
19.
Which of the following descriptions about mixing hydrated barium hydroxide with ammonium chloride are correct? (1) Water drops under the beaker containing the reaction mixture are frozen. (2) The enthalpy change of the reaction is positive. (3) A fume is released from the reaction mixture. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
Which of the following processes are endothermic? (1) Condensation of steam (2) Melting of ice (3) Evaporation of water A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
21.
Which of the following reactions involve absorption of energy? (1) Breaking a covalent bond in a chlorine molecule. (2) Adding zinc granule to dilute hydrochloric acid. (3) Heating limestone strongly at about 900
C. A. (1) and (2) only
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
471
B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
22.
Which of the following statements concerning exothermic reaction are correct? (1) In an exothermic reaction, the enthalpies of products are relatively lower than that of reactants. (2) It involves releasing energy to the surroundings. (3) It involves negative enthalpy change. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
23.
Which of the following showing the form of energy change when burning wood is correct? A. Potential energy changes to kinetic energy B. Chemical energy changes to light and heat energy C. Internal energy changes to potential energy D. Light energy changes to heat energy □
24.
Coal can be used as an energy source because (1) it is non-renewable. (2) burning of coal is an exothermic reaction. (3) it is readily available. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
25.
Which of the following processes are exothermic? (1) Burning a candle (2) Melting an ice-cream (3) Forming snowflakes A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3)
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
472
26.
Which of the following is NOT an endothermic process? A. CH
4
(g) + 2O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) B. C
3
H
8
(g)
C
2
H
4
(g) + CH
4
(g) C. NH
4
NO
3
(s) + aq
NH
4
NO
3
(aq) D. CaCO
3
(s)
CaO(s) + CO
2
(g) □
27.
Which of the following combinations is correct? Bond-breaking processes Bond-forming processes A. require energy release energy B. release energy require energy C. use and release energy do not involve any energy intake or release D. do not involve any energy intake or release use and release energy □
28.
For an exothermic reaction, the enthalpies of products are A. always higher than that of reactants. B. always the same as that of reactants. C. always lower than that of reactants. D. independent of enthalpies of reactants. □
29.
Which of the following definitions about an endothermic reaction is correct? A. A reaction in which heat energy is converted into electrical energy. B. A reaction in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy. C. A reaction in which chemical energy is converted into heat energy. D. A reaction in which heat energy is converted into chemical energy. □
30.
Which of the following statements concerning the reaction: CH
3
CH
2
OH(l) + 3O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l) is/are correct? (1) Two C=O bonds are broken during the reaction. (2) One C
C bond is broken during the reaction. (3) Two O
H bonds are broken during the reaction. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
473
31.
For the following reactions: Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The energy stored in butane is less than that in 2-methylpropane. (2) Both reactions involve breaking of C
H bonds. (3) Converting 2-methylpropane to butane is an endothermic reaction. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
32.
Which of the following statement(s) concerning an exothermic reaction is/are INCORRECT? (1) It involves a negative enthalpy change. (2) The total enthalpy of the products is greater than that of the reactants. (3) The reaction system is hotter than the surroundings. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
33.
Which of the following statement(s) concerning an endothermic reaction is/are INCORRECT? (1) It involves a positive enthalpy change. (2) The total enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants. (3) The reaction system is colder than the surroundings. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
Δ
H
1
=
2878 kJ mol
1
CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(g) + 2
13
O
2
(g)
4CO
2
(g) + 5H
2
O(l) Δ
H 2
=
2869 kJ mol
1
(CH
3
)
2
CHCH
3
(g) + 2
13
O
2
(g)
4CO
2
(g) + 5H
2
O(l)
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
474
34.
Which of the following are the daily applications of exothermic reactions? (1) Burning hydrogen in a gas burner. (2) The heat pad in hand-warmer. (3) Breaking down larger alkenes into smaller alkanes and alkenes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
35.
Which of the following statements concerning bond-breaking and bond-forming processes are correct? (1) Both processes involve enthalpy change. (2) The energy difference between these two processes is the enthalpy change of a chemical reaction. (3) Both processes involve temperature change. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
36.
Which of the following statements concerning an endothermic reaction are correct? (1) Heat is given out to the surroundings. (2) It involves a positive enthalpy change. (3) The bond-forming processes give out less energy than that is required in the bond-breaking processes. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
Which of the following reactions gives the products with relatively higher enthalpies than the reactants? A. Burning methane in excess air B. Adding zinc sulphate solution into sodium hydroxide solution C. Mixing hydrated barium hydroxide and ammonium chloride D. Mixing sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
475
38.
Which of the following statements concerning both exothermic and endothermic reactions is/are correct? (1) Both reactions have energy transfer in the system. (2) Both reactions give products with relatively lower heat content than the reactants. (3) Both reactions are spontaneous. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
39.
Which of the following statements concerning an endothermic reaction are correct? (1) The reaction involves absorption of heat energy. (2) The enthalpy change of the reaction is positive. (3) The bond-forming process gives out more energy than that is needed in the bond-breaking process. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
40.
Which of the following reactions is exothermic? A. C
8
H
18
(l)
C
4
H
8
(g) + C
4
H
10
(l) B. H
2
O(s)
H
2
O(l) C. O
2
(g)
2O(g) D. Cl(g) + e
Cl
(g) □
41.
An endothermic reaction involves absorption of heat. In an endothermic reaction, the total enthalpy of products is greater than that of the reactants. □
42.
The heat change at constant pressure is equal to the enthalpy change of the reaction. The change in internal energy is equal to the difference between enthalpy change of the reaction and the work done on the surroundings. □
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43.
The dissolving of ammonium nitrate in water is an endothermic reaction which gives a cooling effect. A commercial instant cold pack is used to treat athletes
’
injuries. □
44.
No energy is absorbed or released in a physical change. Physical changes do not involve breaking of covalent bonds. □
45.
A chemical reaction with positive enthalpy change involves bond-breaking processes only. During the bond-breaking processes, energy has to be supplied to break the chemical bonds. Thus, the bond-breaking processes are endothermic. □
46.
