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Practice Exam 13
251.
Which causes vasoconstriction only in elevated concentrations?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Epinephrine
c)
Angiotensin II
d)
Vasopressin
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
252.
The formation of prothrombin activator is the first stage of a)
Platelet plug formation
b)
Vascular spasm
c)
Coagulation
d)
Clot retraction
Keyword:
Coagulation
Program Code:
4
253.
If crenation occurred, the solution would be with respect
to the erythrocytes.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isosmotic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Isotonic
Keyword:
Prime Solutions
Program Code:4
254.
Prolongation of the Thrombin Time may indicate a deficiency of a)
Platelets b)
Factor XIII
c)
Antihemophilic factors
d)
Fibrinogen
Keyword:
Coagulation
Program Code:
4
255.
The laboratory diagnosis of critical thrombocytopenia would probably be based on .
a)
Platelet adhesion studies
b)
Morphological examination
c)
Platelet count
d)
Thrombin-induced aggregation studies
Keyword:
Blood Composition
Program Code:
4
256.
Which of the following groups of factors are contained within the intrinsic system?
a)
VIII, IX, XI
b)
VII, VIII, IX
c)
V, VII, VIII
d)
III, V, VII
Keyword:
Coagulation
Program Code:
4
257.
Vitamin K-dependent factors include .
a)
II, IX, X
b)
II, V, XI
c)
I, VII, X
d)
V, VIII, IX
Keyword:
Coagulation
Program Code:
4
258.
Which of the following substances can cause renal vasodilation?
a)
Bradykinin
b)
Epinephrine
c)
Serotonin
d)
Angiotensin II
Keyword:
Circulatory Physiology
Program Code:4
259.
Renin secretion results in .
a)
Renal vasodilation
b)
Increased angiotensin II production
c)
Decreased Na+ reabsorption
d)
Increased H+ secretion
Keyword:
Renal
Program Code:
4
260.
Which of the these statements is not true?
a)
Viscosity decreases with increased flow.
b)
Reynolds number for blood is 2000.
c)
Pressure is inversely proportional to flow and resistance.
d)
Blood is non-Newtonian in capillaries.
Keyword:
Circulatory Dynamics
Program Code:4
261.
Which of the following will cause a decrease in the p50?
a)
Hyperthermia
b)
Decreased pO2
c)
Increased [H+]
d)
Decreased pCO2
Keyword:
Oxygen Saturation
Program Code:
4
262.
The Bohr Effect relates to which of the following?
a)
Bicarbonate diffusion from the RBC into plasma causes a chloride shift.
b)
Adding oxygen to blood encourages CO2 release from the Hgb.
c)
The majority of CO2 is transported into the RBC.
d)
Adding CO2 to blood increases the release of oxygen from Hgb.
263.
If all other factors are kept the same, elevating the venous pressure will have what effect on capillary dynamics?
a)
Decreased lymph flow.
b)
Decreased plasma COP.
c)
Increased capillary flow.
d)
Increased interstitial water.
Keyword:
Circulatory Dynamics
Program Code:4
264.
The osmotic pressure created by a 1.0 mOsm/L concentration of solute is approximately mm Hg.
a)
7
b)
17
c)
37
d)
47
Keyword:
Circulatory Dynamics
Program Code:4
265.
Colloid particles are .
a)
Larger than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and diffusible through biological membranes.
b)
Smaller than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes.
c)
Larger than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes.
d)
Larger than 50,000 Da, nonseparable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes.
Keyword:
Priming Solutions
Program Code:4
266.
Action potentials:
a)
Cause the membrane potential to change from positive to negative and back again to positive.
b)
Involve the influx of Na+ ions to the inside of the cell.
c)
Create an electric current on the outside of the axon.
d)
Cannot be stimulated by hormones.
267.
