D311 Section 2 MC Activity micrbiology

docx

School

Western Governors University *

*We aren’t endorsed by this school

Course

MICROBIOLO

Subject

Biology

Date

Apr 3, 2024

Type

docx

Pages

Uploaded by GrandTreeRam27

D311: Microbiology with Lab: A Fundamental Approach Lesson Quizzes Section 2 – Microbial Environments These are the questions for the lesson quizzes and section tests from the course material. Please answer the questions, but also for each answer choice, explain why the choice is correct or incorrect. For example, if the answer is B, please explain why B is correct and why choices A, C, and D are incorrect, for each question. This will give you extra practice with the material, which will help with synthesis and retention. Please watch the following videos to help you explain each answer choice for Lesson 1. The Rhizosphere Section 2 Lesson 1 Quiz 1. What is a characteristic of rhizospheres? a. The rhizosphere is where microbes that survive well in extremely acidic conditions reside. – Microbes that survive in extremely acidic conditions are called extremophiles. b. The rhizosphere is where microbes that survive well on humans reside. – Microbes that survive on the human body are part of the human microbiome. c. The rhizosphere is where microbes that survive well in the cold reside. – Microbes that survive well in the cold are psychrophiles. d. The rhizosphere is where plants release organic compounds that can be metabolized by microbes into soil. – The rhizosphere is an area around plant roots where plants release organic compounds to recruit helpful microbes that convert minerals, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, into forms that plants can absorb. 2. Which environment would contain microbes that are psychrophilic?

a. Deep-sea hydrothermal vents – Deep-sea hydrothermal vents contain thermophilic extremophiles, not psychrophiles. b. Glaciers – Psychrophiles require extremely cold environments to grow. c. Human gut – The human gut contains microbes that grow at body temperature but psychrophiles are not present in the human gut. d. Irradiated food – Extremophiles can survive radiation, but psychrophiles cannot. 3. What is the role of nematodes in soil? a. They prey on only soil bacteria. – This is the role of protists in soil. b. They decompose dead and decaying biomass. -This is not the role of nematodes in soil. c. They prey on bacteria, smaller nematodes, fungi, and even plant roots. – Nematodes prey on bacteria, smaller nematodes, fungi, and even plant roots. d. They photosynthesize and fix nitrogen. -This is the role of diazotrophs in soil. 4. Which eukaryote is responsible for producing antibiotics to ward off bacterial competitors? a. Nematodes – Nematodes are not competitors. In some environments eat bacteria. b. Tardigrades – Tardigrades are extremophiles that can survive high temperature, extreme dehydration, atmospheric pressure, and radiation. Tardigrades are not competitors. c. Helminths – Exposure to helminths may regulate immune function. Helminths are not competitors. d. Fungi – Fungi must often ward off bacteria competitors, so they are frequent sources of antibiotics such as penicillin.

Please watch the following videos to help you explain each answer choice for Lesson 2. (Note: Some of the videos refer to an older version of the course “C453”. The topics they cover do not differ from the current material, but references to the previous course may be made.): Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease Stages Reservoirs and Transmission of Pathogens Section 2 Lesson 2 Quiz 1. Which symbiotic relationship is an example of mutualism? a. The relationship between humans and Candida albicans of the vagina – This relationship is considered an example of parasitism because candida albicans causes a disease in the human host. b. The relationship between germinating Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus anthracis endospores in the soil – This relationship, in which either partner is affected in any way, is neutralism. c. The relationship between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Propionibacterium acnes and other bacteria on the skin – This relationship, in which staphylococcus epidermis and Propionibacterium acnes produce compounds that harm other species while remaining unaffected, is amensalism. d. The relationship between humans and the Escherichia coli colonizing the human gut – This relationship, in which both partners benefit from the interaction, is mutualism. 2. Which type of symbiotic relationship exists between the Escherichia coli ( E. coli ) that inhabit the human gut and the humans who utilize the vitamin K produced by E. coli ? a. Commensalism – Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and the other species remains unaffected. b. Mutualism – Noth E. coli and humans benefit from the mutualistic relationship. E. coli absorbs nutrients from the human gut and in turn produces vitamin K as a by product.