Some endothermic reactions are spontaneous. The reaction between hydrated barium hydroxide and ammonium chloride when mixing is a spontaneous endothermic reaction. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
482
Chemistry: Chapter 36 Standard enthalpy change of combustion, neutralization, solution and formation Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 34 Standard enthalpy change of combustion, neutralization, solution and formation 1.
The value of Δ
H
f
for CH
2
O is assumed to be x
kJ mol
1
. Which of the following thermochemical equations represents the Δ
H
f
of CH
2
O? A. C(g) + H
2
(g) + 2
1
O
2
(g)
CH
2
O(l) Δ
H
f
= x
kJ mol
1 B. C(s) + H
2
(g) + 2
1
O
2
(g)
CH
2
O(l) Δ
H
f
= x
kJ mol
1
C. C(g) + 2H
2
(g) + O(g)
CH
2
O(l) Δ
H
f
= x
kJ mol
1
D. CO(g) + H
2
(g)
CH
2
O(l) Δ
H
f
= x
kJ mol
1
□
2.
Which of the following represents the equation for the standard enthalpy change of formation of nitrogen dioxide? A. N(g) + 2O(g)
NO
2
(g) B. 2
1
N
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
NO
2
(g) C. 2
1
N
2
O
4
(g)
NO
2
(g) D. NO(g) + 2
1
O
2
NO
2
(g) □
3.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Dissolving NH
4
Cl(s) into H
2
O(l) is an endothermic process. (2) Adding 10.0 cm
3
of 12.0 M H
2
SO
4
(aq) into 40.0 cm
3
of water is an exothermic process. (3) Mixing 20.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M NaOH(aq) with 20.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M HCl(aq) is an exothermic process. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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483
4.
The table below shows the energy released when burning 1.0 g of each of four organic compounds methane, ethanol, propanol and octane. Name Energy released/kJ g
1
Methane 55.7 Ethanol 29.8 Propanol 33.6 Octane 48.4 The standard enthalpy change of combustion of one of the above organic compounds is
2016 kJ mol
1
. What is the organic compound? A. Methane B. Ethanol C. Propanol D. Octane □
5.
Which of the following is/are the standard condition(s) adopted for measuring the enthalpy changes? (1) 273 K (2) 101 325 Nm
2
(3) Iodine in gaseous state A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
6.
H
2
(g) + Cl
2
(g)
2HCl(g) Δ
H
=
184.6 kJ mol
1
Which of the following statements concerning the above reaction is correct? A. One hydrogen molecule reacts with one chlorine molecule, releasing 184.6 kJ energy. B. 1 mole of hydrogen reacts completely to produce 2 moles of hydrogen chloride gas, releasing 184.6 kJ energy. C. Under 1 atm and 25
C, 1 mole of hydrogen reacts completely with 1 mole of chlorine to produce 2 moles of hydrogen chloride, releasing 184.6 kJ energy. D. Under 1 atm and 25
C, 1 mole of hydrogen reacts completely with 1 mole of chlorine to produce 2 moles of hydrogen chloride, absorbing 184.6 kJ energy. □
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484
7.
B
2
H
6
(g) + 3O
2
(g)
B
2
O
3
(s) + 3H
2
O(g) Which of the following represents the enthalpy change of the above reaction? A. Δ
H
f
[B
2
O
3
(s)] B. 3 × Δ
H
f
[H
2
O(g)] C. 3 × Δ
H
c
[O
2
(g)] D. Δ
H
c
[B
2
H
6
(g)] □
8.
Which of the following represents an equation for the standard enthalpy change of formation of Fe
3
O
4
(s)? A. 3Fe(s) + 2O
2
(g)
Fe
3
O
4
(s) B. 3Fe(s) + 4O(g)
Fe
3
O
4
(s) C. 3FeO(s) + H
2
O(g)
Fe
3
O
4
(s) + H
2
(g) D. FeO(s) + Fe
2
O
3
(s)
Fe
3
O
4
(s) □
9.
Consider the following reactions: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq)
NaCl(aq) + H
2
O(l) Δ
H 1
HCN(aq) + NaOH(aq)
NaCN(aq) + H
2
O(l) Δ
H 2
Which of the following statement(s) concerning the above reactions is/are INCORRECT? (1) Both reactions have positive enthalpy changes. (2) Both reactions can be represented by an ionic equation: H
+
(aq) + OH
(aq)
H
2
O(l) (3)
H 1 is less negative than
H 2
. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
10.
Which of the following equations correctly represents the standard enthalpy change of combustion? A. 2C(s) + O
2
(g)
2CO(g) B. 2CH
4
(g) + 3O
2
(g)
2CO(g) + 4H
2
O(g) C. 2H
2
S(g) + O
2
(g)
2S(s) + 2H
2
O(g) D. 2H
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
2H
2
O(l) □
11.
Which of the following equations represents the standard enthalpy change of formation of hydrogen bromide? A. H
2
(g) + Br
2
(g)
2HBr(g)
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A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
485
B. H
2
(g) + Br
2
(l)
2HBr(g) C. 2
1
H
2
(g) + 2
1
Br
2
(g)
HBr(g) D. 2
1
H
2
(g) + 2
1
Br
2
(l)
HBr(g) □
12.
Which of the following standard enthalpy changes is/are always negative? (1) Standard enthalpy change of formation (2) Standard enthalpy change of neutralization (3) Standard enthalpy change of solution
A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
13.
Which of the following graphs correctly illustrates the temperature change when ammonium nitrate crystals are dissolved in a beaker of water at room temperature? A. B. Temperature Time Temperature Time
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486
C. D. □
14.
Which of the following combinations when mixing will have the greatest standard enthalpy change of neutralization? Acid Alkali A. CH
3
COOH NaOH B. HNO
3
NaOH C. HCN NH
3
D. HCl NH
3
□
15.
