test 3 recitation

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Feb 20, 2024

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Recitation Worksheet Ten: Exam III Review Name: UGA ID: Instructions: § This recitation worksheet is a review for Exam III. § You do not need to submit it to Gradescope. § The answer key has been posted with this worksheet to eLC. § The recitation session during the exam week (October 30-November 2) is still mandatory . Your attendance will be recorded. § A periodic table and formula sheet are attached to the end of this worksheet. 1. An undergraduate student goes to chemistry lab to perform the bomb calorimetry experiment using benzoic acid (q comb = - 3225 kJ/mol; molar mass = 122.12 g/mol). They see a temperature change of approximately 4.10 ºC. If the heat capacity of the calorimeter is 12.1 kJ/ºC, what was the starting mass of benzoic acid used (in g)? g

2. A 6.16 g sample of benzene (C 6 H 6 ), an organic compound with a q comb = -41.74 kJ per gram of benzene, is combusted in a bomb calorimeter. What will the change in temperature of the bomb calorimeter be (in ºC) if the heat capacity of the calorimeter is 50.4 kJ/K? ºC 3. A bomb calorimetry experiment is performed with xylose, C 5 H 10 O 5 , as the combustible substance. The data obtained are: Mass of xylose burned: 1.183 g Heat capacity of calorimeter: 4.728 kJ/ºC Initial calorimeter temperature: 23.29 ºC Final calorimeter temperature: 27.19 ºC Based on this information, what is the heat of combustion of xylose in kJ/mol? kJ/mol

4. Given the information below, what is ∆H rxn for: C 3 H 4 (g) + 2 H 2 (g) → C 3 H 8 (g) H 2 (g) + ½ O 2 (g) → H 2 O (l) ∆H rxn = -285.8 kJ/mol C 3 H 4 (g) + 4 O 2 (g) → 3 CO 2 (g) + 2 H 2 O (l) ∆H rxn = -1937 kJ/mol C 3 H 8 (g) + 5 O 2 (g) → 3 CO 2 (g) + 4 H 2 O (l) ∆H rxn = -2219.1 kJ/mol kJ/mol 5. Given the information below, what is ∆H rxn for: CH 4 (g) + NH 3 (g) → HCN (g) + 3 H 2 (g)? N 2 (g) + 3 H 2 (g) → 2 NH 3 (g) ∆H rxn = -91.8 kJ/mol C (s) + 2 H 2 (g) → CH 4 (g) ∆H rxn = -74.9 kJ/mol H 2 (g) + 2 C (s) + N 2 (g) → 2 HCN (g) ∆H rxn = 270.3 kJ/mol kJ/mol

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6. Given the following hypothetical reactions below... what is ∆H rxn for the reaction A (g) + 3 B (g) → D (g) + C (g)? kJ/mol

7. Of the following, ΔH° f is not zero for ________. 8. Consider the balanced reactions provided below. Which of the following are standard formation reactions? Select any that apply. 9. Calculate Δ r H° for the reaction below using standard enthalpies of formation provided in the table below. 4 NH 3 (g) + 5 O 2 (g) → 6 H 2 O (g) + 4 NO (g) Substance ΔH° f (kJ/mol) NH 3 (g) -45.9 NO (g) +91.3 H 2 O (g) -241.8 kJ A. O 2 (g) B. C (graphite) C. N 2 (g) D. F 2 (s) E. Cl 2 (g) A. C (s) + 2 H 2 (g) → CH 4 (g) B. 2 C (s) + 4 H 2 (g) → 2 CH 4 (g) C. 2 CO (g) + O 2 (g) → 2 CO 2 (s) D. CO (g) + ½ O 2 (l) → CO 2 (g) E. H 2 (g) + ½ O 2 (g) → H 2 O (g) F. H 2 (g) + ½ O 2 (g) → H 2 O (l) G. H 2 (g) + ½ O 2 (l) → H 2 O (l) H. 2 H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2 H 2 O (l) I. CaO (s) + CO 2 (g) → CaCO 3 (s)