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

Humans absorb the vitamin K, which plays a role in bone metabolism and blood clotting. c. Parasitism – Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and the other species is harmed. d. Neutralism – Neutralism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither species is harmed or benefits. 3. Which description of resident microbiota is true? a. Resident microbiota are always parasites. – Parasites are transient microbiota that cause disease when they live in or on the host. b. Resident microbiota temporarily live on the human body. – This describes transient microbiota, which temporarily live on the human body. c. Resident microbiota of the mouth contain only a few species. – In the human mouth, there are thousands of commensal or mutualistic species of bacteria. d. Resident microbiota constantly live on the human body. – Resident microbiota of the human body constantly live in or on the human body. 4. Which relationship is exhibited by intestinal Escherichia coli and their human host? a. Amensalism – Amensalism requires that one of the symbionts is harmed. b. Parasitism – Parasitism requires that one symbiont succeed by living off of the other. c. Commensalism – Commensalism requires that one of symbionts receives no benefit. d. Mutualism – E. coli produces necessary vitamin K and helps absorb water from the colon for the human host. The human provides a protected environment and food.

Please watch the following video to help you explain each answer choice for Lessons 3-5.(Note: Some of the videos refer to an older version of the course “C453”. The topics they cover do not differ from the current material, but references to the previous course may be made.): Reservoirs and Transmission of Pathogens COVID-19 is a zoonotic disease Why Superbugs Thrive Innate and Adaptive Immunity Types of Immunity Section 2 Lesson 3 Quiz 1. Which type of disease is transmitted from animals to humans? a. Zoonotic diseases – Zoonotic diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. b. Iatrogenic diseases – Diseases that are contracted as the result of a medical procedure are known as iatrogenic diseases. c. Noncommunicable diseases – Diseases that are not transmitted from one person to another are noncommunicable diseases. d. Nosocomial diseases – Diseases acquired in hospital settings are known as nosocomial diseases. 2. Which type of disease is acquired in hospital settings? a. Zoonotic diseases – Zoonotic diseases are transmitted from animals to humans. b. Noncommunicable diseases – A disease that is not transmitted from one person to another is a noncommunicable disease. c. Nosocomial diseases – Diseases acquired in hospital settings are known as nosocomial diseases. d. Iatrogenic diseases – Diseases that are contracted as the result of a medical procedure are known as iatrogenic diseases.

3. Which portal of exit can expel the most viral particles? a. Urogenital – Urine, semen, and vaginal secretions can all serve as vehicles for a pathogen to leave the body, but they expel fewer particles than other vehicles. b. Skin – Tears, sweat, and shedding skin cells can serve as vehicles for a pathogen to leave the body, but they expel fewer particles than other vehicles. c. Respiratory - Coughing and sneezing can expel pathogens from the respiratory trac. A single sneeze can send thousands of virus particles into the air. d. Gastrointestinal – Feces can serve as a vehicle for a pathogen to leave the body, but the expel fewer particles than other vehicles. 4. Which type of disease is sickle cell anemia? a. Infectious – Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens. Sickle cell anemia is a result of genetics. b. Zoonotic – Zoonotic diseases are transmitted to humans by animals. c. Contagious – Contagious diseases are easily spread from person to person. Sickle cell anemia is not contagious. d. Noninfectious – Sickle cell anemia is a result of genetics. It is not transmitted by an infectious agent. Section 2 Lesson 4 Quiz 1. Which type of transmission occurs when tuberculosis is spread through small particles expelled by a cough? a. Droplet transmission – Droplet transmission occurs when a pathogen is transferred in droplets of mucus in a sneeze or cough that land on the new host within a radius of one meter. b. Indirect contact transmission – Indirect contact transmission involves the transmission of pathogens via nonliving objects. c. Vehicle transmission - Vehicle transmission involves the transfer of pathogen between hosts via contaminated food. Water, or air.