The enthalpy level diagram shown below represents the standard enthalpy change for complete combustion of C(graphite). Which of the following diagrams represents the standard enthalpy change for the complete combustion of C(graphite) if 2 moles of oxygen are used? Temperature Time Temperature Time Reaction coordinate
Enthalpy
Δ
H
c =
393.5 kJ mol
1 C(graphite) + O
2
(g) CO
2
(g)
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487
A. B. C. D. □
16.
The thermochemical equation shown below refers to the combustion of ammonia. 4NH
3
(g) + 3O
2
(g)
2N
2
(g) + 6H
2
O(g) Δ
H
c
= x
kJ Which of the following statements concerning the above reaction are correct? (1) x
is negative in value. (2) The standard enthalpy change of combustion of ammonia is 4
1
x
kJ mol
1
. (3) The standard enthalpy change of the reaction is 4 × Δ
H
c
[NH
3
(g)]. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
17.
Which of the following is/are standard condition(s) adopted for measuring the enthalpy changes? (1) A temperature of 273 K (2) A pressure of one atmosphere (3) Carbon in the form of diamond A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only C(graphite) + O
2
(g) Δ
H
c
=
393.5 kJ −
1 CO
2
(g) Reaction coordinate
Enthalpy
C(graphite) + 2O
2
(g) Δ
H
c =
196.8 kJ mol
1 CO
2
(g) + O
2
(g) Reaction coordinate
Enthalpy
2C(graphite) + 2O
2
(g) Δ
H
c =
787.0 kJ mol
−
1 2CO
2
(g) Reaction coordinate
Enthalpy
C(graphite) + 2O
2
(g) Δ
H
c
=
787.0 kJ mol
1 CO
2
(g) + O
2
(g) Reaction coordinate Enthalpy
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488
18.
Which of the following concerning the standard state of an element are correct? (1) It is the most stable form of the element at 25
C and 1 atm. (2) It is one of the standard conditions adopted for measuring the enthalpy changes. (3) It is the normal physical state of the element. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
19.
Which of the following about standard enthalpy change of reaction are correct? (1) It is often expressed as
H
. (2) The unit used for standard enthalpy change of reaction is kJ mol
1
. (3) It is a general name for the enthalpy change of any reaction. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
Consider the following thermochemical equation. 2CO(g) + O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g)
H
=
566.0 kJ What is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of CO(g)? A. +283.0 kJ mol
1
B.
283.0 kJ mol
1
C. +566.0 kJ mol
1
D.
566.0 kJ mol
1
□
21.
Consider the following equation. 2CO(g) + O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g)
H
=
566.0 kJ Which of the following definitions concerning the standard enthalpy change of above reaction is correct? A. Standard enthalpy change of reaction B. Standard enthalpy change of formation of CO
2
(g) C. Standard enthalpy change of combustion of CO(g) D. Standard enthalpy change of formation of 2CO
2
(g) □
22.
Consider the following chemical equation. 2C(s) + 2O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g)
H
=
790.0 kJ Which of the following statements concerning the above reaction are correct?
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489
(1) The standard enthalpy change of the reaction is
790.0 kJ. (2) The reaction can be either regarded as a combustion reaction or a formation reaction. (3) The enthalpy change of reaction is measured under standard conditions. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
23.
Which of the following value(s) may be either positive or negative? (1) The standard enthalpy change of formation (2) The standard enthalpy change of neutralization (3) The standard enthalpy change of solution A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
24.
Which of the following definitions for the standard enthalpy change of solution is correct? A. Standard enthalpy change of solution of a substance is the enthalpy change under standard conditions when 1 g of it is dissolved in a sufficiently large volume of solvent. B. Standard enthalpy change of solution of a substance is the enthalpy change under standard conditions when 1 mole of the substance is dissolved in 1 mole of water. C. Standard enthalpy change of solution of a substance is the enthalpy change under standard conditions when 1 mole of it is dissolved in a sufficiently large volume of solvent. D. Standard enthalpy change of solution of a substance is the enthalpy change at 273 K and 1 atm when 1 mole of the substance is dissolved in a sufficiently large volume of solvent. □
25.
Which of the following substance(s) has/have zero Δ
H
f
? (1) Diamond (2) Hydrogen gas (3) Sodium A. (1) only
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490
B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
26.
The mass and the specific heat capacity of a substance are m
g and c
J g
1
K
1
respectively. It was heated until the temperature rose by t
C. What is the enthalpy change of the heating process? A. mct
B. mc
(
t
+ 273) C. 1000
mct
D. mc
(
t
273) □
27.
A 50.0 cm
3
sample of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid was mixed with 50.0 cm
3
of 1.0 M sodium hydroxide solution in a simple calorimeter. The temperature of the reaction mixture rose from 21.0
C to 27.5
C. What is the enthalpy change of the reaction: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq)
H
2
O(l) + NaCl(aq)? (Assume that the specific heat capacity and density of the reaction mixture are 4.2 J g
1
K
1
and 1.0 g cm
3
respectively.) A.
2.7 kJ mol
1
B.
10.8 kJ mol
1
C.
27.0 kJ mol
1
D.
54.6 kJ mol
1
□
28.
A 1.0 g sample of hexane (C
6
H
14
) was burnt with excess oxygen in a bomb calorimeter which has a calorimeter constant of 10.3 kJ
C
1
. The temperature of the calorimeter rose from 22.64
C to 29.30
C. Which of the following is the enthalpy change of combustion of hexane? A.
68.6 kJ mol
1
B.
8.92 × 10
2
kJ mol
1
C.
5.91 ×10
3
kJ mol
1
D.
6.73 ×10
3
kJ mol
1
□
29.
A 0.1375 g sample of solid magnesium was burnt in a constant-volume bomb calorimeter which contained 1000 g of water. The temperature rose by 0.59
C. The heat capacities of water and bomb calorimeter are 4.2 J g
1
C
1
and 1769 J
C
1
respectively. What would be the enthalpy change of combustion of magnesium?
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491
A.
3.5 kJ mol
1 B.
25.5 kJ mol
1
C.
289.0 kJ mol
1
D.
622.4 kJ mol
1
□
30.