Nerve impulses reaching the neuromuscular junction do which of the
following?
a)
Decrease the permeability of the muscle membrane to Na+.
b)
Cause vesicles of acetylcholine to rupture.
c)
Na+ migration causes local muscle membranes to become negatively charged on the inside.
d)
Acetylcholine moves into the muscle cell nucleus.
268.
Which of the following statements is false concerning the oxygen dissociation curve?
a)
A normal pO2 of 90 mm Hg yields an O2 saturation of 97 percent.
b)
An arterial pO2 of 60 would yield an O2 saturation of approximately 92 percent.
c)
A normal venous saturation of 75 percent reflects pO2 approximately 40 torr.
d)
All of the above are true statements.
Keyword:
Oxygen Saturation
Program Code:
4
269.
A blood sample drawn on a patient with hemolyzed blood will show
a)
Decreased plasma free hemoglobin; decreased serum haptoglobin.
b)
Increased plasma free hemoglobin; increased serum haptoglobin.
c)
Increased plasma free hemoglobin; decreased serum haptoglobin.
d)
Decreased plasma free hemoglobin; increased serum haptoglobin.
Keyword:
Physiology of Blood
Program Code:4
270.
Which of the following would probably not be a cause of hyperkalemia while on bypass?
a)
Hemolysis
b)
Metabolic acidosis
c)
Thrombocytopenia
d)
Renal failure
Keyword:
CPB Blood Gases
Program Code:4
271.
Patients on long-term diuretic therapy tend to be .
a)
Hypoatremic, hyperkalemic, hypovolemic
b)
Hypernatremic, hypokalemic, hypovolemic
c)
Hypernatremic, hyperkalemic, hypovolemic
d)
Hyponatremic, hypokalemic, hypovolemic
e)
Hypernatremic, hypokalemic, normovolemic
Keyword:
Renal Physiology
Program Code:4
272.
The development of an expanded extracellular fluid space can:
a)
Lead to increased sodium and H2O retention.
b)
Not be affected by the duration of bypass.
c)
Be enhanced by adding bank blood to the prime.
d)
Be mediated by an increase in onocotic pressure of the prime.
273.
Which of the following coagulation studies can be performed on both plasma and whole blood?
a)
Partial prothromboplastin time (PTT)
b)
Thrombin time (TT)
c)
Prothrombin time (PT)
d)
Activated clotting time (ACT)
Keyword:
Coagulation Lab Results
Program Code:
4
274.
The proper sequence for the conversion of the angiotensin system is
1) Angiotensin II 2) Angiotensinogen 3) ACE 4) Angiotensin III
5) Angiotensin I
a)
4, 1, 5, 2, 3
b)
2, 5, 3, 1, 4
c)
3, 2, 1, 4, 5
d)
Not enough information given Keyword:
Circulatory Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:4
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275.
Wall tension is proportionate to the distending pressure times the
radius of the vessel. This statement is the .
a)
Metabolic theory of autoregulation
b)
Myogenic theory of autoregulation
c)
Tissue pressure hypothesis of autoregulation
d)
Law of Laplace
Keyword:
Circulatory Dynamics
Program Code:4
276.
Hypertension during CPB can result from .
a)
Moderate hypothermia
b)
Decreased blood viscosity
c)
Mannitol
d)
Hemodilution
Keyword:
Circulatory Dynamics
Program Code:4
277.
Which of the following procedures should enhance fluid reabsorption during CPB in normal kidneys?
a)
Mannitol administration
b)
Increasing central venous pressure above normal levels
c)
Increasing arterial pressure
d)
Plasma infusion
Keyword:
Renal
Program Code:
4
278.
Phosphate and protein contribute to the body buffer system.
a)
Less than 90%
b)
Less than 10%
c)
50%
d)
None of the above
Keyword:
Acid-Base Balance
Program Code:
4
279.
The slowest compensatory mechanism is .
a)
The respiratory system
b)
The bicarbonate system
c)
The renal system
d)
All respond immediately
Keyword:
Circulatory Physiology
Program Code:4
280.
