Practice Exam 1 Answer Key

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Tarrant County College South East *

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Chemistry

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Feb 20, 2024

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Measurement, Atoms, Elements, & Compounds These questions taken from the web resources made available from San Diego Miramar College, a member of the San Diego Community College District (SDCCD). Modifications have been made for clarity, to correct typos, and better align questions to TCC curriculum. We thank the faculty of San Diego Miramar College for making this resource available to us. Other sources include the test bank associated with the Chemistry 1406 Timberlake text. I. The Scientific Method (Optional: Not all professors cover this section!) Select the best answer to each of the following questions: 1. This is performed to verify a hypothesis or theory. A) Hypothesis B) Law C) Experiment D) Theory E) None 2. "Conservation of Energy" is an example of a(n): A) Hypothesis B) Law C) Experiments D) Theory E) None 3. How many experiments are required to prove a theory incorrect? A) All it takes is one provided the experiment is validly performed and the results are correctly interpreted. B) At least 5 out of 10 (50%) C) Three quarter (3/4) ratification before a theory goes on to the Science President for approval. D) If a theory is proven invalid by an experiment, the theory can still be correct if the experimental conditions are changed. E) A theory cannot be proven incorrect once it has become a theory. 4. Which of the following is an example of an observation? A) A gas expands when heated because the gas particles are moving faster. B) A balloon shrinks when taken outside on a very cold day. C) A balloon is placed in an ice bath and then placed in a tub of hot water. D) A balloon will be poked with a sharp object at the end of class. .E) None of the above. 5. The first step in the scientific method is ______. A) Using technology B) making observations C) forming a hypothesis D) doing experiments E) Proposing a theory

6. Which of the following is an example of a hypothesis? A) Water boils at 100°C. B) Seeds are planted in moist soil. C) Plants need sunlight to grow. D) The seeds sprouted 10 days after they were planted. E) None of the above. 7. When a match burns, heat is evolved" is an example of A) An experiment. B) A theory. C) An observation D) A law of nature. E) None of the above. 8. Which of the following is not a step in the scientific method? A) Experiment. B) Theory C) Natural phenomenon D) Observation E) all are steps in the scientific method 9. "All matter is made of tiny, indestructible particles called atoms" is an example of A) An experiment. B) A theory C) An observation D) Law of nature E) A hypothesis 10. You noticed that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n) A) Observation. B) Hypothesis C) Experiment D) Theory E) All of the above

II. Matter and Measurement Select the best answer to each of the following questions: 11. How many significant figures should there be in the answer to the following problem? (?. ? − ??. ?) × (?. 𝟕𝟗 × ?? ? ) ??𝟗 A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above 12. Which one of the following measurements contains the fewest number of significant figures? A) 0.01003 mm B) 100360 mL C) 1300 kg D) 1.00 • 10 -4 g E) all have the same number of significant figures 13. The numerator and the denominator of a conversion factor are related by: A) both numbers are equivalent to each other. B) both must have the same units C) when divided by each other it yields zero D) both must have metric units. E) none of the above 14. For a pharmacist dispensing pills, it is often easier to weigh the medication to be dispensed rather than to count the individual pill. If a single pill weighs 0.65 g and the pharmacist weigh out 15.6 g of pills, how many pills have been dispensed? A) 10 pills B) 16 pills C) 24 pills D) 50 pills E) none of the above 15. A nurse must administer the appropriate dosage of atropine sulfate to a 165-lb male patient. The dosage on the label of a bottle of atropine sulfate tablets reads 20 mg for every kilogram of body weight. If each tablet contains 0.5 grams of atropine sulfate, how many tablets are needed to give the correct dose to the patient? A) half tablet B) 1 tablet C) two tablets D) three tablets E) none of the above

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16. In a Gap in France, you decide to try on a pair of French jeans. What does a waist measurement of 52 cm correspond to in inches? A) 43 in B) 32 in C) 20. in D) 130 in E) none of the above 17. The prescribed injection of a drug is 0.17 oz. If the syringe measures volume in cubic centimeters, to what mark would you draw the drug? (29.6 mL = 1 oz) A) 0.17 cc B) 5.7 × 10 −3 cc C) 5.0 cc D) 29 cc E) not enough information 18. The daily dosage of ampicillin for treating an ear infection is 100. mg per kilogram of body weight. What is the dosage for a 22-lb. baby with an ear infection? A) 1.0 mg B) 1.0 g C) 5.0 g D) 500 mg E) none of the above 19. Which is equal to a nanometer? A) 100 Å B) 1 • 10 −9 m C) 1 • 10 9 m D) 1 • 10 9 cm E) none of the above 20. In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation? A) microgram and mg B) milliliter and mL C) centimeter and km D) gram and gm E) none of the above 21. Which one of the following measurements contains the most number of significant figures? A) 0.01003 g B) 100360 g C) 100000. g D) 10.0 • 10 −3 g E) 0.00002041 g

22. Which is not an SI Unit? A) gram B) mole C) second D) kilogram E) All of the above are SI units. 23. Which is not an English unit? A) liter B) pound C) yard D) ton E) They are all written in English. 24. Which is a derived unit? A) seconds B) mole C) calorie D) kilogram E) none of the above is a derived unit 25. "m" is the symbol for which of the following units: A) mile B) mole C) meter D) mass E) all of the above 26. A student calculates a problem on her calculator and the number 1570.2691 is shown on the display. If only four significant figures should be in the answer, what should she write as the final answer? A) 1570 B) 1570.3 C) 157 D) 1 .570 • 10 3 E) none of the above 27. Which of the following represents the highest temperature? A) 300 K B) Boiling point of water C) 250°F D) 75°C E) all of the above are equal

28. What is the number of significant figures that should be reported for the mass of a sample which is obtained by taking the difference between the mass of a sample plus beaker (125.260 g) and the mass of the beaker (124.5805 g) ? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 E) This calculation cannot be performed with only the information given. 29. Which of the following is the largest mass? A) 4.1 • 10 −6 kg B) 22 g C) 8.2 • 10 9 ng D) 3 • 10 3 mg E) 352 cg 30. In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation? A) microgram and mg B) milliliter and mL C) cubic centimeter and ccm D) gram and gm E) all of the above are correctly paired 31. How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in? A) 22 cm B) 0.0445 cm C) 145 cm D) 22.4 cm E) 140 cm 32. The measurement 0.0000043 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, is A) 4.3 × 10 −7 m B) 4 .3 × 10 −6 m C) 4.3 × 10 6 m D) 0.43 × 10 −5 m E) 43 × 10 −5 m 33. Which of the following numbers is the smallest? A) 4.0 × 10 −7 B) 8 .7 × 10 −8 C) 1.3 × 10 −2 D) 1.14 × 10 −7 E) 7.8 × 10 9

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34. Which of the following conversion factors is a measured number? A) 10 cm/dm B) 12 in/ft C) 16 oz/lb D) 25 miles/gallon E) 12 eggs/dozen 35. Which of the following numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures? A) 0.04300 5 significant figures B) 0.00302 2 significant figures C) 156000 3 significant figures D) 1.04 2 significant figures E) 3.0650 4 significant figures 36. A researcher needed three samples of sodium chloride solution, each with a volume of 0.03510 mL. The total volume needed should be reported as A) 0.105 mL B) 0.0105 mL C) 0.10 mL D) 0.1053 mL E) 0.1100 mL 37. The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is A) 13.071 g B) 13 g C) 13.0 g D) 10 g E) 13.1 g 38. Which of the following is the largest unit? A) millimeter B) micrometer C) meter D) decimeter E) kilometer 39. The cubic centimeter (cm 3 or cc) has the same volume as a A) cubic inch B) cubic liter C) milliliter D) centimeter E) cubic decimeter 40. A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeters is A) ( 1 𝑐? 15 𝑖? ) B) ( 1 𝑖?𝑐ℎ 1 𝑐? ) C) ( 2 .54 𝑐? 1 𝑖? ) D) ( 1 𝑖? 2.54 𝑐? ) E) ( 2.54 𝑐? 15 𝑖? )

III. Density and Related Calculations Select the best answer to each of the following questions: 41. A patient provided a 5.000 cm 3 urine specimen which weighed 5.125 grams. What is the specific gravity of the urine? A) 1.035 B) 0.975 C) 1.025 D) 1.000 E) none of the above. 42. Tequila has a density of 0.78 g/mL. What mass of Tequila will fill a 2.0 fluid ounce shot glass? (29.6 mL = 1 liquid ounce) A) 4.6 • 10 −6 kg B) 46 g C) 8.2 • 10 6 μg D) 3 • 10 3 mg E) none of the above 43. Calculate the volume that 3.41 grams of liquid will occupy if it has a specific gravity of 1.025? A) 3.40 mL B) 3.45 mL C) 3.50 mL D) 3.33 mL E) none of the above 44. Density of a substance may be classified as A) Physical property B) Chemical property C) Molecular weight D) Volume E) none of the above 45. Which statement about water is true: A) 8 grams of water is more dense that 4 grams of water. B) 8 grams of water has the same density as 4 grams of water. C) 8 grams of water is less dense that 4 grams of water. D) 8 grams of water contains the same moles as 4 grams of water. E) none of these statement is true. 46. The specific gravity of a solution is 1.18. Its density is A) 11.8 g / mL B) 0.118 g / mL C) 0.847 g / mL D) 1.18 g / mL E) 1.2 g / mL

47. Diamond has a density of 3.52 g/mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a diamond with a mass of 15.1 g? A) 4.3 g cc B) 4.29 cc C) 0.233 cc D) 53 cc E) 53.2 cc 48. Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg? A) 0.0257 mL B) 0.026 mL C) 25.7 mL D) 26 mL E) 4760 mL 49. A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold? A) 10.4 g / mL B) 6.77 g / mL C) 1.00 g / mL D) 0.0518 g / mL E) 19.3 g / mL 50. Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a density of 0.66 g/mL? A) table salt (density = 2.16 g/ml) B) balsa wood (density = 0.16 g/ml) C) sugar (density = 1.59 g/ml) D) aluminum (density = 2.70 g/ml) E) mercury (density = 13.6 g/ml)

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IV. Atoms and Elements Select the best answer to the following questions: 51. Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-metals? A) brittle B) dull C) malleable D) poor conductor of heat and electricity E) All of the above are characteristics of non-metals 52. Which of the following groups of elements is least reactive? A) halogens B) alkaline earth metals C) transition elements D) alkali metals E) noble gases 5 3) Which of the following is NOT a precept of Dalton’s atomic theory? A) All matter is made up of tiny particles called atoms. B) All atoms of the same element are similar to one another and different from atoms of every other element. C) Atoms of two or more elements combine to form compounds. A particular compound is always made up of the same kind of atoms in the same ratio. D) A chemical reaction involves the rearrangement, separation, or combination of atoms, but atoms themselves are never created or destroyed. E) All of the above are precepts of Dalton’s atomic theory. 54. Which element is found in its diatomic form in nature? (i.e., H 2 is a diatomic molecule) A) helium B) lithium C) nitrogen D) sulfur E) none of the above 55. Two atoms of the same element which have different mass numbers are called: A) sister atoms B) isomers C) daughters D) isotopes E) none of the above 56. A neutral subatomic particle: A) proton B) neutron C) electron D) voltron E) none of the above

57. A 14 C atom and a 15 N + atom have different numbers of: A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) protons and neutrons E) protons and electrons 58. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the ____ ____ for the atom. A) mass number B) family number C) electron number D) atomic number E) proton number 59. The sum of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of an atom is the ____ ____ for the particular atom. A) atomic number B) mass number C) isotope number D) number of moles E) valence number 60. What information cannot be determined about the following atom, given the following atomic nomenclature: 31 P A) the number of protons B) the number of neutrons C) the number of electrons D) identity of the element E) all can be determined 61. The atomic mass of chlorine (Cl) is given in the periodic table as 35.453, yet no single atom of chlorine has a mass of 35.453 amu. Which statement explains why the atomic mass of chlorine according to the periodic table is 35.453? A) This mass represents the total mass of the proton, neutron and electron for 35 Cl. B) This mass is the weighted average of all the isotopes of the chlorine atom. C) This mass is incorrect and should be changed. D) At the atomic level even the mass is quantized. E) None of these statements are correct, including this one. 62. How many electrons will calcium lose in order to combine with oxygen? A) 20 B) 8 C) 2 D) 1 E) none of the above 63. In order to form negative ions from neutral atoms: A) electrons must be gained B) electrons must be lost C) protons must be gained D) protons must be lost E) none of the above

64. An isotope of oxygen with 9 neutrons will have a mass number equal to: A) 6 B) 8 C) 16 D) 17 E) none of the above. 65. Isotopes of the same atom have different numbers of what subatomic particle? A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) photon E) none 66. An anion of oxygen with 9 neutrons and 9 electrons will have a charge of A) + 9 B) -2 C) +1 D) -1 E) none of these 67. Complete the following table: (Assume all atoms in the table below are neutral atoms.) Name Symbol Atomic # Mass # p + n o e - Phosphorus-32 𝑃 15 32 15 32 15 17 15 calcium-41 𝐶𝑎 20 41 20 41 20 21 20 Manganese-53 ?𝑛 25 53 25 53 25 28 25 Sodium-23 ?𝑎 11 23 11 23 11 12 11 68. An element with one valence electron in its outermost energy level is A) Mg B) Na C) Cl D) Al E) none 69. How many valence electrons does the phosphorus atom have? A) 7 B) 5 C) 15 D) 31 E) none

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70. Which of the following species have the same number of electrons as a noble gas? A) O 2- B) Si 4+ C) P 3- D) N 3- E) all have noble gas configurations 71. How many total electrons are in 59 Co 3+ ? A) 24 B) 27 C) 30 D) 56 E) 62 72. The electron arrangement for nitrogen is: A) 2, 7 B) 2, 5 C) 7 D) 2, 8, 5 E) 2, 8, 8, 2 73. The electron arrangement for calcium is: A) 2, 7 B) 2, 5 C) 2, 8, 2 D) 2, 8, 5 E) 2, 8, 8, 2 74. If sodium is changed to its most stable ion, how many electrons will be in its 3 rd shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 11 E) none 75. If sulfur is changed to its most stable ion, how many valence electrons will it have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) none

V. Compounds and Their Bonds Select the best answer to each of the following questions: 76. A cation has more: A) e - than p + B) p + than n C) atomic mass units than its atom D) p + than e - E) none of the above 77. Which element will combine with magnesium in a one to one ratio? A) Ca B) P C) Cl D) O E) none of the above 78. Polar covalent bonds are formed when the electrons involved in bonding A) are transferred from one atom to the other. B) are equally shared between the atoms involved in bonding. C) are excited to a higher atomic orbital. D) are unequally shared between atoms involved in bonding. E) none of the above statements are true. 79. Which elements when bonded to each other will from covalent bonds? A) argon & oxygen B) copper & carbon C) oxygen & sulfur D) potassium & cesium E) H & Na 80. Which substance below is most likely to possess covalent bonds? A) PCl 3 B) KBr C) MgF 2 D) ScCl 3 E) SiO 2 81. Which substance has ionic bonds? A) Na 2 O B) NCl 3 C) H 2 S D) CO 2 E) SiCl 4

82. What is the charge of Sn in SnO 2 ? A) l+ B) 2+ C) 4+ D) 5+ E) none 83. Which is the correct formula for iron(II) nitride? A) Fe 3 N 2 B) Ir 3 N 2 C) Fe 2 N 3 D) Ir(NO 3 ) 2 E) Fe(NO 3 ) 2 84. What is the formula of the compound formed when aluminum (Al) combines with oxygen (O)? A) AlO B) AlO 2 C) Al 2 O 3 D) Al 3 O 2 E) none of the above 85. Which is the correct formula for dihydrogen monoxide? A) O 2 H B) H(II)O C) HO 2 D) H 2 O E) H 2 O 2 86. What is the correct name for (NH 4 ) 2 CO 3 ? A) ammonia tricarbonate B) ammonium carbonate C) ammonia (II) carbonate D) diammonium monocarbonate E) diammonium tricarbonate 87. Which of the following compounds has a (III) in its name? A) PCl 3 B) O 2 F 3 C) Cr(NO 3 ) 3 D) Al 2 O 3 E) none of the above 88. Which is the correct formula for manganese(II) nitride? A) MgN B) Mg 2 N C) Mg 3 N D) Mg 3 N 2 E) none of the above

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89. Which compound has a correctly written chemical formula? A) Mg(SO 3 ) 2 B) Fe +3 (OH - ) 3 C) Cd 3 SO 3 D) (NH 4 ) 3 N E) Ar 2 I 3 90. Which compound below contains a transition metal that has a (I) oxidation state? A) Hg 2 O B) KClO C) Au 2 (CO 3 ) 3 D) Pb(IO 4 ) 4 E) none of the above 91. Consider the following compounds, i -iv, below. Which statement is true about these compounds ? i) calcium bromite ii) sodium bromate iii) sodium bromide iv) sodium bicarbonate A) The cations in these compounds all have the same charge. B) all the compounds contain a polyatomic ion. C) all anions contain the bromine atom D) three of the four are ionic E) none of the above statements are true 92. What is the most stable charge for oxygen? A) +3 B) -2 C) -3 D) -4 E) Cannot be determined 93. The name of which compound is correctly written? A) diammonium carbonate B) potassium(I) phosphide C) Tin 2 sulfide D) boron trihydride E) none of the above is correctly written 94. Which of the following will combine with tellurium in a one-to-one ratio? A) Fe(III) B) Ir(II) C) V(I) D) K E) all of these 95. What is the formula of the compound dicarbon tetrachloride? A) C 4 Cl 2 B) C 2 Cl 4 C) CCl 2 D) C 2 Cl 3 E) none of the above

Match the chemical name (#96-100) with the correct formula A through H. A) MnSO 4 B) Mg(HSO 4 ) 2 C) MgS D) MgSO 4 E) Mn 3 (SO 4 ) 2 F) MnSO 3 G) Mg(HSO 3 ) 2 H) Mn 2 (SO 4 ) 3 96. magnesium hydrogen sulfate B) Mg(HSO 4 ) 2 97. manganese(III) sulfate H) Mn 2 (SO 4 ) 3 98. magnesium sulfide C) MgS 99. mangesium sulfate D) MgSO 4 100. manganese(II) sulfate A) MnSO 4