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Practice Exam 13 251. Which causes vasoconstriction only in elevated concentrations? a) Norepinephrine b) Epinephrine c) Angiotensin II d) Vasopressin Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 252. The formation of prothrombin activator is the first stage of a) Platelet plug formation b) Vascular spasm c) Coagulation d) Clot retraction Keyword: Coagulation Program Code: 4 253. If crenation occurred, the solution would be with respect to the erythrocytes. a) Hypertonic b) Isosmotic c) Hypotonic d) Isotonic Keyword: Prime Solutions Program Code:4 254. Prolongation of the Thrombin Time may indicate a deficiency of a) Platelets b) Factor XIII c) Antihemophilic factors d) Fibrinogen Keyword: Coagulation Program Code: 4 255. The laboratory diagnosis of critical thrombocytopenia would probably be based on . a) Platelet adhesion studies b) Morphological examination c) Platelet count d) Thrombin-induced aggregation studies Keyword: Blood Composition Program Code: 4 256. Which of the following groups of factors are contained within the intrinsic system? a) VIII, IX, XI b) VII, VIII, IX c) V, VII, VIII d) III, V, VII Keyword: Coagulation Program Code: 4 257. Vitamin K-dependent factors include . a) II, IX, X b) II, V, XI c) I, VII, X d) V, VIII, IX Keyword: Coagulation Program Code: 4 258. Which of the following substances can cause renal vasodilation? a) Bradykinin b) Epinephrine c) Serotonin d) Angiotensin II Keyword: Circulatory Physiology Program Code:4 259. Renin secretion results in . a) Renal vasodilation b) Increased angiotensin II production c) Decreased Na+ reabsorption d) Increased H+ secretion
Keyword: Renal Program Code: 4 260. Which of the these statements is not true? a) Viscosity decreases with increased flow. b) Reynolds number for blood is 2000. c) Pressure is inversely proportional to flow and resistance. d) Blood is non-Newtonian in capillaries. Keyword: Circulatory Dynamics Program Code:4 261. Which of the following will cause a decrease in the p50? a) Hyperthermia b) Decreased pO2 c) Increased [H+] d) Decreased pCO2 Keyword: Oxygen Saturation Program Code: 4 262. The Bohr Effect relates to which of the following? a) Bicarbonate diffusion from the RBC into plasma causes a chloride shift. b) Adding oxygen to blood encourages CO2 release from the Hgb. c) The majority of CO2 is transported into the RBC. d) Adding CO2 to blood increases the release of oxygen from Hgb. 263. If all other factors are kept the same, elevating the venous pressure will have what effect on capillary dynamics? a) Decreased lymph flow. b) Decreased plasma COP. c) Increased capillary flow. d) Increased interstitial water. Keyword: Circulatory Dynamics Program Code:4 264. The osmotic pressure created by a 1.0 mOsm/L concentration of solute is approximately mm Hg. a) 7 b) 17 c) 37 d) 47 Keyword: Circulatory Dynamics Program Code:4 265. Colloid particles are . a) Larger than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and diffusible through biological membranes. b) Smaller than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes. c) Larger than 50,000 Da, separable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes. d) Larger than 50,000 Da, nonseparable by centrifugation and nondiffusible through biological membranes. Keyword: Priming Solutions Program Code:4 266. Action potentials: a) Cause the membrane potential to change from positive to negative and back again to positive. b) Involve the influx of Na+ ions to the inside of the cell. c) Create an electric current on the outside of the axon. d) Cannot be stimulated by hormones. 267. Nerve impulses reaching the neuromuscular junction do which of the following? a) Decrease the permeability of the muscle membrane to Na+. b) Cause vesicles of acetylcholine to rupture. c) Na+ migration causes local muscle membranes to become negatively charged on the inside. d) Acetylcholine moves into the muscle cell nucleus.