Vasospasm can be induced by which of the following?
a)
Metabolic alkalosis
b)
Calcium administration
c)
Hyperventilation
d)
All of the above
Keyword:
Circulatory Physiology
Program Code:4
281.
Insulin .
a)
Promotes the degradation of glucose.
b)
Promotes the conversion to the more complex carbohydrate glycogen.
c)
Promotes glucosuria.
d)
Promotes the development of diabetes insipidus in patients.
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
282.
The mechanism of action of alkalizing agents involves decreasing concentration of ions.
a)
H+
b)
Ca++
c)
Na++
d)
K+
Keyword:
Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
283.
The following are processes that prostaglandins are involved in except .
a)
Regulation of the clotting cascade.
b)
Inflammation.
c)
Pressure regulation.
d)
Carbohydrate metabolism.
Keyword:
Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
284.
The main source of thromboxane A2 is .
a)
Pulmonary and vascular endothelial cells.
b)
Epithelial cells of the kidney.
c)
The platelet cell membrane.
d)
The cell membrane of liver cells.
Keyword:
Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
285.
Effect of thiopental (pentothal) use includes the following except
.
a)
Depression of the central nervous system.
b)
Muscle relaxation.
c)
Rapid recovery from its use with low doses.
d)
Myocardial depression and hypotension.
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
286.
Pharmacologic agents effective in lowering the levels of circulating lipids include the following except .
a)
Cholestyramine
b)
Dextrthyroxine
c)
Scopolamine
d)
Nicotinic acid
Keyword:
PRe-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
287.
Nitroglycerin, when given intravenously .
a)
Vasoconstricts pulmonary vasculature and increases pulmonary
artery pressure.
b)
Is used to control introperative hypertension during cardiac
surgery.
c)
Has little or no effect on coronary circulation.
d)
All of the above.
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
288.
Which of the following agents are used to reduce preload in congestive heart failure?
a)
Morphine sulfate
b)
Nitrates
c)
Diuretics
d)
All of the above
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
289.
At therapeutic levels, Digoxin (Lanoxin) acts to .
a)
Decrease contractile force of the myocardium.
b)
Enhance automatically by increasing the rate of sinoatrial node depolarization.
c)
Increase cardiac output by improved myocardial contractility.
d)
None of the above.
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
290.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) has both alpha and beta adrenergic effects. At low doses, which effect is more prominent?
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Both are correct
d)
Neither are correct
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
291.
The only form of insulin which can be given intravenously is a)
Regular
b)
Semilente
c)
NPH
d)
Humulin Lent (Humulin L)
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
292.
The class IA antidysrhythmic which can be given intravenously for treatment of cardiac dyshythmias (PVC's, VT, AFib, PAT) associated with anesthesia and surgery is .
a)
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
b)
Norpace
(
Disopyramide
) - c)
Amiodarone
d)
Pronestyl (Procainamide)
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
293.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) .
a)
Can be given IV push at a dose of 0.5 mg to 1 mg in asystole.
b)
Has mixed beta stimulation and, at higher doses, alpha stimulation effects.
c)
Can be given to the cardiac surgical patient in IV infusions
of 1 - 4 mcg/min to treat low cardiac output states.
d)
All of the above.
Keyword:
CPB Intr-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
294.
A synthetic catecholamine with pure beta adrenergic stimulator effects, describes .
a)
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
b)
Norepinephrine (Levophed)
c)
Isoproterenol
(Isuprel)
d)
Phenylephrine (Neosynephrine)
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
295.
Which of the following is NOT a loop diuretic?
a)
Bumex
b)
Edecrin
c)
Diruil
d)
Furosemide
Keyword:
Renal Pharmacology
Program Code:4
296.
The loading dose of Inocor for a 75 Kg. patient would be .
a)
25 mcg
b)
56 mg
c)
75 mcg
d)
150 mcg
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
297.
You are administering Nipride, 50 mg in 250 D5%W, via a pediatric administration set at the rate of 83 gtts/min. If the patient weighs 92
Kgs., what is the dosage per Kg. that the patient is receiving?
a)
0.5 mcg
b)
50 mcg
c)
20 mcg
d)
3 mcg
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
298.
Your prime protocol calls for 30 mg/Kg of Solu-Medrol comes in a strength of 1 Gm/cc, how much will you need for a 73 Kg patient?
a)
0.2 ccs
b)
2 minims
c)
2 ccs
d)
20 ccs
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
299.
This drug slows AV node conduction. It increases the force and velocity of myocardial contraction promoting more complex emptying of the heart. It is indicated for heart failure, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation and paraxysmal atrial tachycardia.
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a)
Quinidine b)
Procainamide
c)
Digoxin
d)
Disopyramide
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
300.
The pharmacokenetic aspect of pharmacology involves .
a)
Absorption, dosage, metabolism, and elimination
b)
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
c)
Action, peak time, duration, and dosage
d)
Action, metabolism, usage, and excretion
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
301.
Which statement is correct regarding isoproterenol hydrochloride?
a)
The drug acts almost exlusively on alpha-adrenergic receptors.
b)
A therapeutic effect of this aspect is peripheral vasoconstriction.
c)
The drug lowers peripheral vascular resistance.
d)
The drug reduces cardiac contractility and conduction.
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
302.
An example of a depolarizing muscle relaxant is .
a)
Tubocurrarine
b)
Pancuronium bromide
c)
Halothane
d)
Succinylcholine
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
303.
Nitrates decrease afterload by .
a)
Dilating arteries
b)
Dilating veins
c)
Constricting arteries
d)
Constricting veins
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
304.
The physiologic effect of nitroprusside includes .
a)
Reduction of preload and afterload.
b)
Increasing cardiac output.
c)
Decreasing urinary output.
d)
Both a and b
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
305.
Class 1-B antidysrhythmics are used to treat .
a)
Ventricular dysrhythmias only
b)
Atrial dysrhythmias only
c)
Bundle branch block
d)
Atrial & ventricular dysrhythmias
Keyword:
CPB Intra-op Pharmacology
Program Code:4
306.
The drug used for the immediate reversal of a narcotic-induced respiratory depression is .
a)
Norepinepherine
b)
Atropine
c)
Naloxone
d)
Dopamine
Keyword:
CPB Pre-op Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
307.
During and after streptokinase infusion, the client should be carefully monitored for signs of .
a)
Peripheral edema
b)
Dysenea
c)
Headache
d)
Urticaria
Keyword:
CPB Physiology Pharmacology
Program Code:
4
308.
Treatment for a blood transfusion reaction should include which modalities?
a)
Administration of Benzodiazapenes, nitroprusside, and hydroxyethel starch solution.
b)
Administration of platelets, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate.
c)
Administration of steroids, diuretics, and heparin.
d)
Administration of vasopressors, antibiotics, and cryoprecipitate.
Keyword:
Catastrophic Event Management
Program Code:
4
309.
Balloon atrial septostomy was introduced by .
a)
Taussig
b)
Waterson
c)
Rashkind
d)
Mustard
Keyword:
Congenital Heart Defects
Program Code:4
310.
Double outlet-right ventricle is sometimes referred to as a)
Trilogy of Fallot
b)
Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return
c)
Partial transposition
d)
Corrected transposition
Keyword:
Congenital Heart Defects
Program Code:4
320.
The most common complication assoicated with syphilitic heart disease is .
a)
Aortic valve stenosis
b)
Aortic aneurysms
c)
Aortic valve insuffiency
d)
Coronary ostia stenosis
Keyword:
Acquired Valve Disease
Program Code:4
321.
The lungs are contained in the cavity.
a)
Pleural
b)
Mediastinal
c)
Pericardial
d)
Retroperitoneal
Keyword:
Heart Anatomy
Program Code:4
322.
Electrolytes are .
a)
Charged atoms or molecules found in body fluids.
b)
Molecules capable of producing electricity.
c)
Molecules that dissociate in an electricle field.
d)
Exclusively strong acids or bases.
Keyword:
Acid-Base Balance
Program Code:
4
323.
Baroreceptors are.
a)
Stimulated by increased distention of the structure and discharge at an increased rate.
b)
Inhibited by increased distension of the structure and discharge at an increased rate.
c)
Inhibited by increased distension of the structure and discharge at a decreased rate.
d)
Stimulated by increased distension of the structure and discharge at a decreased rate.
Keyword:
Heart Anatomy
Program Code:4
324.
The normal pH range of venous blood is .
a)
7.31 - 7.41
b)
7.30 - 7.45
c)
7.35 - 7.45
d)
7.35 - 7.38
Keyword:
Blood Gases
Program Code:
4
325.
The corrective procedure using a conduit to connect the RA with the MPA is .
a)
Rastelli
b)
Fontan
c)
Norwood
d)
Glenn
Keyword:
Congenital Heart Defects
Program Code:4
326.
The following pressure parameters describe what defect? RA is 8, RV is 100/0-15, PA is 80/60, LA is 15, LV is 80/0-15, and AO is 80/40.
a)
Truncus Arteriosus
b)
Transportation of great vessels
c)
Hypoplasty left heart
d)
Tetralogy of Fallot
Keyword:
Congenital Heart Defects
Program Code:4
327.
In truncus arteriosus, a chest X-ray will usually reveal .
a)
Dextroposition
b)
Boot-shaped cardiac silhouette - ToF
c)
Cardiomegaly
d)
Nothing of any diagnostic value
Keyword:
Congenital Heart Defects
Program Code:4
328.
The most common use of isolated limb perfusion is in the treatment
of malignant .
a)
Squamous carcinomas
b)
Melanomas
c)
Lymphomas
d)
Sarcomas
Keyword:
Isolated Limb Perfusion
Program Code:4
329.
Vessels responsible for the dampening of the systolic output are vessels.
a)
Thebesian
b)
Capacitance
c)
Windkessel
d)
Borrelli
Keyword:
Heart Anatomy
Program Code:4
330.
Albumin accounts for what percent of the plasma proteins?
a)
25%
b)
35%
c)
45%
d)
55%
Keyword:
Body Fluid Composition
Program Code:4
331.
In mitral stenosis, the following may be detrimental:
a)
Tachycardia
b)
Slow heart rate (50 BPM)
c)
Adequate hydration
d)
None of the above
Keyword:
Acquired Valve Disease
Program Code:4
332.
Differential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism may be made by noting
.
a)
That the CVP and PA are high.
b)
That the CVP is low while the PA and PCW are high.
c)
The the CVP and PA are high while the PCW is low.
d)
The the CVP is normal and the PA and PCW are high.
Keyword:
Acquired Valve Disease
Program Code:4
333.
The increased right heart pressures seen in valve disease are a result of
a)
Left ventricular hypertrophy
b)
Increased workload demands
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c)
Increased blood volume
d)
Increased pulmonary pressures
Keyword:
Acquired Valve Disease
Program Code:4
334.
A possible sequel to the development of thromboses in valve disease is
a)
Renal failure
b)
Cerebrovascular accident
c)
Coronary artery disease
d)
Peripheral vascular disease
Keyword:
Acquired Valve Disease
Program Code:4
335.
The use of albumin is unjustified in .
a)
Adult respiratory distress syndrome
b)
Burns
c)
Chronic liver disease
d)
Cardiopulmonary bypass
Keyword:
Blood Products Program Code:4
336.
Which of the following is (are) not a branch of the Right Coronary
Artery?
a)
Acute Marginal Branch
b)
Posterior Descending Branch
c)
Diagonal Branch
d)
a and c above
Keyword:
Heart Anatomy
Program Code:
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