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

d. Vector-borne transmission – Vector-borne transmission occurs when the agent is transmitted by an insect or other animal. 2. Which type of transmission occurs when pathogens are spread from mother to child during breastfeeding? a. Droplet transmission – This type of direct contact transmission occurs when a pathogen is transferred in droplets of mucus from a sneeze or cough that land on the new host within a radius of one meter. b. Vertical direct contact transmission – Vertical direct contact transmission occurs when pathogens are transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy, birth, or breastfeeding. c. Vehicle transmission – This is transfer of a pathogen between hosts via contaminated food, water, or air. d. Airborne transmission – This occurs when the agent is transmitted by particles suspended in the air. 3. Which type of transmission occurs when an arthropod carries a viral pathogen inside of its body? a. Mechanical vector transmission – Mechanical transmission occurs when a living organism, such as an arthropod, carries a viral pathogen on the outside of its body. b. Biological vector transmission – Biological transmission occurs when a living organism, such as an arthropod, carries a viral pathogen inside of its body. c. Contact transmission – Contact transmission is the movement of a pathogen between hosts due to contact. d. Vehicle transmission - Vehicle transmission is the transfer of a pathogen between hosts via contaminated food, water, or air. 4. Which type of transmission occurs through contact with a fomite? a. Mechanical transmission - Mechanical transmission is the transfer of a pathogen between hosts by a mechanical vector. b. Vehicle transmission – Vehicle transmission is the transfer of a pathogen between hosts via contaminated food, water, or air.

c. Biological transmission - Biological transmission is the transfer of a pathogen between hosts by a biological vector. d. Indirect contact transmission - Indirect contact transmission is the transfer of an infectious agent between hosts through contact with a fomite. Section 2 Lesson 5 Quiz 1. Which infected host would be considered a passive carrier? a. A dog showing aggressive behavior and foaming at the mouth after being bitten by a rabid animal – A dog who is showing aggressive behavior and foaming at the mouth after being bitten by a rabid animal is an active carrier. b. A person with mild cold symptoms who does not cover their sneeze with a cloth or sleeve – This person would be considered an active carrier because they show signs of disease. c. A cook who is infected with a gastrointestinal pathogen but has no signs or symptoms – This person would be considered an asymptomatic carrier because they can carry and transmit the disease without any signs or symptoms. d. A healthcare professional who does not wash their hands after seeing an infected patient – A healthcare professional who does not wash their hands after seeing an infected patient would passively carry the pathogen on their hands and could transmit it to another patient or themselves. 2. How is Giardia lamblia , the causative agent of giardiasis, transmitted? a. Exposure to infected domesticated livestock – Domesticated livestock are not known reservoirs of Giardia lamblia, which survives in an environments by forming cysts. b. Contaminated food or water – Giardia lamblia is transmitted through food or water that has been contaminated by feces. c. The inhalation of infected aerosols – Inhalation of infected aerosols is a mode of transmission for respiratory infections.