268. Which of the following statements is false concerning the oxygen dissociation curve? a) A normal pO2 of 90 mm Hg yields an O2 saturation of 97 percent. b) An arterial pO2 of 60 would yield an O2 saturation of approximately 92 percent. c) A normal venous saturation of 75 percent reflects pO2 approximately 40 torr. d) All of the above are true statements. Keyword: Oxygen Saturation Program Code: 4 269. A blood sample drawn on a patient with hemolyzed blood will show a) Decreased plasma free hemoglobin; decreased serum haptoglobin. b) Increased plasma free hemoglobin; increased serum haptoglobin. c) Increased plasma free hemoglobin; decreased serum haptoglobin. d) Decreased plasma free hemoglobin; increased serum haptoglobin. Keyword: Physiology of Blood Program Code:4 270. Which of the following would probably not be a cause of hyperkalemia while on bypass? a) Hemolysis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Thrombocytopenia d) Renal failure Keyword: CPB Blood Gases Program Code:4 271. Patients on long-term diuretic therapy tend to be . a) Hypoatremic, hyperkalemic, hypovolemic b) Hypernatremic, hypokalemic, hypovolemic c) Hypernatremic, hyperkalemic, hypovolemic d) Hyponatremic, hypokalemic, hypovolemic e) Hypernatremic, hypokalemic, normovolemic Keyword: Renal Physiology Program Code:4 272. The development of an expanded extracellular fluid space can: a) Lead to increased sodium and H2O retention. b) Not be affected by the duration of bypass. c) Be enhanced by adding bank blood to the prime. d) Be mediated by an increase in onocotic pressure of the prime. 273. Which of the following coagulation studies can be performed on both plasma and whole blood? a) Partial prothromboplastin time (PTT) b) Thrombin time (TT) c) Prothrombin time (PT) d) Activated clotting time (ACT) Keyword: Coagulation Lab Results Program Code: 4 274. The proper sequence for the conversion of the angiotensin system is 1) Angiotensin II 2) Angiotensinogen 3) ACE 4) Angiotensin III 5) Angiotensin I a) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 b) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 c) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 d) Not enough information given Keyword: Circulatory Physiology Pharmacology Program Code:4
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275. Wall tension is proportionate to the distending pressure times the radius of the vessel. This statement is the . a) Metabolic theory of autoregulation b) Myogenic theory of autoregulation c) Tissue pressure hypothesis of autoregulation d) Law of Laplace Keyword: Circulatory Dynamics Program Code:4 276. Hypertension during CPB can result from . a) Moderate hypothermia b) Decreased blood viscosity c) Mannitol d) Hemodilution Keyword: Circulatory Dynamics Program Code:4 277. Which of the following procedures should enhance fluid reabsorption during CPB in normal kidneys? a) Mannitol administration b) Increasing central venous pressure above normal levels c) Increasing arterial pressure d) Plasma infusion Keyword: Renal Program Code: 4 278. Phosphate and protein contribute to the body buffer system. a) Less than 90% b) Less than 10% c) 50% d) None of the above Keyword: Acid-Base Balance Program Code: 4 279. The slowest compensatory mechanism is . a) The respiratory system b) The bicarbonate system c) The renal system d) All respond immediately Keyword: Circulatory Physiology Program Code:4 280. Vasospasm can be induced by which of the following? a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Calcium administration c) Hyperventilation d) All of the above Keyword: Circulatory Physiology Program Code:4 281. Insulin . a) Promotes the degradation of glucose. b) Promotes the conversion to the more complex carbohydrate glycogen. c) Promotes glucosuria. d) Promotes the development of diabetes insipidus in patients. Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 282. The mechanism of action of alkalizing agents involves decreasing concentration of ions. a) H+ b) Ca++ c) Na++ d) K+ Keyword: Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 283. The following are processes that prostaglandins are involved in except . a) Regulation of the clotting cascade. b) Inflammation.