Magnesium oxide can be prepared by burning magnesium in excess oxygen. The standard enthalpy change of formation of MgO is
1203 kJ mol
1
. What is the heat released for forming 1.0 g of MgO? A. 0.025 kJ B. 29.8 kJ C. 40.0 kJ D. 1203 kJ □
31.
A student used a simple calorimeter to determine the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol. The following data was recorded. Initial mass of spirit burner = 133.20 g Initial temperature of water = 25.0
C Final mass of spirit burner = 132.05 g Final temperature of water = 45.5
C Mass of water in the can = 300.0 g Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g
1
K
1
Determine the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol using the above data. A.
22.4 kJ mol
1
B.
25.7 kJ mol
1
C.
1033.2 kJ mol
1
D.
1180.1 kJ mol
1
□
32.
When 30.0 cm
3
of 0.10 M Ba(OH)
2
(aq) is added to 30.0 cm
3
of 0.10 M H
2
SO
4
(aq) in an expanded polystyrene cup, there was a rise in temperature of Δ
T
1
. The experiment was repeated by using 60.0 cm
3
of each solution and the rise in temperature was Δ
T
2
. What is the relationship between Δ
T
1
and Δ
T
2
? A. Δ
T
2
is equal to Δ
T
1
B. Δ
T
2
is the double of Δ
T
1
C. Δ
T
2
is the triple of Δ
T
1
D. Δ
T
2
is the half of Δ
T
1
□
33.
Which of the following enthalpy changes is measured by the bomb calorimeter? A. The enthalpy changes of neutralization B. The enthalpy changes of combustion
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492
C. The enthalpy changes of solution D. The enthalpy changes of formation □
34.
A student carried out an experiment to determine the standard enthalpy change of combustion of liquid propan-1-ol using the apparatus shown in the diagram. The following data was recorded Mass of propan-1-ol burnt = 0.60 g Mass of water in the beaker = 200.0 g Initial temperature of water = 21.0
C
The student wanted to predict the final temperature of water before the experiment. What would be the predicted final temperature of the water? (Given that the theoretical standard enthalpy change of combustion of propan-1-ol is
2021 kJ mol
1
and the specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J g
1
K
1
.) A. 24.2
C B 29.1
C C. 45.1
C D. 48.4
C □
35.
A spirit burner containing liquid methanol is used to heat up a beaker of water (200.0 g) from 15.5
C to 100.0
C. (Given: the specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g
1
K
1
,
H
c
[methanol(l)] =
715.0 kJ mol
1
) Which of the following is the mass of methanol needed for the heating process? A. 1.59 g B. 2.23 g C. 3.18 g D. 6.35 g □
36.
Which of the following assumptions are made when using a simple calorimeter to determine the enthalpy change of a reaction? (1) The density of the reaction mixture is the same as that of water. propan-1-ol water beaker
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493
(2) The specific heat capacities of the calorimeter and the thermometer arenegligible. (3) There is no heat loss to the surroundings.
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
37.
Which of the following pieces of information are required to determine the heat released in the combustion of ethanol by using a simple calorimeter? (1) The mass of water (2) The specific heat capacity of water (3) The rise in the temperature of water A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
38.
Which of the following can be determined directly by the simple calorimetric methods? (1) Enthalpy change of combustion (2) Enthalpy change of solution (3) Enthalpy change of formation A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
39.
Which of the following concerning the standard enthalpy change of combustion are correct? (1) It is always negative. (2) It can be determined by the simple calorimetric methods. (3) It determines whether a fuel is suitable for use or not. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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40.
Which of the following concerning the reaction between nitric acid and sodium hydroxide are correct? (1) The standard enthalpy change of the reaction is negative. (2) Nitrate ions and sodium ions are spectator ions. (3) The standard enthalpy change of the reaction can be determined by the simple calorimetric methods. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
41.
Given that: HCN(aq) + NaOH(aq)
NaCN(aq) + H
2
O(l)
H
neut
= x
kJ mol
1
HNO
3
(aq) + NaOH(aq)
NaNO
3
(aq) + H
2
O(l)
H neut
= y
kJ mol
1
Which of the following statements concerning the above two reactions are correct? (1) Both x
and y
can be determined by the simple calorimetric methods. (2) x
is less negative than y
. (3) Both reactions involve the reactions between hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions only. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
42.
A 25.0 cm
3 sample of 3.0 M hydrochloric acid at 25.0
C was mixed with 25.0 cm
3
of 3.0 M sodium hydroxide at 25.0
C in a simple calorimeter. The highest temperature recorded after mixing was 45.0
C. Calculate the enthalpy change of the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide. (Assume that the specific heat capacity and the density of the reaction mixture are 4.2 J g
1
K
1
and 1.0 g cm
3
respectively.) A.
28.0 kJ mol
1
B.
42.0 kJ mol
1
C.
56.0 kJ mol
1
D.
112.0 kJ mol
1
□
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495
43.
When 1.0 g of anhydrous lithium chloride (LiCl) is added to 20.0 g of water, the temperature rise is 9.8
C. Assume that the specific heat capacity and the density of the solution are 4.2 J g
1
K
1 and 1.0 g cm
3
respectively. Which of the following statements concerning the above experiment is/are correct? (1) The above experiment can be carried out in a simple calorimeter. (2) The thermochemical equation is: LiCl(s) + H
2
O(l)
LiCl •
H
2
O(aq) Δ
H
soln
=
34.9 kJ mol
1
(3) The enthalpy change of solution per one mole of LiCl is
34.9 kJ mol
1
. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
44.
Consider the following reaction. 2Na
2
O(s) + O
2
(g)
2Na
2
O
2
(s)
H
=
176.0 kJ Which of the following statement(s) concerning the above reaction is/are correct? (1) The standard enthalpy change of formation of Na
2
O
2
(s) is
88.0 kJ mol
1
. (2) The standard enthalpy change of reaction is
176.0 kJ. (3) The standard enthalpy change of reaction can be determined by simple calorimetric methods. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
45.