10. Calculate Δ r H° for the reaction below using standard enthalpies of formation provided in the table below. Fe 2 O 3 (s) + 3 CO (g) → 2 Fe (s) + 3 CO 2 (g) Substance ΔH° f (kJ/mol) Fe 2 O 3 (s) -824.2 CO (g) -110.5 CO 2 (g) -393.5 kJ 11. The value of ΔH° for the reaction below is -3351 kJ. The value of ΔH° f for Al 2 O 3 (s) is ________ kJ. 2 Al (s) + 3 O 2 (g) → 2 Al 2 O 3 (s) kJ

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12. Hydrogen gas and bromine gas react to form hydrogen bromide gas. How much heat is exchanged (in kJ) when 155 grams of HBr (MW = 80.91 g/mol) is formed in this reaction? H 2 (g) + Br 2 (g) → 2 HBr (g) Δ r H° = - 72 kJ/mol kJ 13. A student goes to the lab to perform the balanced reaction below using 7.22 g of highly reactive potassium metal and 14.59 mL iodine monochloride (d = 3.24 g/cm 3 ). Upon completion, how much heat is exchanged in this reaction? 2 K (s) + ICl (l) → KCl (s) + KI (s) Δ r H° = -65.2 kJ/mol kJ

14. According to the following unbalanced hypothetical reaction, how much heat (kJ) is exchanged when 3.0 L of X 3 (g) and 5.0 L of Y 2 (g) is reacted at STP? _____X 3 (g) + _____Y 2 (g) → _____X 6 Y 5 (g) Substance ΔH° f (kJ/mol) X 3 (g) -56.7 Y 2 (g) 10.3 X 6 Y 5 (g) -98.2 kJ

15. A tank was filled with hydrogen gas at 1.01 atm and 27.3 °C. If the entire tank was carefully burned to exhaustion in the presence of excess oxygen gas based on the balanced equation below, and 2876 kJ of heat was emitted, what was the original volume of gas in the container? Report your answer in liters. H 2 (g) + ½ O 2 (g) → H 2 O (l) Δ r H° = -286 kJ/mol L 16. What is the energy of 1.00 mole of photons with a wavelength of 285 nm? J/mol

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17. In the film Star Wars Episode I: The Phantom Menace , Jedi Master Qui - Gon Jinn uses a lightsaber that emits green light ( l = 517 nm). His padawan, Obi - Wan Kenobi, uses a lightsaber that emits blue light ( l = 462 nm). Both lightsabers emit the same number of photons per second. Based on this information, complete the following statements with (A) smaller than, (B) larger than, or (C) equal to. Only answer with the capital letter of your choice. I. The frequency of the light emitted from Obi - Wan’s lightsaber is that of Qui - Gon’s lightsaber. II. The energy of the light emitted from Obi - Wan’s lightsaber is that of Qui - Gon’s lightsaber. III. Both lightsabers have a wavelength that is that of a lightsaber that emits infrared radiation. 18. Consider an experiment in which a low-frequency light is unsuccessful in the emission of electrons from a metal. Based on the principles of the photoelectric effect, which of the following statements below is/are true? Select any that apply. A. Increasing the intensity of the light will eventually cause electron emission B. Decreasing the intensity of the light will eventually cause electron emission C. Increasing the wavelength of the light will eventually cause electron emission D. Decreasing the wavelength of the light will eventually cause electron emission E. Increasing the frequency of the light will eventually cause electron emission F. Decreasing the frequency of the light will eventually cause electron emission