d. The bite of an infected flea – Giardia Lamblia does not require a flea host for transmission. 3. Which organism is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii ? a. Mice – Toxoplasma gondii does not reproduce in mice. b. Cats – Toxoplasma gondii reproduces only in cats, which makes them its definitive host. c. Birds – Toxoplasma gondii does not reproduce in birds. d. Humans – Toxoplasma gondii does not reproduce in humans. 4. Which disease is transmitted by animals but not arthropods? a. West Nile encephalitis – West Nile encephalitis is transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito. b. Chagas disease – Chagas disease is transmitted when the infected feces of a triatomine bug are rubbed into the bite wound when scratched. c. Leishmaniasis – Leishmaniasis is transmitted through the bite of an infected sand fly. d. Rabies – Rabies is often transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected animal. Please watch the following video to help you explain each answer choice for Lessons 6 and 7. (Note: Some of the videos refer to an older version of the course “C453”. The topics they cover do not differ from the current material, but references to the previous course may be made.): Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease Stages Stages of Infection Section 2 Lesson 6 Quiz 1. How can adhesins be described? a. Adhesins are found inside pathogen cells to help break down a host's cells. – This describes digestive enzymes, which can be found in both pathogens and host cells. Digestive enzymes are commonly found in the lysosome. b. Adhesins are found on the surface of host cells to recognize foreign cells such as pathogens.- This describes receptor

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

proteins, which can help the host cells detect pathogens. Sometimes pathogens take advantage of them to enter host cells. c. Adhesins are found in portals of entry as a host's defense against pathogens. – This describes mucosal membranes, which are a physical protection mechanism of the human body. d. Adhesins found on the surface of pathogens bind to receptors of host cells . – Adhesins are molecules that help pathogens physically attach themselves to the host. They are present in bacteria, protozoa and viruses. 2. Which description indicates a portal of entry? a. Cellular transport proteins, such as transporters, symporters, and antiporters – Transporters, symporters, and antiporters are transmembrane proteins involved in the regulation of molecule concentrations in a cell. b. A mode of pathogen exposure, such as infected animals, food, air, or water – This describes reservoirs or carriers of disease. c. A route that a pathogen takes when it shifts from a local infection and spreads – This describes a focal infection in which the pathogen causes infection in one location and then spreads it to a secondary location. d. Body features through which pathogens can enter host tissue – A portal of entry is an anatomical feature of the body through which pathogens can enter host tissue. 3. Pathogens produce proteins to prevent the fusion of the phagosome and the lysosome (phagolysosome). Why does this virulence factor facilitate invasion? a. It induces the production of adhesions. – This describes a virulence factor to aid in the process of adhesion, not invasion. b. It allows the pathogen to transport the host cell within its membrane. – This process occurs in the host cell, not in the pathogen. The phagosome and lysosome are present in the host cell that the pathogen is trying to invade.

c. It prevents the exposure of pathogens to lethal digestive enzymes. – Phagocytes kill pathogens through digestive enzymes present in the lysosome. The prevention of the formation of the phagolysosome means the pathogen can survive and multiply either in the phagosome or in the host’s cytoplasm. d. It initiates apoptosis or controlled cell suicide of the host cell. – Apoptosis is a controlled way to kill infected host cells and occurs irrespective of the phagolysosome. 4. Which action refers to a secondary infection? a. An infection by one pathogen enables another pathogen to cause an infection . – A secondary infection is one where a different pathogen is able to cause an infection by taking advantage of an already existing primary infection. b. Pathogens are transmitted from one infected individual to another. – This describes transmission whereby the pathogenesis cycle begins again in another host with exposure to the infected host. c. Pathogens enter host cells to infect and reproduce. – This describes invasion, which is a stage of pathogenesis but is not considered a defining part of producing a secondary infection. d. A localized pathogen spreads infection to other locations. – A focal infection can circulate to other parts of the body. Section 2 Lesson 7 Quiz 1. What differentiates signs from symptoms of disease? a. Signs are usually mild; symptoms are more severe. – While both are consequences of pathogens, signs and symptoms are not interchangeable. b. Signs are short-term; symptoms can become chronic. – Neither signs nor symptoms are defined by their duration. c. Signs are measurable; symptoms are subjective. – Signs are quantifiable, and there are tools to measure them ( e.g. body

