midterm-review
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Midterm Review
Animal Disorders (University of Guelph)
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Midterm Review
Animal Disorders (University of Guelph)
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MIDTERM REVIEW
1.
Which of the following is not a sign of a stressed herd?
a)
Decreased Productivity
b)
Decreased Product Quality
c)
Increased Risk of Disease
d)
Increased Profit
2.
Which of the following best describes stressors?
a)
Something that disrupts homeostasis in an organism and in doing so elicits a stress response
b)
A physical threat
c)
A psychological threat
d)
All of the above
3.
Where does the perception of a stressor occur?
a)
Spinal Cord
b)
Sensory Input
c)
Brain
d)
Stress Response
4.
What does the variance in an individual's stress response come from?
a)
Genetics
b)
Environment
c)
Epigenetics
d)
A sum of all the above
5.
BMAL1 is what type of transcription factor?
a)
Clockwork
b)
Stresser
c)
Mutation
d)
Sex determining
6.
Which of the following is the best stress biomarker?
a)
GC
b)
Catecholamines
c)
ACTH
d)
A panel
7.
Which of the following do we not look for in a biomarker?
a)
Sensitive
b)
Low throughput analysis
c)
Economical
d)
Assay developed
8.
Which of the following is true?
a)
HPA axis is activated immediately and peaks within minutes, SAM pathway is delayed and peaks
within hours
b)
HPA Axis involves the hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal medulla
c)
SAM Axis involves hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal cortex
d)
SAM axis is activated immediately and peaks within minutes, HPA pathway is delayed and peaks
within hours
9.
In Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla, Ach binding to NiAchR triggers release of catecholamines.
These catecholamines are synthesized here from L-tyrosine. Which of the following enzymes converts
NEPI to EPI?
a)
PC1
b)
CYP
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c)
PNMT
d)
3B-HSD
10.
Why might Aashna scream when a balloon pops but Caileigh not be bothered?
a)
Stress response is activated during a perceived threat. Based on environmental, genetic and
epigenetic factors each person is prone to a different response.
b)
Aashnas brain perceived it as a threat
c)
Caileigh's brain did not perceive it as a threat
d)
All of the above
11.
Which of the following best describes what a biomarker is?
a)
Blood test
b)
Measurable indicator of a physiological state of interest
c)
Always a measure of stress
d)
Measurable indicator of a physical state of interest
12.
Bamboo bending in a severe storm but bouncing back to its original form after the storm is an example of
what?
a)
Adaptation
b)
Evolution
c)
Resilience
d)
Genetics
13.
What effects would keeping a pitbull in a family apartment have?
a)
No effect
b)
Likely a mismatch to environment which can lead to stress
c)
Improved health
d)
No stress
14.
Which of the following is true regarding the stress response axises?
a)
Bidirectional communication between the two ad shared adrenals
b)
No communication
c)
SAM can communicate with HPA only
d)
HPA can communicate with SAM only
15.
Put the following steps of the Sympathetic Adrenal Medulla (SAM) axis in order:
I.
Stress induces immediate release of Ach from sympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the adrenal
medulla
II.
Catecholamines use alpha and beta adrenergic receptors to medicate their response.
III.
Ach binds to NiAchR on chromaffin cells which triggers secretion of vesicles containing NE and
EPI (catecholamines)
a)
I, II, III
b)
I, III, II
c)
II, I, III
d)
III, II, I
16.
Which of the following hormones is primarily secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a)
Acetylcholine (Ach)
b)
Norepinephrine
c)
Epinephrine
d)
Glucocorticoids
17.
Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating basal catecholamine concentrations?
a)
Melatonin from pineal gland
b)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from anterior pituitary
c)
Glucocorticoids (GC) from adrenal cortex
d)
Gonadal steroids from gonads
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e)
All of the above
18.
Which of the following is NOT one of the ways catecholamines are regulated by the body?
a)
Regulation of PNMT enzyme activity and expression
b)
Regulation of bioavailability by plasma binding proteins (50% bound)
c)
Regulation of stressors
d)
Regulation of bioactivity by methyltransferases and monoamine oxidases that give the hormones a
short half life
e)
Regulation of ?
& ?
adrenergic receptors at tissue level
19.
Put the following steps of the Hypothalamic Pituitary Adrenal (HPA) axis in order:
I.
In the anterior pituitary CRH binds to the high affinity CRH receptor (CRH-R1) on corticotroph
cells.
II.
Secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) (and other hormones with similar function;
AVP, urocortin) from neurons in paraventricular nucleus (PVN) of hypothalamus.
III.
GCs elicit a range of physiological responses including altering metabolism, behaviour, and
regulating the innate and acquired immune responses to help deal with stressor and restore
homeostasis. They mediate these effects by binding to high affinity mineralocorticoid receptors
(MR) and low affinity glucocorticoid receptors (GR) that act as transcription factors.
IV.
Binding of ACTH to MC2R triggers adrenal steroidogenesis which involves the conversion of free
cholesterol by CYP and 3
?
-HSD enzymes into glucocorticoids (GC- corticosterone in birds and
rodents and cortisol in fish and most mammals)
V.
Neuropeptides are transported to the pituitary via projections into the posterior lobe and the portal
system into the anterior lobe.
VI.
CRH binding to CRH-R1 initiates the transcription of POMC and the conversion to ACTH
(bioactive form) by PC1 enzyme.
VII.
ACTH is secreted into circulation and binds to melanocortin 2 receptors (MC2R) on adrenal cells
within the adrenal cortex.
a)
II, V, I, VI, VII, IV, III
b)
I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII,
c)
II, I, V, VI, VII, IV, III
d)
II, I, V, VI, VII, III, IV
20.
Which if the following is not true regarding GC regulation?
a)
Circulating hepatic proteins cortisol-binding globulin (CBG) as well as albumin (ALB) help
regulate the bioavailability of circulating GC.
b)
Binding proteins sequester 95% of GC during stressed state
c)
During stress stored CBG is released to help buffer increasing GC levels but it will eventually
become saturated and concentrations of bioactive GC levels are dramatically elevated
d)
Tissue GC concentrations are locally regulated by the expression of isozymes 11
?
-HSD2 and
11
?
-HSD1
21.
Which if the following is not true regarding GC regulation?
a)
11
?
-HSD1 converts inactive cortisone to active cortisol
b)
11
?
-HSD2 converts active cortisol to inactive cortisone
c)
11
?
-HSD1 is abundant in liver, adipose tissue and brain
d)
11
?
-HSD2 is abundant in liver, adipose tissue and brain
22.
Which if the following is not true regarding GC regulation?
a)
Circulating ACTH and GC are regulated throughout the day and season by circadian clockwork
genes that are expressed within the SCN of the hypothalamus
b)
In diurnal species these clock genes allow for decreases in GC in the mornings and increases at
night to meet fluctuating energy demands
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c)
Sympathetic nervous signaling from the SCN via the splanchnic nerve has been shown to provide
rapid light/dark signals to the adrenals which leads to GC secretion independent of ACTH
d)
Peripheral circadian clock genes expressed within the adrenal medulla influence catecholamine
secretion and in turn GC cycling
23.
Which of the following can be a result of adrenal circadian disruption?
a)
Psychological Disorders (ex. depression)
b)
Metabolic Disorders (ex. obesity)
c)
Immune Disorders (ex. lupus)
d)
Cancer
e)
All of the above
24.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding negative feedback signaling within the HPA axis during
circadian cycling and stress?
a)
During chronic stress MR and GR expression are constantly elevated
b)
MR participates in negative feedback signalling during day and night circadian cycling. MR
expression levels determine sensitivity to stress. MR is highly expressed in the hippocampus.
c)
GR participates in negative feedback signaling in response to stress. These negative feedback
signals occur at the level of the hypothalamus, pituitary and hippocampus where GR expression is
high.
d)
Since MR are of higher affinity their contribution to circadian cycling in tissues is greater.
However during acute stress MR becomes saturated with GC thus GR mediates most of GC
effects.
25.
Which of the following direct biomarkers is most widely used as a biomarker of stress response due to its
stability and easiness to sample?
a)
Catecholamines
b)
ACTH
c)
EPI
d)
Glucocorticoids
26.
Why are direct acute stress biomarkers like catecholamines hard to determine?
a)
They have rapid release and short half lives
b)
Sensitive to animal handling
c)
Levels in blood may not be accurate
d)
All of the above
27.
Of the following indirect biomarkers which is not affected by age, gender, day/night or season?
a)
Chromogranin A
b)
Blood pressure
c)
Heart Rate
d)
All of the above
28.
Which of the following biomarkers would you most likely use for an acute stress biomarker in pigs?
a)
Catecholamines
b)
Chromogranin A
c)
ACTH
d)
GC
29.
What is the correct order of steps that an animal must be able to do to maintain homeostasis in an
environment rich with pathogenic bacteria, fungi, parasites and viruses?
a)
Prevent Pathogen Entry, Restore Homeostasis, Recognize Pathogen as Non-self
b)
Recognize Pathogen as Non-self, Prevent Pathogen Entry, Restore Homeostasis
c)
Prevent Pathogen Entry, Recognize Pathogen as Non-self, Restore Homeostasis
d)
Recognize Pathogen as Non-self, Restore Homeostasis, Prevent Pathogen Entry
30.