19. In a photoelectric experiment a particular metal is found to have a threshold frequency ( ν 0 ) of 8.20 x 10 14 Hz. I. What is the longest wavelength of light (in nm) that could eject an electron from this metal in a photoelectric apparatus? nm II. A particular electron is ejected from the metal with a velocity of 6.00 x 10 6 m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of this electron (in m)? m 20. Of the following transitions in the Bohr hydrogen atom, the ________ transition results in the emission of the lowest - energy photon. 21. According to the theory of wave-particle duality, under what conditions will a particle have the longest wavelength? A. n = 1 → n = 6 B. n = 6 → n = 2 C. n = 6 → n = 3 D. n = 3 → n = 6 E. n = 1 → n = 2 A. A particle with large mass and high velocity. B. A particle with small mass and high velocity. C. A particle with small mass and low velocity. D. A particle with large mass and low velocity.

22. A microwave oven uses electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 12.0 cm to excite water molecules in food items in order to heat them up. A particular veggie burger requires 29.3 kJ of heat to be ready to eat. How long (s) does the microwave oven need to run so that the veggie burger is ready to eat? The microwave oven emits 7.250 ´ 1 0 26 photons/sec. s

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23. What is false about an electron moving at 13% of the speed of light? Select any that apply. A. The more precisely you know its momentum, the less precisely you can know its position B. Its wavelength is 1.9 x 10 -11 m C. Its wavelength is shorter than that of a proton travelling at the same speed D. You can know both precisely where the electron is at any one time and the speed it is currently moving at E. It exhibits both wave and particle properties 24. Which of the following quantum numbers describes the size and energy of an orbital? 25. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are both valid and degenerate? Select any that apply. 26. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are both valid and degenerate? Select any that apply. A. m ℓ B. n C. m D. m s E. ℓ A. (2, 1, -2, ½) B. (3, 0, -1, -½) C. (3, 0, 0, ½) D. (2, 1, 0, ½) E. (2, 1, -1, -½) A. (3, 3, -2, ½) B. (5, 2, -1, ½) C. (4, 3, 0, ½) D. (5, 3, 2, -½) E. (5, 2, 3, -½) F. (5, 3, 4, ½) G. (5, 3, 0, -½)

27. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that... A. matter and energy are really the same thing B. it is impossible to know anything with certainty C. it is impossible to know both the exact position and momentum of an electron D. there can only be one uncertain digit in a reported number E. it is impossible to know how many electrons there are in an atom 28. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be found in the 3p subshell? Answer with an integer in the box below (e.g. 11). 29. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be found in the 4d subshell? Answer with an integer in the box below (e.g. 11). 30. Which of the following statements are false ? Select any that apply. A. The quantum number m s represents the size of the orbital B. The quantum number m ℓ can be zero and represents the energy of the orbital C. In a one-electron system, the 3s and 3p orbitals are degenerate D. In a multi-electron system, the quantum numbers (2, 1, 0, -½) and (2, 1, 1, ½) are valid and degenerate E. A 3d xy orbital is degenerate with a 3d xz orbital in a multi-electron system but not in a single electron system

31. An illustration of an orbital is provided below. What is/are the possible value(s) for m ℓ for the orbital below? 32. Use the images below to answer each of the following questions. I. Which of these orbitals are valid when n = 2? More than one may apply. II. Which of these orbitals are valid when ℓ = 1? More than one may apply. III. Which of these orbitals has the largest number of possible values for m ℓ ? IV. If each of these orbitals has the same n, which is highest in energy in an iron atom? A. 0 B. -1, 0, +1 C. -2, -1, 0, +1, +2 D. 0, +1, +2 E. -2, 0, +1

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Answer questions 33-35 using the images of the orbitals given below. The images below are only general illustrations, and the nodes are not shown below . 33. Which of the following quantum numbers below represent the x , y , and z subscripts in the orbitals above? 34. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers below are valid and may represent any of the three orbitals above? Select any that apply. 35. If one of the orbitals given above is the 3p y orbital, how many values of (a) n, (b) ℓ , (c) m ℓ , and (d) m s are possible? Answer with integers in the boxes below (e.g. 11). (a) (c) (b) (d) A. n B. ℓ C. m ℓ D. m s E. None of the quantum numbers provide this information A. (2, 1, 2, ½) E. (6, 1, 0, ½) B. (3, 2, 0, -½) F. (3, 0, 0, ½) C. (4, 1, -1, ½) G. (1, 1, -1, ½) D. (5, 0, 0, -½) H. (4, 2, -2, ½)