temperature, heart rate). Symptoms are subjective and can be biased by the patients’ memory (e.g. pain, nausea, appetite). d. Signs precede infection; symptoms occur during infection. – Both signs and symptoms are a consequence of successful infection by a pathogen. 2. Which procedure does a clinician use to measure a symptom? a. Detecting antibodies in the patient's blood – This is quantifiable and is measured through blood tests. It is considered a sign rather than a symptom or disease. b. Taking a patient's blood pressure – Blood pressure can be measured, so this would be measuring a sign rather than a symptom of disease. c. Asking patients to rate pain on a numerical scale – While symptoms are subjective and cannot be quantified, asking a patient to rank their level of discomfort is a way that a clinician can gauge the severity and urgency of the matter qualitatively. d. Checking the patient's breathing rate – This can easily be counted and is, therefore, measurable. It is a sign rather than a symptom of disease. 3. During which stage of an infection does a patient feel the worst? a. The convalescent stage – This is the stage when a patient is feeling better as symptoms decline. b. The prodromal stage – The prodromal stage is when the very first symptoms occur. Patients may experience mild discomfort or headaches. c. The period of illness stage – During the period of illness stage, the pathogen is multiplying at its highest levels and exhibits its greatest toxicity. This stage is marked by a fever and other signs and symptoms. During this stage, a patient really knows they are sick. d. The incubation stage – A patient would not yet know they had been exposed or infected at this time.

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

4. What defines the end of the incubation period for an infectious disease? a. The return to normal function by the patient – This is the fifth and final stage of acute disease and is known as the period of convalescence. b. The induction of a dormant, nonreplicative state of the pathogen – This can occur after an acute infection in pathogens that can cause latent diseases. The pathogen can remain dormant with risk of reactivating acute infection. c. The appearance of nonspecific signs or symptoms of disease – During the incubations period, the pathogen is multiplying within the host. However, signs and symptoms are not observable. The appearance of signs and symptoms defines the beginning of the prodromal period. d. The decline in symptoms – The decline in symptoms coincides with the decrease in pathogen particles and is known as the decline period. This occurs after the period of illness. Please watch the following video to help you explain each answer choice for Lesson 8. Innate and Adaptive Immunity Immune System Part 1 How does your immune system work? Leukocyte Extravasion Leukocyte Rolling White Blood Cell Chases Bacteria Immune System Why do you get a fever... Section 2 Lesson 8 Quiz 1. How does the epidermis help prevent infection and disease? a. It provides a harsh environment for most pathogens and periodically sheds. – The epidermis consists mostly of dead cells made of keratin, which is resistant to bacterial enzymes. Moreover, the shedding of the epidermis removes any potential microbes that may be on the skin.

b. It contains fatty tissue with blood and lymph vessels to help fight pathogens. – The epidermis refers to the outermost layer of skin, which does not have receptors. Most of the cells in the epidermis are dead. c. It contains digestive enzymes to break down pathogens before they enter the body. – The epidermis is not primarily made of active cells. Rather it is composed of mostly dead cells. Cells that provide protection from pathogens through digestive enzymes are called leukocytes. d. It recognizes pathogens that have previously caused an illness. – The epidermis is not primarily made of active cells. Rather it is composed of mostly dead cells. Cells that provide protection from pathogens through digestive enzymes are called leukocytes. 2. How does the complement system contribute to the innate immune response? a. It is composed of monocytes, including macrophages and dendritic cells, that engulf and destroy pathogens. – Macrophages and dendritic cells are the types of monocytes and are also part of the innate immune response, but they do not compose the complement system. b. It is composed of the phagosome and the lysosome, which fuse to make the phagolysosome, and exposes pathogens to digestive enzymes. – Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) are nonspecific, meaning they also contribute to the innate immune response. They are not synthesized by the complement system, however. c. It is composed of proteins that can be activated by the presence of pathogens to form the membrane attack complex (MAC). – The group of plasma proteins act as sensors for pathogens or mediators between innate and adaptive responses. Once activated, the complement proteins assemble into a membrane attack complex (MAC), which polymerizes pores in the membrane of gram-negative bacteria. d. It is composed of lymphocytes that recognize and destroy cells that are abnormal in some way. – The group of plasma proteins