Skin, Mucous, pH and temperature are all examples of which of the following?
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a)
Physiological Barriers
b)
Physical Barriers
c)
Mix of Physiological and Physiological Barriers
d)
None of the above
31.
If an animal is not able to eliminate a pathogen this can lead to disease. How do we define disease?
a)
An illness or condition that prevents the body or mind from working normally
b)
An illness or condition that causes physical injury
c)
An illness or condition that results in cell death
d)
An illness or condition that causes mental stress
32.
Animals have host commensal microbial populations that reise on the epithelium of skin, mucosal surfaces
of the gastrointestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts. Which if the following is false regarding their
relationship?
a)
The host provides nutrients and an environment that supports microbe survival
b)
The microbes make certain nutrients available to the host and help protect against invading
pathogens.
c)
If tolerance to these microbes does not develop normally or tolerance is broken this can lead to
disease
d)
The ability of animals to recognize and respond to pathogens as non-self and tumor cells as
modified self yet tolerate non self commensal microbes is facilitated by the immune system
e)
The commensal microbe populations should be kept at a minimum since they have a competitive
relationship with the host
33.
Which of the following is the first to be activated during microbial stress?
a)
Acquired Immune System
b)
HPA Axis
c)
Innate Immune System
d)
SAM Axis
34.
Which of the following is true?
a)
The SAM and HPA axis (neuroendocrine system) play a role in regulating the immune response to
ensure they can restore homeostasis
b)
If the innate and acquired immune response are decreased an animal may not be able to eliminate
pathogens or tumor cells
c)
Excessive and prolonged immune responses can result in a host of tissue damage that can lead to
disorders like chronic inflammatory disease, development of tumours, sensitization to
environmental antigens, sensitization to self-antigens
d)
All of the above
35.
What would happen if you were born without an immune system but kept isolated in a bubble?
a)
You would be okay since the bubble would protect you from invading pathogens somewhat like a
physical barrier such as skin
b)
You would die only outside bubble
c)
You would still have issues since tumor cells can develop randomly and without an immune
system you would not be able to stop their spread
d)
You can survive without an immune system using antibiotics
36.
During microbial invasion cells release signaling molecules called ________ as well as various
neuropeptides that bind to receptors on neural cells within the gut, liver, respiratory tract, urogenital tract
and brain. These neural cells become activated and alert the CNS to danger. These signals are perceived in
the brain and the CNS response with neural (SAM) and endocrine (HPA) signals to help regulate the
immune response.
a)
Cytokines
b)
TNFα
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c)
IL-1
d)
IL-6
e)
All of the above
37.
Which of the following best describes the acute phase response?
a)
The systematic response to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNFα, IL-1, IL-6) during
immune system activation
b)
In the hypothalamus the cytokines cause a fever response
c)
IL-1 induces sickness behavior (sleepiness and anorexia)
d)
In muscle cytokines cause protein catabolism which mobilizes AA to make host defense and tissue
repair proteins. Many of these proteins are synthesized by the liver and referred to as acute phase
proteins
e)
All of the above
38.
Which of the following sends danger signals about invading microbes?
a)
MAMPS (microbial-associated molecular patterns)
b)
Alarmins (host alarm signals)
c)
PRRs (pattern recognition receptors)
d)
Two of the above
39.
Which of the following recognizes danger signals?
a)
MAMPS
b)
Alarmins
c)
PRRs
d)
SIRs
40.
What does secretion of TNFα, IL-1 and IL-6 cause?
a)
Stress Response
b)
Inflammation
c)
Danger Signal
d)
Ab formation
41.
Which of the following is false regarding SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)?
a)
Lack of local immune defenses ability to contain an infection leads to the infection spreading
which can cause SIRS
b)
SIRS can develop into sepsis
c)
The inflammatory response is typically systemic
d)
If an animal survives SIRS it will typically be immunocompromised for years
42.
Which of the following is false regarding the innate immune system?
a)
It is very old and highly conserved
b)
It is highly effective at controlling and eliminating pathogens
c)
It has limited specificity
d)
Has immunological memory
43.
Put in order the steps of the immune system.
I.
Pathogen invades barrier
II.
T and B cells differentiate into effector cells of acquired immune system and memory B and T
cells that facilitate long term immunity
III.
MAMPS or alarmins sense danger and send danger signal to PRRs
IV.
Process microbial proteins into peptides
V.
PRRs trigger secretion of proinflammatory cytokines
VI.
Inflammation activates surveillance innate immune cells to phagocytose microbe
VII.
Migration to secondary lymphoid tissue
VIII.
Activation of T and B cells by antigen presentation.
IX.
Binding to receptors on major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules
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a)
I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX
b)
I, III, V, VI, IV, VII, IX, VIII, II
c)
I, III, VI, V, IV, VII, IX, VIII, II
d)
I, III, VII, VI, IV, VII, IX, VI, II
44.
Which if the following is false?
a)
The innate immune system provides an immediate level of protection that buys time for the more
effective acquired immune response to occur
b)
Acquired immune response takes longer for host to mount since a higher level of immune system
orchestration is required
c)
Innate and Acquired immune responses do not cooperate
d)
Hundreds of immune-related protein are produced during the innate and acquired immune
responses to microbial stressors and can be used as biomarkers
45.
Which of the following cytokines involved in the acquired immune system is specific to the CMIR?
a)
IL-4
b)
IL-13
c)
IFNy
d)
All of the above
46.
How would maternal undernutrition affect birth weight and what would that affect?
a)
Undernutrition contributes to low birth rate and puts fetus at risk for development of adult obesity,
heart disease and diabetes since fetus is adapting to a low nutritional state
b)
Undernutrition would contribute to a low birth rate which would put fetus at risk for developing
adult anorexia
c)
Undernutrition would contribute to a high birth rate since all the nutrients went to the fetus
47.
Human polymorphisms in the USP8 gene indirectly contributes to increased _____ production that is a risk
factor for cushing's disease (too high cortisol).
a)
Cortisol
b)
ACTH
c)
EPI
d)
NE
48.
Which of the following is not true of Addison's disease?
a)
It is the same as Cushings disease
b)
It is characterized by too low cortisol
c)
Often caused by an autoimmune response against adrenal cortex causing atrophy and thus under
production of GC
d)
In most cases results in loss of negative feedback at pituitary so will still have POMC and ACTH
but still low cortisol
49.
Label each of the following as a biomarker of acute or chronic microbial stress?
a)
Cytokines - A (inflammation driving-TNFα, IL-1, IL-6) & C (AbMIR driving- IL-4, IL13 or
CMIR driving- IFN
?
)
b)
Hepatic APPs -Acute
c)
Temperature-Acute
d)
Antibodies -Chronic
50.
Which of the following is false regarding the acquired immune response?
a)
The key difference between cell mediated and antibody mediated immunity is that cell mediated
immunity destroys infectious particles via cell lysis by cytokines, without the production of
antibodies, while antibody mediated immunity destroys pathogens by producing specific
antibodies against antigens.
b)
The cell mediated response does not produce memory cells
c)
The cell mediated response uses T cells
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d)
The Ab mediated response uses B cells
e)
The antigen presenting cell presents the antigen bound on its MHC receptor to the T cell which is
connected to a B cell both of which will proliferate.
51.
Which of the following can beneficially stimulate the immune system?
a)
Acute exposure
b)
Chronic exposure
c)
No exposure
d)
All of the above
52.
What do we call things that predetermine gene activity, are permanent and inherited?
a)
Genetic variants
b)
Epigenetic variants
c)
Environmental variants
53.
Which of the following is a mechanism of epigenetic modification that influences gene activity?
a)
Methylation of cytosine nucleotides by DNA methyltransferase
b)
Modification of histone (scaffold proteins that help package DNA as chromatin within the nucleus.
Allows for chromatin winding/unwinding that restricts/allows transcription factors to access
genes) proteins. Modifications to histone tails affect TF access and thus presence of genes.
c)
RNA based mechanisms such as noncoding RNAs
d)
All of the above greatly contribute to regulation of genes within the neuroendocrine-immune
system. These methods can be used to improve livestock resilience to stress.
54.
Which of the following is not one of the threat processing locations of the brain?
a)
Hypothalamus
b)
Hippocampus
c)
Amygdala
d)
Prefrontal cortex
55.
Which of the following is false regarding the limbic system?
a)
The limbic system connects the brain to the rest of the body and controls the autonomic, HPA and
immunological responses to stress
b)
The limbic system is controlled by the prefrontal cortex
c)
The limbic system is not involved in immune response
d)
The hippocampus and amygdala are part of the limbic system
56.
Which of the following is not true?
a)
Anxiety disorder is feelings of fear and worry that is not useful and disproportionate to real life
events
b)
Anxiety can be beneficial as fear and worry in stressful situations can be helpful
c)
Anxiety is not present in animals
d)
The line between normal and clinical anxiety is blurred
57.
Which of the following is true regarding the function of the amygdala?
a)
The amygdala processes information about fearful stimuli and thus mediates fear behavior
b)
The amygdala is mainly involved in learning and memory
c)
The amygdala is controls the immune response
d)
The amygdala controls the prefrontal cortex
58.
Which of the following can happen in response to prolonged stress?
a)
The amygdala can increase in size and the prefrontal cortex can increase in size
b)
The amygdala can decrease in size and the prefrontal cortex can decrease in size
c)
The amygdala can increase in size and the prefrontal cortex can decrease in size
d)
The amygdala can decrease in size and the prefrontal cortex can increase in size
59.
Which of the following is not true regarding the treatment of anxiety?
a)
You can use anxiolytic drugs like SSRIs
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b)
You can try anxiolytic cognitive behavioral therapy
c)
Anxiolytic cognitive behavioral therapy can help appraise threats more realistically and can even
decrease the size of the prefrontal cortex
d)
Anxiolytic cognitive behavioral therapy can help appraise threats more realistically and can even
decrease the size of the amygdala
60.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of anxiety?
a)
Genetics
b)
Youth
c)
Stressful infancy
d)
Recent stress
e)
Inactivity
61.
Which of the following is not true?
a)
The limbic system activates the ANS and the HPA axis resulting in proinflammatory cytokine
activation
b)
Chronic stress can lead to inflammatory activity, GC insensitivity, chronic inflammation and
cellular aging.
c)
More active amygdala predicted more active bone marrow (which is where macrophages and IL of
the immune response are located)
d)
More active amygdala predicted more signs of aortic inflammation which increase the risk of heart
attacks and heart disease.
e)
All of the above are true
62.
How does stress cause acne?
a)
Stress decreases cell mediated immune response
b)
Stress decreases Ab mediated immune response
c)
Stress is not a factor in acne
d)
A & B
63.
Which of the following is false with regards to anxiety in dogs?
a)
Dogs have all the same risk factors as humans with the addition of early loss of mother and
littermates, high volume commercial breeding establishments (puppy mills) at an increased risk of
aggression and having a poor quality mother.
b)
Studies show that lesioning (damaging) the amygdala can cure anxious dogs
c)
Anxious dogs also seem to have more frontal cortex activity
d)
Anxious dogs' serotonin receptors have a decreased affinity for serotonin in the frontal cortex.
64.
Which of the following is false regarding depression?
a)
Hippocampal volume loss is a common side effect of early/repeated stress and a biomarker of
depression
b)
Clinical diagnosis of depression relays on biomarkers of depression more than self-reports
c)
Depression is characterized by anhedonia (low mood) and hyper or hypo-cortisolemia
d)
Hypo-cortisolemia is associated with elevated proinflammatory cytokines
65.
Caileigh used to love hanging out with her friends but now everything she sees them feels like a chore.
Which sign of depression might Caileigh be experiencing?
a)
Weight change
b)
Insomnia/hypersomnia
c)
Retardation
d)
Anhedonia
e)
Feelings of worthlessness
66.
Based on the above information only would we be able to diagnose Caileigh with depression yet?
a)
Yes, she is showing a sign of depression so we would be able to diagnose her
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b)
No, we would not be able to diagnose her yet since we do not have a brain scan of her
hippocampus
c)
No, further self-reports would need to be heard, to be diagnosed with depression she would need
to have at least 5 of the depression signs consistently
d)
Yes we could diagnose her with atypical depression
67.
Which of the following is a test to see if an animal is depressed?
a)
Take away their food and observe their behavioral change
b)
Give them a treat and see if they become excited
c)
Ask them the self report questions
d)
Test if they are suicidal
68.
Anxious, decreased sleep, decreased appetite but response to SSRI drugs are an example of which subtype
of depression?
a)
Atypical
b)
Abnormal
c)
Melancholic
d)
Meaning less
69.
Disinterested, not anxious, increased sleep, increased appetite, increased BMI but resistant to SSRI drugs is
an example of which subtype of depression?
a)
Atypical
b)
Abnormal
c)
Melancholic
d)
Meaning less
70.
Which of the following is false regarding biomarkers of depression?
a)
Decreased hippocampal volume can be linked to impaired memory and cognition
b)
Hippocampal volume changes are irreversible
c)
Cortisol is typically very high- melancholic (ACTH levels are also higher in this type due to HPA
axis) or very low- atypical (ACTH levels are normal)
d)
Inflammatory markers may be elevated
71.
Which of the following signs of depression is special to the atypical subtype?
a)
Elevated markers of inflammation
b)
Low cortisol
c)
Sickness behavior
d)
All of the above
72.
Which of the following is not true?
a)
Psychological stress can be caused by negative early experiences that may also interact with
genotype (ex. 5 HT)
b)
Psychological stress can be caused by recent or current stress such as divorce, floods, money
issues
c)
No signs of depression can be seen in animals
d)
Rodents can be models of depression by causing chronic, social and physical stress. The signs they
show are consistent with human signs.
73.
Penicillin is an antimicrobial that falls under which class?
a)
Antibiotics
b)
Antifungals
c)
Antivirals
d)
Antiparasitics
74.
Farmer bob uses antimicrobials to promote growth of his animals and minimize his production loss to
disease. Which of the following driving forces behind antimicrobial usage does this represent?
a)
Increasing livestock productivity
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b)
Increasing product quality
c)
Improving product uniformity
d)
Improving animal welfare
e)
Reducing risk of zoonosis
75.
Antimicrobial Growth Promoters (APGs) added to feed or water are useful for promoting growth under
poor hygiene conditions at sub therapeutic concentrations. When is the most beneficial life stage to use
them due to underdeveloped immune systems?
a)
Throughout life
b)
When animals growth begins to decline
c)
When animals become old
d)
In early life
76.
Which of the following forces behind antimicrobial usage is society driven?
a)
Increasing livestock productivity
b)
Increasing product quality
c)
Improving product uniformity
d)
Improving animal welfare
e)
Reducing risk of zoonosis
77.
How can we modify housing systems to decrease the need for AGP?
a)
Keep them the same
b)
Convert to pasture
c)
Keep them clean
d)
Keep dirty to improve immune system
78.
What is the majority of antibiotic (⅔) production used for?
a)
Livestock production
b)
Human treatment
c)
Companion Animal treatment
d)
Western medicine
79.
AGP interacts with the microbiome and promotes gut immunity. Which of the following is not one of the 3
ways AGPs interact with the microbiome?
a)
Subtly change microbial populations
b)
Drastically change microbial populations
c)
Reduce microbial competition for nutrients
d)
Reduce production of microbial metabolites with growth-inhibiting properties
80.
To promote gut immunity therapeutic concentrations of certain antimicrobials appear to reduce gut
inflammation and modulate the host immune response. Why would we want to reduce inflammation?
a)
We should not reduce inflammation since it is an essential innate host response to pathogenic
infection
b)
We should not reduce inflammation since it is an essential acquired host response to pathogenic
infection
c)
Excessive inflammation may be intentionally triggered by certain pathogens to evade immune
detection
d)
All of the above
81.
Why would we not want a hyperactive immune system?
a)
May target beneficial commensal microbes
b)
Inflammatory response is physiologically costly as energy for growth is redirected to
immune-related protein production, proinflammatory cytokines induce anorexia and muscle
catabolism
c)
Inflammation can damage the gut epithelial barrier
d)
All of the above
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82.
What should we use antimicrobials for to prevent AMR?
a)
Growth
b)
Treatment for sick animals
c)
Disease prevention
d)
All of the above
83.
Which of the following industries uses the most antimicrobials?
a)
Cattle
b)
Swine
c)
Poultry
d)
Turkey
84.
Which of the following antibiotics is still allowed to be used as a growth promoter in canada?
a)
Aminoglycosides
b)
Penicillins
c)
Ionophores
d)
Macrolides
e)
Streptogramins
f)
Tetracycline
85.
Why are the other antibiotics in the last question no longer allowed to be used?
a)
They were over prescribed
b)
They effect was minimal as housing conditions improved
c)
They are medically important for humans
d)
They are not effective in cattle
86.
What is the difference between Monensin and Narasin ionophores?
a)
Monensin is used in cattle and Narasin is used in swine
b)
Monensin is used in swine and Narasin is used in cattle
c)
Monensin is used in cattle and Narasin is used in poultry
d)
Monensin is used in poultry and Narasin is used in cattle
87.
What are the main two modes of action of antibiotics?
a)
Protein production or altering cell wall
b)
Macrophage or altering cell wall
c)
Protein production or RNA alteration
d)
Protein production or DNA alteration
88.
In the USA which of the following is the correct order of the most commonly used medically important
antimicrobials?
a)
Penicillins, Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Aminoglycosides, Sulfax
b)
Penicillins, Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Aminoglycosides=Sulfax
c)
Tetracyclines, Penicillins, Macrolides, Aminoglycosides, Sulfax
d)
Tetracyclines, Penicillins, Macrolides, Aminoglycosides=Sulfax
89.
Out of both medically and not medically important antimicrobials, which antimicrobials are the highest?
a)
Tetracyclines (medically important) at 42% followed by Ionophores (not medically important) at
33%
b)
Tetracyclines (not medically important) at 42% followed by Ionophores (medically important) at
33%
c)
Ionophores (not medically important) at 42% followed by Tetracyclines (medically important) at
33%
d)
Ionophores (medically important) at 42% followed by Tetracyclines (not medically important) at
33%
90.
Which of the following is correct regarding Ab residues?
a)
The USA accepts a greater amount of Ab residue in their products
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b)
Ab residue levels vary depending on tissue and is usually higher in kidney and liver tissues
c)
Ab residue levels are most concerning when high in milk or muscle
d)
Withdrawal time for meat is longer than withdrawal time for milk
e)
All of the above
91.
Which of the following is not true regarding tetracyclines?
a)
Commonly in a salt form as tetracyclines, oxytetracycline and chlortetracycline
b)
Sometimes combined with Sulfas
c)
Only used in aquaculture
d)
Used for GIT diseases and respiratory infections
92.
Which of the following is not true regarding commonly used antimicrobials?
a)
Penicillins used as broad spectrum antibiotics and often added to food or water
b)
A commonly used Macrolide is tylosin and erythromycin
c)
Usually used to treat GIT diseases and respiratory infections
d)
A commonly used Sulfonamides are oral sulfamethazine and sulfachloropyridazine
e)
All of the above are true
93.
Which of the following is not true regarding commonly used antimicrobials?
a)
Commonly used Aminoglycosides are gentamicin and neomycin
b)
Commonly used Streptogramins is virginiamycin
c)
Chloramphenicol is NOT approved for companion animal usage like horses
d)
Chloramphenicol is NOT approved for livestock usage
94.
Which of the following is a research priority to help prolong usage of antimicrobials?
a)
Ban AGP
b)
Increase access to non medicated feed
c)
Develop new antimicrobials
d)
Alternative approaches like enhance health through genetic selection
e)
Two of the above
95.
Prolonging Antimicrobial usage by not using the same antimicrobial every time is referred to as?
a)
Personalized antimicrobial therapy
b)
Antimicrobial cycling
c)
Monitoring antimicrobial dose
d)
Combined antimicrobial therapy
96.
Usage of a banned antimicrobial falls under which of the following drivers of antimicrobial resistance ?
a)
Antimicrobial misuse
b)
Antimicrobial over use
c)
Other (heavy metals, biocides, nitrogen fertilizers)
97.
Mr. Smith is a farmer that uses antimicrobials proactively to prevent disease in his poultry herd.
Unknowingly Mr. Smith is contributing to which of the following drivers of antimicrobial resistance?
a)
Antimicrobial misuse
b)
Antimicrobial over use
c)
Other (heavy metals, biocides, nitrogen fertilizers)
98.
How do antimicrobials impact our environment?
a)
Beneficial since reduce disease transmission
b)
No effect
c)
Negative since 30-90% of Ab residues end up in soil or water
99.
Fish developing AMR is an example of which of the following consequences of antimicrobial usage?
a)
Consumer exposure to drug residues
b)
Environmental Contamination and impact on other species
c)
Development of AMR pathogens or commensal microbes
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100.AMR is the ability of a microorganism to become resistant to the growth inhibition or killing effects of
antimicrobials and can severely compromise successful treatment against human or animal pathogens. How
do bacteria become AMR?
a)
DNA mutations
b)
Mobile genetic elements- Transformation, Transduction, Conjugation
c)
All of the above
101.Which of the following mobile elements mechanisms (genetic material being transferred across organisms)
describes foreign DNA containing AMR genes being incorporated into the microbial genome by
recombination?
a)
Transformation
b)
Transduction
c)
Conjugation
102.Which of the following best described bacteriophages (virus that infects a bacterium) transferring DNA
containing AMR genes between bacteria?
a)
Transformation
b)
Transduction
c)
Conjugation
103.Which of the following best describes a bacterial plasmid (small DNA molecule that is physically separated
from chromosomal DNA, replicates independently and is easily mobile across species) containing AMR
genes being transferred across a membrane channel between bacteria?
a)
Transformation
b)
Transduction
c)
Conjugation
104.Could not fully taking your prescription contribute to AMR?
a)
No this would have no effect
b)
No you should stop taking medication when you feel better
c)
Yes because you did not fully kill the pathogen but instead made it stronger
105.Why might humans have increased risk of infection in winter?
a)
Lower BMAL1 levels in blood
b)
Virus particles slow down in cold
c)
Higher BMAL1 levels in blood
d)
Virus particles speed up in cold
106.If you were faced with the challenge of increasing your resistance of sheep to GIT parasites how would you
handle this?
a)
Use cross breeding or gene editing with parasite resistant breds like gulf coast sheep
b)
Isolate sick sheep
c)
Make sure barn is sanitary
d)
All of the above
107.Can AMR be reversed?
a)
Not completely but we can slow it down by lowering selection pressure, banning AGPS,
increasing access to non-medicated feeds…
b)
Yes it can fully be reversed in time
c)
Yes by decreasing selection pressure
108.Which brain region is responsible for not being scared seeing someone in a mask on halloween but being
scared seeing someone in a mask in february?
a)
Hippocampus
b)
Amygdala
c)
Prefrontal Cortex
d)
Hypothalamus
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109.A study was conducted in which rodents were foot shocked every time a light turns on. Why might an
amygdala become active when the light turns on even when the researchers stopped administering the
shock?
a)
The amygdala learned that the light was followed by pain so it fires with the expectation of pain
b)
The amygdala only fires when pain is administered
c)
The rodents did not like the light
d)
All of the above
110.Which of the following is not true?
a)
The amygdalae activation correlates with self-reported feelings of stress
b)
Degree of activated covaries in people with how they say they feel
c)
The amygdalae is fully on or fully off
d)
Anxiety is associated with a more active amygdalae
111.Which of the following is not true regarding why might a sample using healthy people be biased when
looking at the amygdalae?
a)
It wouldn’t, healthy people have the same size amygdala and response as anyone else
b)
Healthy people would have less amygdala response then those with clinical anxiety
c)
The amygdala size would likely be smaller in those without anxiety
d)
Greater amygdala responses to threat would be seen in those with anxiety
112.Which of the following is not true regarding 5-HT (serotonin)?
a)
When serotonin activity is decreased in the entire amygdala a consistent increase in anxiety like
behavior is observed.
b)
When serotonin activity is increased in the entire amygdala a consistent increase in anxiety like
behavior is observed.
c)
There is also amygdala involvement in anxiolytic action, many anxiolytic drugs (SSRIs) act on
serotonin receptors to promote serotonin release
113.What can reduced activity in the prefrontal cortex lead to?
a)
Amygdala dysfunction
b)
PVN dysfunction
c)
Hypothalamic dysfunction
d)
Amygdala decrease
114.Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a common anxiolytic drug, what is another way to treat
anxiety?
a)
Anxiety does not need treatment
b)
Talking about it wit friends
c)
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
d)
Alcohol
115.Using CBT to decrease anxiety the following occurs…
a)
Decreased hippocampus size
b)
Decreased amygdala size
c)
Increased hippocampus size
d)
Increased amygdala size
116.Why should we treat anxiety?
a)
Avoid premature aging
b)
Avoid cardiovascular disease
c)
Improve welfare
d)
All of the above
117.What percentage of dogs suffer from some form of separation anxiety?
a)
5%
b)
30%
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c)
20%
d)
10%
118.Which of the following is not a risk of anxiety?
a)
Good Genetics
b)
Being inactive
c)
Being elderly
d)
Stressful rearing in infancy
e)
Recent/ current stress
119.Which if the following is false regarding perceived threat response?
a)
Limbic system activates HPA leading to increased release of cortisol
b)
Limbic system activates sympathetic arm of ANS leading to release of catecholamines
c)
SAM and HPA activate immune cells like macrophages to release more proinflammatory
cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNFa) to help prepare the body for any infection that might accompany an
injury
d)
Ultimately leads to decreased inflammation
120.What does the question mark represent?
a)
Diseases of aging
b)
Death
c)
Anxiety
d)
Depression
121.Hyperactive amygdala can lead to which of the following?
a)
Heart attack
b)
Elevated inflammation
c)
More active bone marrows
d)
Poor welfare
e)
All of the above
122.Which of the following does the limbic system not control?
a)
Autonomic system
b)
HPA
c)
Immunological responses to stressors
d)
Prefrontal cortex
123.When cortisol is elevated the hippocampus regulates the HPA axis with what feedback?
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
124.How is hippocampal size changed?
a)
Increases in environmentally enriched animals
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b)
Decreased in depressed animals
c)
All of the above
125.When depressed the hippocampus size can decrease by 5% leading to _____ issues.
a)
Memory and cognition functions
b)
Learning difficulties
c)
Motor movement
d)
Scent recognition
126.What type of depression might a person with elevated cortisol levels, anxiety and ability to be treated by
SSRI drugs have?
a)
Atypical
b)
Melanonic
127.Which of the following describes the most concerning aspect of AMR where a sex pilus forms between two
bacterial cells through which a plasmid is transferred from one to the other?
a)
Conjugation
b)
Transformation
c)
Transduction
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