c) Pressure regulation. d) Carbohydrate metabolism. Keyword: Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 284. The main source of thromboxane A2 is . a) Pulmonary and vascular endothelial cells. b) Epithelial cells of the kidney. c) The platelet cell membrane. d) The cell membrane of liver cells. Keyword: Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 285. Effect of thiopental (pentothal) use includes the following except . a) Depression of the central nervous system. b) Muscle relaxation. c) Rapid recovery from its use with low doses. d) Myocardial depression and hypotension. Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 286. Pharmacologic agents effective in lowering the levels of circulating lipids include the following except . a) Cholestyramine b) Dextrthyroxine c) Scopolamine d) Nicotinic acid Keyword: PRe-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 287. Nitroglycerin, when given intravenously . a) Vasoconstricts pulmonary vasculature and increases pulmonary artery pressure. b) Is used to control introperative hypertension during cardiac surgery. c) Has little or no effect on coronary circulation. d) All of the above. Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 288. Which of the following agents are used to reduce preload in congestive heart failure? a) Morphine sulfate b) Nitrates c) Diuretics d) All of the above Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 289. At therapeutic levels, Digoxin (Lanoxin) acts to . a) Decrease contractile force of the myocardium. b) Enhance automatically by increasing the rate of sinoatrial node depolarization. c) Increase cardiac output by improved myocardial contractility. d) None of the above. Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 290. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) has both alpha and beta adrenergic effects. At low doses, which effect is more prominent? a) Alpha b) Beta c) Both are correct d) Neither are correct Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 291. The only form of insulin which can be given intravenously is a) Regular b) Semilente c) NPH
d) Humulin Lent (Humulin L) Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 292. The class IA antidysrhythmic which can be given intravenously for treatment of cardiac dyshythmias (PVC's, VT, AFib, PAT) associated with anesthesia and surgery is . a) Lidocaine (Xylocaine) b) Norpace ( Disopyramide ) - c) Amiodarone d) Pronestyl (Procainamide) Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 293. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) . a) Can be given IV push at a dose of 0.5 mg to 1 mg in asystole. b) Has mixed beta stimulation and, at higher doses, alpha stimulation effects. c) Can be given to the cardiac surgical patient in IV infusions of 1 - 4 mcg/min to treat low cardiac output states. d) All of the above. Keyword: CPB Intr-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 294. A synthetic catecholamine with pure beta adrenergic stimulator effects, describes . a) Epinephrine (Adrenalin) b) Norepinephrine (Levophed) c) Isoproterenol (Isuprel) d) Phenylephrine (Neosynephrine) Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 295. Which of the following is NOT a loop diuretic? a) Bumex b) Edecrin c) Diruil d) Furosemide Keyword: Renal Pharmacology Program Code:4 296. The loading dose of Inocor for a 75 Kg. patient would be . a) 25 mcg b) 56 mg c) 75 mcg d) 150 mcg Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 297. You are administering Nipride, 50 mg in 250 D5%W, via a pediatric administration set at the rate of 83 gtts/min. If the patient weighs 92 Kgs., what is the dosage per Kg. that the patient is receiving? a) 0.5 mcg b) 50 mcg c) 20 mcg d) 3 mcg Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 298. Your prime protocol calls for 30 mg/Kg of Solu-Medrol comes in a strength of 1 Gm/cc, how much will you need for a 73 Kg patient? a) 0.2 ccs b) 2 minims c) 2 ccs d) 20 ccs Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 299. This drug slows AV node conduction. It increases the force and velocity of myocardial contraction promoting more complex emptying of the heart. It is indicated for heart failure, atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation and paraxysmal atrial tachycardia.
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a) Quinidine b) Procainamide c) Digoxin d) Disopyramide Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 300. The pharmacokenetic aspect of pharmacology involves . a) Absorption, dosage, metabolism, and elimination b) Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion c) Action, peak time, duration, and dosage d) Action, metabolism, usage, and excretion Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 301. Which statement is correct regarding isoproterenol hydrochloride? a) The drug acts almost exlusively on alpha-adrenergic receptors. b) A therapeutic effect of this aspect is peripheral vasoconstriction. c) The drug lowers peripheral vascular resistance. d) The drug reduces cardiac contractility and conduction. Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 302. An example of a depolarizing muscle relaxant is . a) Tubocurrarine b) Pancuronium bromide c) Halothane d) Succinylcholine Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 303. Nitrates decrease afterload by . a) Dilating arteries b) Dilating veins c) Constricting arteries d) Constricting veins Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4 304. The physiologic effect of nitroprusside includes . a) Reduction of preload and afterload. b) Increasing cardiac output. c) Decreasing urinary output. d) Both a and b Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 305. Class 1-B antidysrhythmics are used to treat . a) Ventricular dysrhythmias only b) Atrial dysrhythmias only c) Bundle branch block d) Atrial & ventricular dysrhythmias Keyword: CPB Intra-op Pharmacology Program Code:4 306. The drug used for the immediate reversal of a narcotic-induced respiratory depression is . a) Norepinepherine b) Atropine c) Naloxone d) Dopamine Keyword: CPB Pre-op Pharmacology Program Code: 4 307. During and after streptokinase infusion, the client should be carefully monitored for signs of . a) Peripheral edema b) Dysenea c) Headache d) Urticaria Keyword: CPB Physiology Pharmacology Program Code: 4
308. Treatment for a blood transfusion reaction should include which modalities? a) Administration of Benzodiazapenes, nitroprusside, and hydroxyethel starch solution. b) Administration of platelets, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate. c) Administration of steroids, diuretics, and heparin. d) Administration of vasopressors, antibiotics, and cryoprecipitate. Keyword: Catastrophic Event Management Program Code: 4 309. Balloon atrial septostomy was introduced by . a) Taussig b) Waterson c) Rashkind d) Mustard Keyword: Congenital Heart Defects Program Code:4 310. Double outlet-right ventricle is sometimes referred to as a) Trilogy of Fallot b) Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return c) Partial transposition d) Corrected transposition Keyword: Congenital Heart Defects Program Code:4 320. The most common complication assoicated with syphilitic heart disease is . a) Aortic valve stenosis b) Aortic aneurysms c) Aortic valve insuffiency d) Coronary ostia stenosis Keyword: Acquired Valve Disease Program Code:4 321. The lungs are contained in the cavity. a) Pleural b) Mediastinal c) Pericardial d) Retroperitoneal Keyword: Heart Anatomy Program Code:4 322. Electrolytes are . a) Charged atoms or molecules found in body fluids. b) Molecules capable of producing electricity. c) Molecules that dissociate in an electricle field. d) Exclusively strong acids or bases. Keyword: Acid-Base Balance Program Code: 4 323. Baroreceptors are. a) Stimulated by increased distention of the structure and discharge at an increased rate. b) Inhibited by increased distension of the structure and discharge at an increased rate. c) Inhibited by increased distension of the structure and discharge at a decreased rate. d) Stimulated by increased distension of the structure and discharge at a decreased rate. Keyword: Heart Anatomy Program Code:4 324. The normal pH range of venous blood is . a) 7.31 - 7.41 b) 7.30 - 7.45 c) 7.35 - 7.45 d) 7.35 - 7.38 Keyword: Blood Gases Program Code: 4
325. The corrective procedure using a conduit to connect the RA with the MPA is . a) Rastelli b) Fontan c) Norwood d) Glenn Keyword: Congenital Heart Defects Program Code:4 326. The following pressure parameters describe what defect? RA is 8, RV is 100/0-15, PA is 80/60, LA is 15, LV is 80/0-15, and AO is 80/40. a) Truncus Arteriosus b) Transportation of great vessels c) Hypoplasty left heart d) Tetralogy of Fallot Keyword: Congenital Heart Defects Program Code:4 327. In truncus arteriosus, a chest X-ray will usually reveal . a) Dextroposition b) Boot-shaped cardiac silhouette - ToF c) Cardiomegaly d) Nothing of any diagnostic value Keyword: Congenital Heart Defects Program Code:4 328. The most common use of isolated limb perfusion is in the treatment of malignant . a) Squamous carcinomas b) Melanomas c) Lymphomas d) Sarcomas Keyword: Isolated Limb Perfusion Program Code:4 329. Vessels responsible for the dampening of the systolic output are vessels. a) Thebesian b) Capacitance c) Windkessel d) Borrelli Keyword: Heart Anatomy Program Code:4 330. Albumin accounts for what percent of the plasma proteins? a) 25% b) 35% c) 45% d) 55% Keyword: Body Fluid Composition Program Code:4 331. In mitral stenosis, the following may be detrimental: a) Tachycardia b) Slow heart rate (50 BPM) c) Adequate hydration d) None of the above Keyword: Acquired Valve Disease Program Code:4 332. Differential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism may be made by noting . a) That the CVP and PA are high. b) That the CVP is low while the PA and PCW are high. c) The the CVP and PA are high while the PCW is low. d) The the CVP is normal and the PA and PCW are high. Keyword: Acquired Valve Disease Program Code:4 333. The increased right heart pressures seen in valve disease are a result of a) Left ventricular hypertrophy b) Increased workload demands
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c) Increased blood volume d) Increased pulmonary pressures Keyword: Acquired Valve Disease Program Code:4 334. A possible sequel to the development of thromboses in valve disease is a) Renal failure b) Cerebrovascular accident c) Coronary artery disease d) Peripheral vascular disease Keyword: Acquired Valve Disease Program Code:4 335. The use of albumin is unjustified in . a) Adult respiratory distress syndrome b) Burns c) Chronic liver disease d) Cardiopulmonary bypass Keyword: Blood Products Program Code:4 336. Which of the following is (are) not a branch of the Right Coronary Artery? a) Acute Marginal Branch b) Posterior Descending Branch c) Diagonal Branch d) a and c above Keyword: Heart Anatomy Program Code: