Fundamentals AP Final Exam (1) (1)

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BIO110 FUNDAMENTALS OF ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY I FALL 2023 FINAL EXAM DECEMBER 15, 2023 NAME: _______________________________________ 1
True or False. 1. The thorax is deep to the abdominal cavity. _____ 2. Muscle is superior to veins. _____ 3. The nose is part of the ventral body cavity. _____ 4. The palm is proximal to the fingers. _____ Fill in the blanks with a correct directional term. 5. A wound that doesn’t bleed is considered a/an _______________ wound. 6. Distal is to ___________ as superior is to ___________. 7. The spinal cord is _________________ the sternum. 8. This plane divides the body into lateral bi sections. ________________ 9. The lungs are found _________________ to the ribs. 10. Name two organs that share space in the abdominal and pelvic cavity. 11. Which statement about the anatomical position is FALSE? A. palms face anteriorly. B. posture is kept erect. C. used only in the medical field. D. legs are contralateral and face forward. 12. Regarding the structural organization of the human body, the tissue level includes which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. atoms B. skin C. cells D. organs E. blood vessels 13. Organs are composed of ______________ which form ______________ ______________. 14. The abdominal cavity is divided into _____. A. quadrants B. sections C. regions D. planes 15. A patient has a gastric ulcer. In which quadrant are they experiencing pain? 2
16. Which of these relationships is correct? A. the palm is proximal to the hand. B. the heart is posterior to the spinal cavity. C. the ribs are lateral to the sternum. D. the shoulders are contralateral to the spine. 17. Ligaments are part of the _____ system. A. musculoskeletal B. muscle C. integumentary D. skeletal 18. Which choice best describes the location of the thorax? A. ventral cavity B. posterior cavity C. dorsal cavity D. superior cavity 19. Cells that form epithelial tissue are identified according to their shape and ________________. 20. What is the largest organelle within a cell? A. nucleus B. cell wall C. plasma membrane D. mitochondria E. Golgi apparatus 21. Humans have a continuous need for a constant supply of _____. A. water B. food C. oxygen D. nutrients 22. Which of the following is NOT an accurate example of homeostasis? A. maintaining blood glucose levels by releasing insulin B. contractions of the stomach and intestines during hunger C. maintaining blood pH by hyperventilating D. combating pathogens by increasing body temperature 23. The inability to expel particles brought into the lungs would indicate a problem with which type of epithelial tissue? A. stratified cuboidal B. simple columnar C. simple squamous D. stratified squamous 3
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24. The type of epithelial tissue that lines organs of the digestive system such as the small intestine. A. simple cuboidal B. simple columnar C. simple squamous D. pseudostratified cuboidal 25. The structural and functional unit of all living things is the _____. A. organelle B. atom C. cell D. nucleus 26. Compose glands that prepare and secrete glandular material. A. pseudostratified cells B. squamous cells C. columnar cells D. cuboidal cells 27. A tissue constructed of a single layer of flattened cells. A. simple squamous epithelium B. simple columnar epithelium C. simple cuboidal epithelium D. transitional epithelium 28. What is the second largest body cavity? ____________________ 29. Which layer of integument has nerve endings? _____________________ 30. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypodermis? A. protect underlying organs. B. maintain body temperature. C. supply blood to underlying muscle bed. D. source of long-term energy storage 31. To obtain a venous blood sample, a needle must penetrate the _____. A. dermis B. hypodermis C. epidermis D. all the above E. only the dermis and epidermis 32. Cardiac muscle tissue: A. is stratified and vascular B. lines the walls of vessels C. is found in the walls of the heart D. B and C 4
33. Which statement about skeletal muscle is FALSE? A. skeletal muscle allows muscle contraction B. skeletal muscle is found mainly on or around bone(s) C. skeletal muscle is under involuntary control D. skeletal muscle attaches to bone 34. Which of these organs is composed of smooth muscle? (Select all that apply) A. intestines B. heart C. uterus D. stomach E. bladder 35. What are the functions of epithelial tissue? (Select all that apply) A. sensory reception B. protection C. secretion D. absorption E. all are functions of epithelial tissue 36. What is a vertical section through the body that divides it anteriorly and posteriorly called? A. frontal B. median C. sagittal D. transverse 37. In which cavities are the lungs found? A. pleural, ventral, thoracic B. mediastinum, thoracic, ventral C. pleural, dorsal, abdominal D. pericardial, ventral, thoracic What are the four main body tissues? 38. _______________________ 39. _______________________ 40. _______________________ 41. _______________________ 42. This type of tissue binds structures and supports organs in body cavities. A. skeletal B. epithelium C. muscle D. connective 5
43. The _____ produces _____, which protects skin from the harmful effects of UV light. A. epidermis; melanocytes B. dermis; keratinocytes C. dermis; melanocytes D. epidermis; keratinocytes 44. What is an immediate threat associated with third-degree burns? A. pain B. infection C. hypothermia D. scarring 45. This type of tissue serves a critical function within the lungs because it allows the exchange of gases with little or no resistance. A. squamous epithelial tissue B. pseudostratified cuboidal tissue C. simple squamous columnar tissue D. stratified columnar tissue 46. What type of tissue has lacunae, calcium, and blood vessels? A. connective tissue B. osseous tissue C. nervous tissue D. epithelial tissue 47. Ciliated columnar epithelial tissue _____. A. lines most of the respiratory tract B. aids in digestion C. is more durable than all epithelia D. is found in all large glands E. forms the superficial layer of epidermis 48. Which is NOT associated with the integumentary system? A. nerves B. merkel cells C. hair D. glands E. blood 49. Select the pair that are matched incorrectly . A. osseous tissue – osteoblasts B. nervous tissue – basal cells C. adipocytes – subcutaneous tissue D. connective tissue – red blood cells 6
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50. Which of these actions is skeletal muscle NOT responsible for? A. blinking eyelids B. extending the limbs C. frowning D. labor contractions 51. Which tissue type is best suited as an energy source? A. smooth muscle tissue B. connective tissue C. skeletal muscle tissue D. subcutaneous tissue 52. Together, these two tissue types permit body movement. (Select two correct answers) A. fibrocartilage tissue B. epithelial tissue C. skeletal muscle tissue D. osseous tissue E. smooth muscle tissue What are three examples of connective tissue? 53. _________________________ 54. _________________________ 55. _________________________ 56. List two functions of the axial skeleton. 57. Which bone does NOT articulate with the ethmoid bone? A. sphenoid B. nasal C. maxilla D. zygomatic E. palatine F. vomer 58. The lower limbs are attached to the _____ by _____. A. axial skeleton; tendons B. appendicular skeleton; ligaments C. pelvis; ligaments D. axial skeleton; ligaments 59. Which bone is most distal? A. humerus B. carpal C. phalange 7
D. radius E. ulna 60. Which are flat bones? (Select all that apply) A. sternum B. scapulae C. temporal D. occipital E. hyoid F. ischium G. lacrimal 61. Which list has bones of the appendicular skeleton? A. patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx, tibia B. clavicle, fibula, metatarsal, phalange, radius C. humerus, scapula, occipital, metacarpal, sternum D. ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, coccyx 62. Where is the xiphoid process found? A. in the dorsal cavity B. in the thoracic cavity C. the appendicular skeleton D. superior to the mandible E. in the abdominal cavity 63. Which of the following correctly describes an epiphyseal plate? A. they are in the areas of growth in long bones B. they seal in an individual’s mid-30’s C. they enable the diaphysis of bones to grow D. they are formed by spongy bone 64. The femur articulates distally with the _____. A. fibula B. patella C. pelvic girdle D. tibia E. acetabulum 65. All the following allow us to grasp objects EXCEPT the _____. A. talus B. phalange C. carpals D. metacarpus E. phalanx 8
66. The sagittal suture: A. separates the coronal and lambdoid suture B. divides the temporal bones C. divides the parietal bones D. separates the frontal from the parietal bones 67. The clavicle articulates with the manubrium and the _____. A. sternum B. scapula C. cervical spine D. sternal body E. xiphoid process 68. Articulations that allow full range of motion. A. synovial joints B. ball-and-socket joints C. pivot joints D. gliding joints 69. Which of the following is adapted to support heavy weight? A. compact bone B. spongy bone C. trabecular bone D. bone matrix 70. Bones are lined internally with a connective tissue called _____. A. osteocytes B. osseous tissue C. endosteum D. periosteum 71. Which of these bones has foramen? (Select all that apply) A. parietal bones B. vertebrae C. occipital bone D. maxillae E. mandible 72. An articulation that closely resembles a hinge involves which two bones? A. radius and ulna B. humerus and shoulder C. femur and tibia D. femur and patella 73. Which of these bones is entirely weight bearing? A. ilium 9
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B. tibia C. fibula D. ulna E. sacrum F. all are weight-bearing 74. Moving a limb away from the vertical axis of the body is what movement? A. rotation B. extension C. adduction D. abduction 75. Which bones are short bones? (Select all that apply) A. hamate B. scaphoid C. lunate D. capitate E. vomer F. hyoid G. phalanx 76. Supination is the motion that moves the _____. A. hand from the palm down position to the palm up position B. foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body C. hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position D. body in the face up position to the face down position 77. _____ joints are only capable of side-to-side and back-and-forth movement. A. gliding B. condyloid C. hinge D. pivot 78. A physical therapist wants to improve the strength of a patient’s ankle after an injury. Which movement would be most appropriate to do this? A. adduction B. circumduction C. abduction D. dorsiflexion 79. The bones of the skull, spinal column, and thorax form the ______________ skeleton. 80. An injury of the proximal humerus would cause a patient to have the most difficulty: A. adducting the arm at the shoulder joint B. abducting the arm at the shoulder joint 10
C. flexing the carpals and metacarpals D. extending the phalanges 81. The quadriceps muscle group has how many muscles? ______ 82. Which of these muscles is NOT responsible for extending the leg? A. quadriceps B. hamstrings C. rectus femoris D. vastus lateralis E. soleus 83. The _____ and the medulla oblongata influence respiration. A. pons B. midbrain C. cerebrum D. diaphragm E. frontal lobe 84. Spinal nerves are part of the _____ nervous system. A. central B. peripheral C. autonomic D. somatic 85. Secretions from the adrenal glands cause a _____. A. parasympathetic response B. sympathetic response C. vagal response D. somatic response 86. Parasympathetic stimulation causes _____. A. decreased heart rate and no effect on blood pressure B. decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure C. increased heart rate and increased blood pressure D. increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure 87. The parietal lobe of the brain is part of the _____. A. craniofacial skeleton B. axial skeleton C. peripheral nervous system D. ventral cavity 88. Which lobe of the brain is responsible for memory? _____________________ 11
89. The _____ is divided into left and right hemispheres which are paired by the _____. A. cerebellum; corpus callosum B. brain; cerebrum C. cerebral cortex; ventricles D. cerebrum; corpus callosum 90. The deltoid muscle is named according to its _____. A. function B. location C. shape D. size 91. The meningeal layer below the subdural space is the: A. subarachnoid mater B. pia mater C. dura mater D. arachnoid mater 92. All the following are components of muscle EXCEPT: A. sarcoma B. sarcolemma C. sarcoplasm D. sarcoplasmic reticulum 93. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are divisions of the ____. A. central nervous system B. autonomic nervous system C. peripheral nervous system D. somatic nervous system 94. What is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber? A. myofibril B. sarcomere C. striations D. endomysium 95. Stimuli that reduces the heart's rate of contraction belong to this division of the nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic 96. The doctor asks the patient to follow his finger up and down, left and right. Which cranial nerve is being evaluated? A. optic nerve 12
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B. vestibulocochlear nerve C. facial nerve D. oculomotor nerve E. trigeminal 97. Which of these is purely a motor nerve? A. oculomotor B. olfactory C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. all are sensory nerves F. none are sensory nerves 98. Disorders associated with balance may involve problems with this nerve. A. abducens B. vestibulocochlear C. trigeminal D. accessory 99. The _____ nerve plexus includes spinal nerves that control arm movements. A. sacral B. cervical C. thoracic D. lumbar 100. There are ______ pair of spinal nerves and ______ pair of cranial nerves. 101. Which of these muscles plays a role in movement? (Select all that apply) A. orbicularis oculi B. flexor digitorum C. quadriceps femoris D. vastus lateralis 102. Falling, or stumbling, might involve problems with this nerve. A. abducens B. vestibulocochlear C. trigeminal D. accessory E. vagus 103. Which of these muscles contributes to dorsiflexion of the foot ? A. anterior tibialis B. occipitofrontalis C. extensor digitorum D. soleus E. vastus medialis 13
104. This connective tissue attaches muscle to bone. A. epimysium B. tendon C. ligament D. cartilage 105. Muscle tissue that contracts involuntarily. A. skeletal muscle only B. cardiac muscle only C. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle D. smooth muscle only E. cardiac muscle and smooth muscle 106. A muscle found on the dorsal side of the body is the: A. biceps brachii B. rectus femoris C. temporalis D. latissimus dorsi E. sternocleidomastoid 107. The neurologist asks the patient to open his mouth and say “Ah.” At the same time, he touches the posterior aspect of the patient’s tongue with a tongue depressor, triggering the gag reflex. What cranial nerves (CN) are being assessed? A. CN 4 and 7 B. CN 9 and 10 C. CN 12 and 5 D. CN 7 and 6 108. Select ALL the bones that are in the axial skeleton. A. clavicle B. scapula C. atlas D. vomer E. lunate F. sacrum G. ischium H. rib I. hyoid J. patella 109. “Growth plates” are located at the _____ of _____ bones. A. diaphysis; long B. epiphysis; long C. diaphysis; short D. ends; short E. center; long 14
110. Select ALL the bones from the list below that are part of the appendicular skeleton. A. scaphoid B. cuneiform C. xiphoid process D. pubis E. fibula F. clavicle G. calcaneus H. manubrium I. hyoid J. sphenoid THE ANSWER KEY TO THIS FINAL EXAM WILL BE AVAILABLE ON BLACKBOARD AT 3:00 PM TODAY. FINAL GRADES WILL BE POSTED TO YOUR TRANSCRIPT BEFORE MIDNIGHT THIS FRIDAY. ALL GRADES ARE FINAL. GOOD LUCK TO YOU, BE WELL, & STAY IN SCHOOL. 15
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