act as sensors for pathogens or mediators between innate and adaptive responses. Once activated, the complement proteins assemble into a membrane attack complex (MAC), which polymerizes pores in the membranes of gram-negati8ve bacteria. 3. Why are antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) considered an innate immune function? a. AMPs are found only in mucosal membranes. – AMPs are found in mucosal membranes but are also found in the skin and other parts of the body. b. AMPs are agents synthesized to target and damage specific pathogens. – AMPs are nonspecific and can target a wide variety of pathogens. c. AMPs damage pathogens by producing digestive enzymes. – APMs damage pathogens through damage to cell membranes, DNA and RNA and prevention of cell wall synthesis. d. AMPs are produced both routinely and as a response to pathogens. – AMPs damage pathogens through damage to cell membranes, DNA and RNA and prevention of cell wall synthesis. 4. Which terms refer to monocytes when they differentiate into tissue- specific phagocytes? a. Macrophages and dendritic cells – Macrophages and dendritic cells can reside in body tissues for significant lengths of time. Not only do they provide immune protection for the tissue in which they reside, but they also support normal function of neighboring tissue cells through the production of cytokines. They are considered the bridge between innate and adaptive immune responses. b. Basophils and mast cells – Mast cells are similar in origin and function to basophils but reside in tissues. They are granulocytes, not monocytes.

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

c. Granulocytes and lymphocytes – Granulocytes and lymphocytes are not types of monocytes, rather they are categories of white blood cells. Like monocytes. d. Neutrophils and eosinophils – Granulocytes and lymphocytes are not types of monocytes, rather they are categories of white blood cells, like monocytes. Please watch the following video to help you explain each answer choice for Lessons 9 and 10. Infectious Diseases... Section 2 Lesson 9 Quiz 1. What is specifically being reported if the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reports 10,000 new cases of COVID-19? a. Incidence – The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases during a selected time period, usually expressed per 100,000. b. Morbidity rate – The morbidity rate is the number of infected people, normalized by a selected population size. c. Prevalence – The prevalence of a disease is the total number of infected people at any given time, usually expressed per 100,000. d. Mortality rate – The mortality rate is the number of deaths resulting from a disease, usually normalized per 100,000 people. 2. What is the difference between prevalence and incidence? a. Prevalence refers to the total number of infections; incidence refers only to new cases. – Prevalence is the total number of infections at any given time, and incidence considers only new cases within a selected time frame. b. Prevalence refers to total deaths; incidence refers to normalized deaths. – Total deaths, weather normalized or not, are described by mortality and mortality rates.

c. Prevalence refers to total deaths; incidence refers to new deaths. – The terms prevalence and incidence are not specific to deaths. The lethality of a disease is characterized by mortality. d. Prevalence is the total number of infections; incidence is normalized by a selected population size. – Prevalence does refer to the total number of infections, but when normalized by a selected population size, it is still considered prevalence. 3. Which term refers to a disease that occurs on a worldwide scale at a given time? a. Epidemic – An endemic disease becomes epidemic when the number of cases is significantly higher than what is expected during an endemic. Epidemics are associated with a particular geographic region. b. Pandemic – A pandemic disease is an epidemic that occurs on a worldwide scale. c. Sporadic – sporadic diseases are not constrained by geographical location, but they are rare and scattered in location. d. Endemic – Endemic diseases occur within a specific susceptible geographical region, often at low levels. 4. Why are etiologic agents significant to epidemiologists? a. Etiologic agents provide a cure for an epidemic or pandemic. – This statement describes treatment agents such as antibiotics and antivirals. b. Etiologic agents are the protective measures that civilians take to mitigate the spread of disease. – This statement describes preventative measures, which vary depending on the mode of transmission (airborne, waterborne, foodborne, etc.) c. Etiologic agents help define whether a disease is on the endemic, epidemic, or pandemic scale. – Endemic, epidemic, or