Which of the following are necessary for accurate determination of standard enthalpy change of combustion? (1) The combustion experiment is carried out in a simple calorimeter. (2) The combustion experiment is carried out under standard conditions. (3) The combustion experiment is carried out in a condition with excess supply of oxygen. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
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496
46.
An experiment was carried to determine the enthalpy change of neutralization between HCl(aq) and NaOH(aq). The experimental set-up was shown below. Which of the following statements concerning the above experiment are correct? (1) The experiment should be carried out in a vacuum flask in order to reduce errors. (2) The experimental value is less negative than the theoretical value of the enthalpy change of neutralization between HCl(aq) and NaOH(aq). (3) The major error of the experiment is heat loss to the surroundings due to convection, conduction and evaporation. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
47.
Which of the following devices is the most accurate to determine the standard enthalpy change of combustion? A. A simple calorimeter B. A vacuum flask C. A bomb calorimeter D. An expanded polystyrene cup □
48.
Given that: CH
3
COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq)
CH
3
COONa(aq) + H
2
O(l) Δ
H
neut = x
kJ mol
1
Which of the following concerning the enthaply change of the above reaction is/are INCORRECT? (1) x
may be either positive or negative in value. (2) The above reaction involves complete ionization of CH
3
COOH. (3) x
can be determined by the simple calorimetric methods. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only a thermometer a mixture of HCl(aq) and NaOH(aq) a beaker
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D. (2) and (3) only □
49.
Which of the following is NOT the major source of error when using the simple calorimetric methods to determine the standard enthalpy change of neutralization? A. The density of the reaction mixture deviates from that of water. B. The specific heat capacities of the expanded polystyrene cup and the thermometer are not considered in calculation. C. The reaction condition is not standard. D. Taking reading from the thermometer by naked eyes. □
50.
The standard enthalpy change of neutralization between strong acids and strong alkalis are more negative than that between weak acids and strong alkalis. The neutralization reactions between weak acids and strong alkalis release less energy because some energy has to be supplied for complete ionization of the weak acids. □
51.
The standard state for the element of phosphorus is yellow phosphorus. The most stable form of an element at 298 K and 1 atm is chosen as the standard state. □
52.
The standard enthalpy changes for the neutralization reactions between strong acids and strong alkalis are about
57.0 kJ mol
1
. The neutralization reactions between strong acids and strong alkalis are the reactions of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions. □
53.
The standard enthalpy change of solution of a salt determines whether it is suitable to be employed in instant hot packs or instant cold packs. The standard enthalpy change of solution of a salt may be either positive or negative. □
54.
Expanded polystyrene cups are often used as the apparatus to construct a simple calorimeter. Expanded polystyrene cups are good insulators of heat. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
507
Chemistry: Chapter 37 Hess
’
s Law Combined Science (Chemistry Part): Chapter 35 Hess
’
s Law 1.
Which of the following about enthalpy change of a reaction are correct? (1) It depends on the difference in enthalpy between the reactants and products. (2) It does not depend on the route taken to get from the reactants to the products.
(3) It can be determined by applying Hess
’
s Law.
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
2.
Which of the following about enthalpy level diagram are correct? (1) It can be used to represent the enthalpy changes of chemical reactions. (2) It can be drawn if the relative energy levels of reactants and products involved are known. (3) Each horizontal line in the diagram represents the relative energy level of reactants and products for a chemical reaction respectively.
A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
3.
Which of the following statements concerning the enthalpy level diagram shown below is/are INCORRECT? (1) The horizontal lines represent the relative energy levels of reactants and products in chemical reactions. (2) The energy released from the reaction to the surroundings is 100.0 kJ mol
1
. (3) The reaction is endothermic. A. (1) only B. (2) only Δ
H
= +100.0 kJ mol
1 Reaction coordinate
Enthalpy
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508
C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
4.
Which of the following statements concerning Hess
’
s Law are correct? (1) It states that the overall enthalpy change of a chemical reaction is the same, regardless of the route by which the reaction takes place. (2) It is applied to determine the standard enthalpy change of formation of a substance indirectly. (3) It is a direct consequence of the Law of Conservation of Energy. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
5.
Which of the following statements concerning the above enthalpy level diagram for the formation of NO
2
(g) are correct? (1) Δ
H
A
= Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2
(2) Each horizontal line represents the relative energy level of reactants and products for the chemical reaction respectively. (3) The reaction is endothermic, as the line for the products is above that for the reactants. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
6.
Which of the following statements concerning Hess
’
s Law are correct? (1) It states that the overall enthalpy change of a chemical reaction is independent of the reaction route taken. (2) It states that the overall enthalpy change of a chemical reaction is dependent of the difference in enthalpy between the reactants and products. 2NO
2
(g) 2NO(g) + O
2
(g) Δ
H
A Reaction coordinate Enthalpy
Δ
H
1 N
2
(g) + 2O
2
(g) Δ
H
2
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A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
509
(3) It is the concept used by chemists to determine enthalpy changes of reactions that cannot be found by experiment directly. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7.
By using Hess
’
s Law, (1) the enthalpies of products in a reaction can be determined. (2) the enthalpy changes of reactions that cannot be performed easily can be found. (3) enthalpy change cycles and enthalpy level diagrams can be constructed. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
8.
Which of the following statements concerning enthalpy change cycle are correct? (1) It can represent the enthalpy changes of the reactions. (2) It relates the different pathways of a reaction in a closed loop. (3) The number of atoms of species involved in any enthalpy change cycle has to be balanced. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
9.
Which of the following information is required for drawing enthalpy level diagram? A. The masses of species involved in a chemical reaction. B. The relative energy levels of species involved in a chemical reaction. C. The number of moles of species involved in a chemical reaction. D. The specific heat capacities of species involved in a chemical reaction. □
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
510
10.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f [H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f [C
2
H
5
OH(l)] =
273.0 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol, Δ
H
c [C
2
H
5
OH(l)]? A.
408.0 kJ mol
1
B.
954.0 kJ mol
1
C.
1375 kJ mol
1
D.