36. Consider the image of the orbital given below, which is only a general illustration of that particular orbital type . If the orbital were to contain 5 total nodes, which of the following subshells would correspond to this orbital? 37. Which of the following options has the energy of orbitals pictured below ranked correctly from lowest energy to highest energy? A. B < A < C < D B. A < B < C = D C. A < B = D < C D. B = D < A < C E. B < A < C = D A. 4p D. 4d G. 4f B. 5p E. 5d H. 5f C. 6p F. 6d I. 6f

38. What is a possible set of quantum numbers for the pictured electron orbital? Note: there is a node between each layer. A. (1, 0, 0, ½) B. (4, 0, 0, -½) C. (4, 1, 0, -½) D. (3, 2, 0, ½) E. (3, 1, 0, ½) 39. In a multi-electron system, an orbital in a 4s subshell fills before an orbital in a 3d subshell despite a higher quantum number n. Which of the following statements best explain this behavior? A. A 3d orbital experiences less shielding than a 4s orbital B. The 3d subshell is able to hold more electrons than a 4s orbital which subsequently results in a lower energy C. There are more nodes in a 3d orbital than a 4s orbital causing an increase in energy D. A 4s orbital experiences more penetration than a 3d orbital E. The number of possible orientations for the 3d orbitals are higher than 4s orbitals resulting in a higher energy

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40. What is the noble gas core electron configuration for bismuth (Bi)? A. [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 5d 10 6p 3 B. [Xe] 6s 2 5f 14 5d 10 6p 3 C. [Xe] 6s 2 6f 14 6d 10 6p 3 D. [Xe] 6s 2 4f 15 5d 9 6p 3 41. Which of the following element and ground state electron configuration (either full or noble gas configuration) pairs below are incorrect ? Select any that apply. 42. The electron configuration [Xe] 6s 1 4f 14 5d 10 corresponds to which of the following options below? A. Y: [Kr] 5s 2 4d 1 B. Al: 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 2p 1 C. K: [Ne] 4s 1 D. Mo: 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 6 5s 1 4d 5 E. W: [Xe] 6s 2 5d 4 A. Pt B. Pt in an excited state C. Au D. Au in an excited state E. Hg F. Hg in an excited state G. None of the above; the electron configuration given is invalid

43. Which of the following represents an excited state electron configuration of Sn? Select any that apply. 44. Which of the following represents an excited state electron configuration of selenium (Se)? Select any that apply. 45. Which of the following is the correct ground state electron configuration for an oxide ion in the ground state? A. [Kr] 5s 2 4d 9 5p 2 B. [Kr] 5s 2 4d 10 5p 2 C. [Kr] 5s 1 4d 10 5p 3 D. [Kr] 5s 2 4d 10 5p 2 6p 1 E. [Kr] 5s 2 4d 10 5p 1 A. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 2 B. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 3 C. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4 D. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 5 E. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 A. [Ar] 4s 2 3d 10 4p 4 B. [Ar] 4s 2 3d 9 4p 5 C. [Ar] 4s 2 3d 10 4p 3 6s 1 D. [Ar] 4s 2 3d 10 4p 5 E. [Ar] 4s 2 3d 10 4p 3

46. What ion does the ground state electron configuration [Ar] 3d 2 belong to? Select any that apply. 47. The identity of the atom or ion with the electron configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 3d 5 could be: 48. Based on the following electron configuration, what ion is likely to form? Write your answer with the charge and integer (e.g. +5). [Kr] 5s 2 4d 10 5p 5 49. Consider a hypothetical transition metal with the noble gas electron configuration below. What is the most probable charge that will form from this element? A hypothetical noble gas “Ng” is given in the brackets below. Enter your answer as an integer and charge (e.g. +5). [Ng] 10s 1 9d 10 A. Ti 2+ B. Sc 3+ C. Cr 2+ D. Mn 5+ E. Fe 3+ A. chromium in an excited state. D. chromium. B. manganese in an excited state. E. iron. C. a vanadium cation.