pandemic levels are defined by the prevalence, incidence and geographic region affected by a disease. d. Etiologic agents are the pathogens that cause disease. – When studying a disease, an epidemiologist’s first task is to determine the cause, or the etiologic agent. Section 2 Lesson 10 Quiz 1. Which kind of diseases must be reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in order to prevent future pandemics? a. Notifiable diseases – Notifiable disease must be reported by all physicians operating in the united states. b. Contagious diseases – Being contagious is not a prerequisite to be monitored by the CDC. Treatable diseases not thought to pose a threat to public health are not monitored. c. Airborne diseases – Being airborne is not a prerequisite for a disease to be monitored by the CDC. Many waterborne and zoonotic diseases are also monitored. d. Foreign diseases – The infective dose, mortality rate, and transmission are parameters used to decide whether a disease should be monitored. Its origin its not. 2. How does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) obtain the latest data on typical illnesses to publish in the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)? a. Through mandatory reporting of all viruses by healthcare providers – The CDC does not require healthcare providers to report all viral infections because this would be and overwhelming amount of data. Moreover, the MMWR is not limited to viruses. b. Through mandatory reporting of all the direct treatments that it performs on patients – Public health regulatory agencies, such as the CDC, do not typically treat patients. c. Through mandatory reporting of notifiable disease cases by healthcare providers – Because the MMWR is a weekly report of cases throughout the country, it provides information on new

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

cases, meaning incidence of notifiable diseases. Also, By reporting the total number of cases in the country, the prevalence of notifiable diseases is derived. d. Through mandatory reporting done at local public briefings by local city officials – Mandatory reporting at local public briefings is not the method generally used by the CDC to accumulate its data. 3. What can cause an infectious disease to become a reemerging disease? a. The responsible pathogen can evade the innate immune system. - A pathogen’s pathogenesis cycle or virulence factors are not taken into account when considering whether a disease is reemerging. b. The responsible pathogen is able to facilitate a secondary infection. – Secondary infections are typically due to opportunistic pathogens taking advantage of an existing infection. However, this alone is not a prerequisite for reemerging diseases. c. The responsible pathogen becomes drug resistant. – Becoming drug-resistant can cause a known disease that was previously thought to be treatable to have an increase in prevalence. This makes it reemerging, and this has occurred with resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus and tuberculosis. d. The responsible pathogen is new to the human population and has shown an increase in prevalence in the previous 20 years. – This explains emerging diseases. However, even after the decline of prevalence due to some intervention, the same disease can spike in prevalence and become reemerging. 1. What does the World Health Organization (WHO) do to prevent future pandemics? a. The WHO writes laws and regulations to limit exposure risk, such as with drinking quality parameters. – The WHO writes suggestions on this type of regulation but does not have the jurisdiction to enforce this in a country. However, some

countries with limited public health resources look to the WHO as a trusted sources of information when writing regulations. b. The WHO maintains a global alert and response system from data from multiple countries. – Maintaining reports of infections from around the world is an effective ay to prevent future pandemics. If the WHO notices a sudden rise in infections, it can work to control it at a local level before it spreads across the world. c. The WHO treats patients suffering from emerging infectious diseases around the world.- The WHO often provides support to local medical authorities, particularly in developing countries or in cases of emergency. However, the organization does not directly treat patients. d. The WHO performs cutting-edge research on the world's untreatable diseases. - The WHO provides funding and support for this type of research and publishes it, but it does not perform the research Section 2 Test- Don’t forget to review the videos linked above the lesson quizzes. 1. A patient taking the antibiotic cephalexin for a urinary tract infection developed severe diarrhea two days after completing the five-day course of treatment. What is an explanation for the development of this patient's diarrhea? a. Cephalexin caused a hypersensitivity type 1 reaction. b. Cephalexin interfered with colonic absorption of water. c. Cephalexin induced the development of Crohn disease. d. Cephalexin disrupted the normal intestinal microbiome. 2. Store-bought, packaged soil used to promote rapid plant growth was accidentally irradiated, thus killing the bacteria that had been in the soil. Which impact would this have on farmers? a. Plants would thrive extraordinarily, growing to twice their expected size.

b. Plants would die due to a lack of absorbable forms of nitrogen and phosphorus. c. Plants would yield tasteless, small vegetables due to a concurrent lack of carbon dioxide. d. Plants would be small due to limited water retention by the soil. 3. A hospital infection preventionist has instituted a policy to prevent nosocomial infections. Which guideline is an effective component of this policy? a. Healthcare personnel must wear personal protective equipment at all times. b. Healthcare personnel must use medications only from multiuse vials. c. Healthcare personnel must use electronic medical records versus paper medical records. d. Healthcare personnel must step in footbaths prior to entering a patient's room. 4. A family and its dog were hiking and swimming in the woods. Two days later, each family member developed a large bull's-eye lesion on their arm, and the dog became anorexic and lethargic. Which control measure will be helpful to prevent the development of a future infection caused by the same microorganism? a. The family members and the dog get vaccinated against the causative microorganism. b. The family uses a citronella candle to keep the disease vector away. c. The family hikes and swims in the early evening when the disease vector is inactive. d. The family immediately checks themselves and the dog for ticks after returning home.

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

5. A veterinarian diagnoses a dog with a zoonotic bacterial infection. Which precautions should the veterinarian advise for the caretaker? a. Give medication to prevent liver failure b. Do not bathe the dog c. Wash hands after touching the dog d. Maintain flea and tick control 6. Viral epidemics concern public health department officials because some infected people do not show signs or symptoms of infection, whereas others have prolonged prodromal periods. What should public health officials do to minimize these causes for concern? a. Seek guidance from thought leaders b. Inform the public that symptoms will develop quickly c. Test people who are asymptomatic d. Request that people report whether they have traveled 7. A contagious respiratory feline virus may reactivate a latent infection months to years after an initial infection. Which implication does this have for the management of cats in animal shelters? a. Cats entering the shelter should be isolated from other sheltered cats. b. Cats should receive an antiviral to prevent a latent infection from developing. c. Cats can interact without concern. d. Cats should not receive a vaccine that includes antigens from this virus. 8. Two spouses present to the emergency department because of difficulty swallowing, facial weakness on both sides of the face, and trouble breathing after consumption of spaghetti sauce made from canned tomatoes. The physician is aware of reports of similarly affected patients in nearby communities. What should be the physician's next step after treating these patients?

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

a. Prescribe an anti-inflammatory medication b. Contact the state department of public health c. Put on a hazmat suit d. Quarantine them in the exam room 9. The varicella-zoster virus (chicken pox) is endemic in the United States. What should physicians do to optimally minimize the risk of disease due to this virus? a. Practice good hand hygiene b. Do nothing to minimize infection with this virus c. Expose individuals naive to the virus to infected individuals d. Vaccinate those who have not already had chicken pox 10. Miami-Dade County public health officials confirmed transmission of Zika virus by the local Aedes aegypti mosquito, but the virus had been previously transmitted by mosquitoes only in Latin America and South America, where the virus is endemic. What can be done to mitigate the spread of the Zika virus so that it does not become endemic in the United States? a. Remove outdoor objects that may accumulate water because they serve as mosquito reservoirs b. Check for mosquitoes on the skin and remove them prior to going indoors c. Use a sunscreen product because it is also effective as a mosquito repellent d. Spend time outdoors only in the early morning and early evening when mosquitoes are less active

Your preview ends here

Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version

Access to all documents
Unlimited textbook solutions
24/7 expert homework help

D311 Section 2 MC Activity micrbiology

Related Documents