1921 kJ mol
1
□
11.
Given that: Δ
H
f
[CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f
[H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
c
[C
4
H
10
(g)] =
2880 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of formation of butane, Δ
H
f [C
4
H
10
(g)]? A.
130.0 kJ mol
1
B.
234.0 kJ mol
1
C.
5890 kJ mol
1
D. +130.0 kJ mol
1
□
12.
Given that: Δ
H
f
[NO
2
(g)] = +34.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f
[NO(g)] = +90.0 kJ mol
1 What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction: 2NO(g) + O
2
(g)
2NO
2
(g)? A.
112.0 kJ mol
1
B. +112.0 kJ mol
1
C. +124.0 kJ mol
1
D. +248.0 kJ mol
1
□
13.
Given that: S(s) + O
2
(g)
SO
2
(g) Δ
H
1
=
296.8 kJ mol
1
2SO
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
2SO
3
(g) Δ
H 2
=
196.0 kJ mol
1
What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? 2S(s) + 3O
2
(g)
2SO
3
(g) A.
100.8 kJ mol
1
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
511
B.
397.6 kJ mol
1
C.
492.8 kJ mol
1
D.
789.6 kJ mol
1
□
14.
Given that: Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
2
(g)] = x
kJ mol
1 Δ
H
c
[H
2
(g)] = y
kJ mol
1 Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
6
(g)] = z
kJ mol
1
Calculate the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction: C
2
H
2
(g) + 2H
2
(g)
C
2
H
6
(g) A. x
+ 2
y
z
B. x
+ y
z
C. 2
xy
z
D. z
x
2
y
□
15.
The standard enthalpy change of the following reaction is
1852 kJ mol
1
. 3Mg(s) + KClO
3
(s)
3MgO(s) + KCl(s) Given that the standard enthalpy change of formation of KClO
3
and KCl are
391.0 kJ mol
1
and
437.0 kJ mol
1 respectively, calculate the standard enthalpy change of formation of MgO. A.
1806 kJ mol
1
B.
633.0 kJ mol
1
C.
602.0 kJ mol
1
D.
341.0 kJ mol
1
□
16.
Consider the following enthalpy level diagram. What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? N
2
(g) + 2O
2
(g)
2NO
2
(g) A.
292.0 kJ mol
1
B.
68.0 kJ mol
1
C. +68.0 kJ mol
1
Reaction coordinate Enthalpy
2NO
2
(g) 2NO(g) + O
2
(g) Δ
H
1
= +180.0 kJ mol
1
N
2
(g) + 2O
2
(g) Δ
H
2
=
112.0 kJ mol
1
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
512
D. +292.0 kJ mol
1
□
17.
Consider the following reaction. C
6
H
12
O
6
(s) + 6O
2
(g)
6CO
2
(g) + 6H
2
O(l) Which of the following information is/are required to determine the standard enthalpy change of the above reaction, Δ
H
r
? (1) Δ
H
f
[CO
2
(g)] (2) Δ
H
f
[H
2
O(l)] (3) Δ
H
f
[C
6
H
12
O
6
(s)] A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
18.
Given that: 2H
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
2H
2
O(l) Δ
H
1
H
2
O(l)
H
2
O(g) Δ
H 2
What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? 2H
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
2H
2
O(g) A. Δ
H
1
2
Δ
H
2 B. Δ
H
1
+ 2
Δ
H
2
C. Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2 D. Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2
□
19.
Given that: Δ
H
f
[CO
2
(g)] = Δ
H
1
Δ
H
f
[H
2
O(l)] = Δ
H
2
Δ
H
f
[C
8
H
18
(l)] = Δ
H
3
Which of the following statements concerning the combustion of C
8
H
18
(l) are correct? (1) The chemical equation for the combustion of C
8
H
18
(l) is C
8
H
18
(l) + 2
25
O
2
(g)
8CO
2
(g) + 9H
2
O(l). (2) The standard enthalpy change of combustion of C
8
H
18
(l) is 8
Δ
H
1
+ 9
Δ
H
2
Δ
H 3
. (3) The standard enthalpy change of combustion of C
8
H
18
(l) can be determined by the simple calorimetric methods. A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only
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HKDSE Chemistry
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513
C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
20.
1.0g of each of the following substances was burned in a bomb calorimeter. In each case, the quantity of energy released was determined and tabulated as follows: Substance Energy released/kJ g
1
C(graphite) 32.8 H
2
(g) 143.0 C
4
H
10
(g) 49.6 What is the standard enthalpy change of formation of butane, C
4
H
10
(g)? A. +2197 kJ mol
1
B.
127.4 kJ mol
1
C.
2197 kJ mol
1 D.
5881 kJ mol
1
□
21.
Δ
H
f
[CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1 Δ
H
f
[SO
2
(g)] =
297.0 kJ mol
1 Δ
H
c
[CS
2
(l)] =
1075 kJ mol
1
What is the enthalpy change involved in the formation of 1.0 g of CS
2
(l)? A. 1.13 kJ B. 1.95 kJ C. 5.04 kJ D. 86.0 kJ □
22.
Given that: H
2
O(g)
H
2
O(l) Δ
H
1
C
2
H
5
OH(g)
C
2
H
5
OH(l) Δ
H
2
C
2
H
5
OH(g) + 3O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(g) Δ
H
3
What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction: C
2
H
5
OH(l) + 3O
2
(g)
2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l) A. Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2 + Δ
H
3 B. 2
Δ
H
1
+ 2
Δ
H
2 + 2
Δ
H
3 C.
3
Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2 + Δ
H
3 D. 3
Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2 + Δ
H 3
□
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A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
514
23.
Given that: P
4
(white) + 5O
2
(g)
P
4
O
10
(s) Δ
H
1
=
2983.2 kJ mol
1
Which of the following statements concerning the conversion of white phosphorus to red phosphorus is/are correct? (1) The reaction is exothermic. (2) The enthalpy of red phosphorus is relatively higher than that of white phosphorus. (3) Red phosphorus is more stable than white phosphorus. A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (3) only D. (2) and (3) only □
24.
Given that: Na
2
CO
3
•
10H
2
O(s)
Na
2
CO
3
(s) + 10H
2
O(g) Δ
H
1
= +532.36 kJ mol
1
Na
2
CO
3
•
10H
2
O(s)
Na
2
CO
3
•
H
2
O(s) + 9H
2
O(g) Δ
H
2
= +473.63 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of dehydration of Na
2
CO
3
•
H
2
O(s)? A. +58.73 kJ mol
1
B.
58.73 kJ mol
1
C. +1005.99 kJ mol
1
D.
1005.99 kJ mol
1
□
25.
Given that: PCl
5
(g)
PCl
3
(g) + Cl
2
(g) Δ
H
2
= +93.0 kJ mol
1
What is the standard enthalpy change of formation of PCl
5
(g)? A.
399.0 kJ mol
1 B. +399.0 kJ mol
1 C.
213.0 kJ mol
1 D. +213.0 kJ mol
1 □
P(red) + 4
5
O
2
(g)
4
1
P
4
O
10
(s) Δ
H
2
=
738.5 kJ mol
1
P(s) + 2
3
Cl
2
(g)
PCl
3
(g) Δ
H
1
=
306.0 kJ mol
1
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
515
26.
Given that: BaSO
4
(s) + 4C(s)
4CO(g) + BaS(s) Δ
H
1
= +571.2 kJ mol
1
BaSO
4
(s) + 2C(s)
2CO
2
(g) + BaS(s) Δ
H
2
= +226.2 kJ mol
1
What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? C(s) + CO
2
(g)
2CO(g) A.
172.5 kJ mol
1 B. +172.5 kJ mol
1 C.
345 kJ mol
1 D. +345 kJ mol
1
□
27.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f [H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f [C
4
H
6
(g)] = +108.0 kJ mol
1 What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? C
4
H
6
(g) + 2
11
O
2
(g)
4CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l) A.
2330 kJ mol
1
B. +2330 kJ mol
1
C.
2546 kJ mol
1
D. +2546 kJ mol
1
□
28.
Consider the following enthalpy change cycle. What is Δ
H
1
? A. Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
B. Δ
H
3
Δ
H
2
C. Δ
H
2
+ Δ
H
3
D. Δ
H
2
× Δ
H
3
□
A
+ 2
B
AB
2
AB
+ B
Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
516
29.
Consider the following enthalpy change cycle. What is Δ
H
1
? A. Δ
H
2
+ Δ
H
3
B. Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
C. Δ
H
3
Δ
H
2
D. Δ
H
2
× Δ
H
3
□
30.
The standard enthalpy change of combustion of graphite and diamond are
393.5 kJ mol
1
and
395.4 kJ mol
1
respectively. Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of formation of diamond from graphite? A.
1.9 kJ mol
1
B. +1.9 kJ mol
1
C.
788.9 kJ mol
1
D. +788.9 kJ mol
1
□
31.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO
2
(g)] =
393.5 kJ mol
1 Δ
H f [H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1 Δ
H
f [CH
4
(g)] =
74.0 kJ mol
1 Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of methane, Δ
H
c [CH
4
(g)]? A. +252.5 kJ mol
1
B.
605.5 kJ mol
1
C.
891.5 kJ mol
1
D.
1039.5 kJ mol
1
□
32.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO
2
(g)] =
393.5 kJ mol
1 Δ
H f [H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f [C
6
H
6
(l)] = +226.0 kJ mol
1 Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of benzene, Δ
H
c [C
6
H
6
(l)]? A. +2993 kJ mol
1
A
+ BC
AB
+ C
AC
+ B
Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
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517
B.
905.5 kJ mol
1
C.
2993 kJ mol
1
D.
3445 kJ mol
1 □
33.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO
2
(g)] =
393.5 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f [H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f [NaHCO
3
(s)] =
951.0 kJ mol
1 Δ
H
f [Na
2
CO
3
(s)] =
1131 kJ mol
1 Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of decomposition for NaHCO
3
(s) i.e. 2NaHCO
3
(s)
Na
2
CO
3
(s) + H
2
O(l) + CO
2
(g)?
A.
859.5 kJ mol
1
B.
3713 kJ mol
1
C. +91.5 kJ mol
1
D. +1403 kJ mol
1
□
34.
Given that: N
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
2NO(g) Δ
H
1
= +180.0 kJ mol
1
2NO
2
(g)
2NO(g) + O
2
(g) Δ
H 2
= +112.0 kJ mol
1
What is the standard enthalpy change of the following reaction? N
2
(g) + 2O
2
(g)
2NO
2
(g) A. +68.0 kJ mol
1
B. +292.0 kJ mol
1
C.
68.0 kJ mol
1
D.
292.0 kJ mol
1
□
35.
Given that: What is the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction? 2N
2
(g) + 5O
2
(g)
2N
2
O
5
(g) A.
1422 kJ mol
1
H
2
(g) + 2
1
O
2
(g)
H
2
O(l) Δ
H
1
=
286.0 kJ mol
1
N
2
O
5
(g) + H
2
O(l)
2HNO
3
(l) Δ
H 2
=
77.0 kJ mol
1
2
1
N
2
(g) + 2
3
O
2
(g) + 2
1
H
2
(g)
HNO
3
(l) Δ
H 3
=
174.0 kJ mol
1
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A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
518
B.
619.0 kJ mol
1
C. +189.0 kJ mol
1
D. +30.0 kJ mol
1
□
36.
Consider the enthalpy change cycle shown below: Which of the following representations is correct? A. Δ
H = Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2
+ Δ
H
3 B. Δ
H = Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3 C. Δ
H = Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2
+ Δ
H
3 D. Δ
H = Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
□
37.
Which of the following concerning the enthalpy change cycle shown below are correct? (1) Δ
H
= Δ
H
1
+ Δ
H
2
Δ
H
3
(2) Δ
H 1
= Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
2
(g)] (3) Δ
H = Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
2
(g)] + 2 × Δ
H
c
[H
2
(g)]
Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
6
(g)] A. (1) and (2) only B. (1) and (3) only C. (2) and (3) only D. (1), (2) and (3) □
7C(s) + 4H
2
(g) +2O
2
(g) Δ
H Δ
H
2
Δ
H
1
Δ
H
3
+7O
2
(g) +9O
2
(g) 7CO
2
(g) + 4H
2
O(l) C
7
H
8
(l) C
2
H
2
(g) + 2H
2
(g) +O
2
(g) Δ
H Δ
H
2
Δ
H
1
+
2
5
O
2
(g) +
2
7
O
2
(g) 2CO
2
(g) + 3H
2
O(l) Δ
H
3
C
2
H
6
(g)
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
519
38.
Consider the enthalpy change cycle shown below: Which of the following represents Δ
H
1
? A. Δ
H
c
[NH
3
(g)] + Δ
H
f
[HCl(g)] B. Δ
H
f
[NH
3
(g)] + Δ
H
c
[HCl(g)] C. Δ
H
f
[NH
3
(g)] + Δ
H
f
[HCl(g)] D. Δ
H
c
[NH
3
(g)] + Δ
H
c
[HCl(g)] □
39.
Given that: Δ
H
f
[NO
2
(g)] = 32.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f
[NO(g)] = 90.0 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of the reaction: 2NO
2
(g)
2NO(g) + O
2
(g)? A. +58.0 kJ mol
1
B. +116.0 kJ mol
1
C.
58.0 kJ mol
1
D.
116.0 kJ mol
1
□
40.
Given that: O
2
(g) + O(g)
O
3
(g) Δ
H 1
=
105.0 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of reaction: 2
1
O
2
(g)
O(g)? A. +248.0 kJ mol
1
B. +38.0 kJ mol
1
C. 0 kJ mol
1
D.
248.0 kJ mol
1
□
Δ
H Δ
H
1
Δ
H
2
NH
4
Cl(s) NH
3
(g) + HCl(g) 2
1
N
2
(g) + 2H
2
(g) + 2
1
Cl
2
(g) 2
1
O
2
(g) + O
2
(g)
O
3
(g) Δ
H
2
= +143.0 kJ mol
1
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
520
41.
Given that: C(graphite) + O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) Δ
H 1
=
393.5 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of formation of C
2
H
6
(g)? A. +2440.7 kJ mol
1
B. +1475.6 kJ mol
1
C.
3204.2 kJ mol
1
D.
84.4 kJ mol
1
□
42.
Given that: CH
4
(g) + O
2
(g)
CH
2
O(g) + H
2
O(g) Δ
H 1
=
890.4 kJ mol
1
CH
2
O(g) + O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) + H
2
O(g) Δ
H 2
=
563.5 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of the reaction: CH
4
(g) + 2O
2
(g)
CO
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(g)? A.
1453.9 kJ mol
1
B.
326.9 kJ mol
1
C.
236.6 kJ mol
1
D. +118.3 kJ mol
1
□
43.
Given that: 2C
2
H
5
OH(l) + 6O
2
(l)
4CO
2
(g) + 6H
2
O(l) Δ
H =
2734 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f
[CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H
f
[H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
What of the following is the standard enthalpy change of formation of C
2
H
5
OH(l)? A.
281.0 kJ mol
1
B.
562.0 kJ mol
1
C. +1026.5 kJ mol
1
D. +2053 kJ mol
1
□
44.
Given that: Δ
H f
[CO
2
(g)] =
395.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f
[CH
3
OH(l)] =
239.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f
[H
2
O(l)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Which of the following is the standard enthalpy change of combustion of methanol, CH
3
OH(l)? H
2
(g) + 2
1
O
2
(g)
H
2
O(l) Δ
H 2
=
285.8 kJ mol
1
2C
2
H
6
(g) + 7O
2
(g)
4CO
2
(g) + 6H
2
O(l) Δ
H 3
=
3120 kJ mol
1
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
521
A.
442.0 kJ mol
1
B.
728.0 kJ mol
1
C.
1206 kJ mol
1
D. +920.0 kJ mol
1
□
45.
Some standard enthalpy changes of formation are given in the table below. Substance CH
4
(g) C
2
H
2
(g) C
2
H
4
(g) C
2
H
6
(g) CO
2
(g) H
2
O(l) Δ
H f
/kJ mol
1
74.8 226.9 52.6
84.5
395.0
286.0 Which of the following hydrocarbons will release the greatest amount of heat when burning 1.0 g of it in excess oxygen? A. CH
4
B. C
2
H
2
C. C
2
H
4 D. C
2
H
6
□
46.
Given that: Δ
H
f [CO(g)] =
110.5 kJ mol
1
Δ
H f [CO
2
(g)] =
393.5 kJ mol
1
What is the enthalpy change of the following reaction: 2CO(g) + 2CO
2
(g)
4C(s) + 3O
2
(g)? A.
1008 kJ mol
1
B.
566.0 kJ mol
1
C.
504.0 kJ mol
1
D. +1008 kJ mol
1
□
47.
Given that: Δ
H
c
[C
2
H
2
(g)] =
1300 kJ mol
1 Δ
H c
[H
2
(g)] =
286.0 kJ mol
1
Δ
H c
[C
2
H
6
(g)] =
1560 kJ mol
1
What is the enthalpy change of the following reaction: C
2
H
2
(g) + 2H
2
(g)
C
2
H
6
(g)? A.
26 kJ mol
1
B. +26 kJ mol
1
C.
312 kJ mol
1
D. +312 kJ mol
1
□
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HKDSE Chemistry
A Modern View Part VIII Chemical Reactions and Energy © Aristo Educational Press Ltd. 2010
522
48.
The enthalpy changes of some reactions have to be determined indirectly by applying Hess
’
s Law. Some reactions cannot be easily or safely carried out in a calorimeter or may lead to the formation of side products. □
49.
Enthalpy level diagrams can represent the enthalpy changes of the reactions. Enthalpy level diagrams can show clearly the relative energy levels of species involved in the reactions. □
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