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50. Based on the electron configuration for silver, why does it always have a 1+ ion? A. The 4d subshell is at a higher energy than the 5s subshell, so it wants to lose one electron from 4d B. The 5s subshell is half-filled, so silver gains an electron to fill it C. The 4d subshell is one electron away from full, so silver gains an electron to fill it D. Silver only has one 5s electron to lose, resulting in a 1+ ion when it loses its highest shell E. None of the above explains why silver makes a 1+ ion 51. Hafnium (Hf) can have multiple oxidation states, such as Hf 2+ and Hf 4+ . What are the electron configurations of these ions? A. Hf 2+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 12 5d 2 Hf 4+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 10 5d 2 B. Hf 2+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 Hf 4+ : [Xe] 4f 14 C. Hf 2+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 5d 4 Hf 4+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 5d 6 D. Hf 2+ : [Xe] 4f 14 5d 2 Hf 4+ : [Xe] 4f 14 E. Hf 2+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 5d 2 6p 2 Hf 4+ : [Xe] 6s 2 4f 14 5d 2 6p 4

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52. Consider the orbital diagram illustrated below. What correction(s) should be made to the electron filling? Select any that apply. A. One of the 1s electrons should be moved to the 2s orbital B. Two of the 1s electrons should be moved to the 2s orbital (both spin up) C. Two of the 1s electrons should be moved to the 2s orbital (one spin up, one spin down) D. Two of the 2p electrons should be moved to the 2s orbital (both spin up) E. Two of the 2p electrons should be moved to the 2s orbital (one spin up, one spin down) F. One of the 1s electrons should be moved to the 3s orbital G. One of the 2p electrons should be moved to the 3s orbital H. One of the 1s electrons should be switched from spin up to spin down I. One of the 2p electrons should be switched from spin up to spin down J. There are no corrections that need to be made 53. Which of the following are true statements regarding the generic row 5 orbital diagram below? Select any that apply. A. 4d should be fully filled before starting to fill 5p B. 4d should be fully filled before starting to fill 5s C. The singly filled 4d electrons should have parallel spins D. 4f should be pictured and filled after 4d

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54. Which element in the third period of the periodic table has three valence electrons? Write the chemical symbol (e.g. He). 55. How many core electrons does chlorine have? Answer with an integer (e.g. 7). 56. Which of the following statements are true for a Ni 2+ ion? 57. How many unpaired electrons are in the following ions below? Answer with integers in the boxes below (e.g. 11). (a) Mo 4+ : (b) Ta 4+ : A. The ion is diamagnetic B. The ion is diamagnetic with one unpaired electron C. The ion is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron D. The ion is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons E. The ion is paramagnetic with three unpaired electrons F. The ion is paramagnetic with four unpaired electrons

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58. Which of the following ions below is paramagnetic? 59. Which of the following orbitals has the most total nodes? A. 1s B. 3d C. 4s D. 2p A. Sc 3+ B. Zn 2+ C. Zr 4+ D. V 3+ E. All of the options given are diamagnetic

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Formula Sheet Length 1 kilometer = 0.62137 mile 1 inch = 2.54 centimeters (exactly) 1 Å ngstrom = 1 × 10 −10 meter Energy 1 joule = 1 kg·m 2 /s 2 1 calorie = 4.184 joules 1 Calorie = 1 kilocalorie = 1000 calories 1 L·atm = 101.325 joules Pressure 1 pascal = 1 N/m 3 = 1 kg/m·s 2 1 atmosphere = 101.325 kilopascals = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr = 14.70 lb/in 2 1 bar = 1 × 10 5 Pa (exactly) Temperature 0 K = −273.15°C K = °C + 273.15 °C = (5/9)(°F − 32) Mass 1 kg = 2.205 lbs Volume 1 mL = 1 cm 3 = 1 cc Constants c = 2.998 × 10 8 m/sec h = 6.626 × 10 −34 J·sec R = 0.08206 L·atm/mol·K = 8.314 J/mol·K Specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g∙K Mass of an electron: 9.109 x 10 −31 kg Mass of a proton: 1.673 x 10 -27 kg RH = 2.18 x 10 −18 J Specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g∙K STP = 273.15 K and 1 atm Avogadro's number: 6.022 × 10 23 Equations d (density) = m/V P 1 V 1 =P 2 V 2 V 1 /T 1 =V 2 /T 2 P 1 V 1 /n 1 T 1 =P 2 V 2 /n 2 T 2 PV=nRT (P + a(n 2 /V 2 ))·(V − nb) = nRT molar mass (M) = mRT/PV density (d) = MP/RT x A = n A /n tot = P A /P tot = V A /V tot

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P tot = P A + P B + … n tot = n A + n B + … 𝜇𝜇 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = � 3 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑀𝑀 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑅𝑅𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑜𝑜𝑒𝑒 𝐴𝐴 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑅𝑅𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑜𝑜𝑒𝑒 𝐵𝐵 = � 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐵𝐵 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐴𝐴 Q = C × ΔT = c specific × m × ΔT Q = n × ΔH (kJ/mol) = m × ΔH (kJ/g) w = −PΔV ΔE = q + w ΔH° = ΣnΔHf°(products) − ΣnΔHf°(reactants) ΔH° = ΣnΔH°(bonds broken) − ΣnΔH°(bonds formed) E=hν c=λν λ = h/mv ∆𝐸𝐸 = − 2.18 × 10 −18 𝐽𝐽 ( 1 𝑒𝑒 𝑓𝑓 2 − 1 𝑒𝑒 𝑖𝑖 2 ) C g = kP g P solution =P solvent X solvent P solution =∑P j =∑P j X j ΔT b = K b m i ΔT f = K f m i π = MRT i Thermodynamic and Electrochemistry S = k b × ln( W ) k b = 1.381 × 10 −23 J/K ΔS = q rev /T ΔS surr = q surr /T = −q rev /T ΔS univ = ΔS sys + ΔS surr ΔS° rxn = Σ ν S° products − Σ ν S° reactants ΔH° rxn = Σ ν H° products − Σ ν H° reactants ΔG° rxn = Σ ν G° products − Σ ν G° reactants ΔG = ΔH – TΔS ∆ G = ∆ G° + RT∙lnQ R=8.314 J/mol.K ∆ G° = −RT∙lnK ∆ G= −nFE cell F = 96485 J/(V∙mol e − ) E° cell = RT/nF lnK E° cell = (0.0257/n) lnK = (0.0592/n) logK E cell = E° cell − (RT/nF) lnQ E cell =E° cell − (0.0257/n) lnQ Electrolysis: Q (total charge) = I × t = n × F

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Integrated Rate Laws & half-life Equilibrium and Acid / Base K P = K c × (RT) Δn pH = −log[H 3 O + ] K w = 1.0 × 10 −14 at 25 °C K w = [H 3 O + ] × [OH − ] K w = K a × K b pK a = −log[K a ] Buffer: pH = pK a + log ln 𝐾𝐾 2 𝐾𝐾 1 = ∆ 𝐻𝐻 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 ° 𝑅𝑅 ( 1 𝑇𝑇 1 − 1 𝑇𝑇 2 )

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