AP 1 FINAL TEST 12-11

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HUMAN ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY I DECEMBER 11, 2023 EXAM III NAME: ____________________________________ 1

1. Nerve impulses that reduce the heart's rate of contraction belong to which division of the nervous system? A. sensory division B. somatic nervous system C. sympathetic division D. parasympathetic division 2. Cranial nerve II sends impulses to the brain to interpret the things we see; thus, cranial nerve II is considered a/an _____. A. efferent nerve B. somatic nerve C. afferent nerve D. peripheral nerve 3. Which of the choices below best describes the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A. motor nerves that send impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands B. motor nerves that transmit nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles C. somatic receptors in the head that control the special senses D. sensory and motor neurons that supply innervation to the digestive tract 4. Which of the following is NOT a function of the somatic nervous system? A. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract B. innervation of cardiac muscle C. innervation of glands D. innervation of skeletal muscle 5. The _____ and the medulla oblongata work together to produce respiration. A. brainstem B. pons C. midbrain D. cerebrum 6. Nerve impulses that carry information about skin temperature are nerves that belong to which division of the nervous system? A. sensory division B. somatic nervous system C. sympathetic division D. parasympathetic division Indicate if the action is influenced by the parasympathetic (P) or sympathetic (S) nervous system. 7. pain. _____ 8. digestion. _____ 9. salivation. _____ 10. vasodilation. _____ 2

11. Spinal nerves are part of the _____ nervous system. A. central B. peripheral C. autonomic D. somatic 12. Broca's area _____. A. controls eye movements B. is in the frontal lobe C. allows complex thoughts D. contributes to motor movements E. is in the temporal lobe 13. A doctor asks you to follow his finger up and down with only your eyes and then left and right. Which cranial nerve is he testing? A. optic B. vestibulocochlear C. facial D. oculomotor E. trigeminal 14. Secretions from the adrenal glands cause a/an _____. A. parasympathetic response B. sympathetic response C. vagal response D. somatic response 15. Which of these is NOT a sensory nerve? A. oculomotor B. olfactory C. trigeminal D. glossopharyngeal E. all are sensory nerves F. all are motor nerves 16. Falling or stumbling might involve problems with this nerve. A. abducens B. vestibulocochlear C. trigeminal D. accessory E. vagus 17. Stapes, saccule, and incus are structures of the _____. A. eye B. midbrain C. outer ear 3

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D. middle ear 18. Sympathetic stimulation causes _____. A. increased gastrointestinal activity, increased heart rate and blood pressure B. increased gastrointestinal activity, decreased heart rate and blood pressure C. decreased gastrointestinal activity, and increased heart rate and blood pressure D. increased gastrointestinal activity, decreased heart rate and blood pressure 19. This structure is composed of smooth muscle and it controls the amount of light that enters the eye. A. retina B. pupil C. iris D. conjunctiva E. sclera 20. The spinal cord originates at/near the _____, passes through the foramen magnum and enters the _____. A. occipital lobe; cervical region B. squamous suture; atlas C. occipital bone; thoracic spine D. cervical spine; superior section 21. The parietal lobe of the brain is located within the _____. A. craniofacial skeleton B. axial skeleton C. peripheral nervous system D. ventral cavity 22. What body cavities contain the primary structures of the CNS? ___________________________ 23. Which is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord from superior to inferior? A. thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves B. cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves C. thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves D. cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves E. cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves F. 24. The nerve that contains sensory fibers involved in hearing is: A. cranial nerve 2 B. cranial nerve 3 C. cranial nerve 5 D. cranial nerve 8 25. The spinal cord is NOT protected by _____. A. myelin sheaths B. meninges C. nerves 4

D. CSF 26. Dopamine is a hormone associated with the _____. A. parasympathetic nervous system B. sympathetic nervous system C. somatic nervous system D. peripheral nervous system 27. Which area of the brain is responsible for mathematical skills? __________________ 28. An accumulation of blood between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater is called a/an _____. A. dural hemorrhage B. epidural hemorrhage C. subdural hemorrhage D. subarachnoid hemorrhage 29. The portion of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the skin, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses is the _____ division. A. somatic motor B. autonomic motor C. visceral sensory D. somatic sensory 30. Which cranial nerve transmits auditory information to the brain? A. accessory B. optic C. vestibulocochlear D. trochlear 31. Difficulty comprehending speech may indicate a problem with _____. A. the cerebral cortex B. the motor speech area C. Wernicke’s area D. the somatic nervous system E. Broca’s area 32. Mechanoreceptors are found in the _____. A. cells B. blood C. skin D. inner ear E. all the above 33. Gustation is sense of _____. A. smell B. taste C. sound 5

D. vision 34. The sensory receptors for smell are found in _____. A. papillae B. gustatory epithelia C. olfactory epithelium D. ossicles 35. Where are there thermoreceptors and nociceptors? A. mouth B. eye C. inner ear D. cerebral cortex 36. Which of the following does NOT protect the eyeball? A. conjunctiva B. eyelashes C. eyebrows D. cornea E. retina 37. The _____ nerve controls pupil dilation and constriction, and is part of the _____ system. A. abducens; SNS B. vestibulocochlear; SNS C. optic; PNS D. oculomotor; ANS 38. A male dives into a pool and suffers a cervical spine injury. In addition to fractured cervical vertebrae, he also has difficulty breathing. Which nerve is likely damaged? A. CN 6 B. abducens C. phrenic D. CN 4 E. diaphragm 39. The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes of the brain are part of the _____. A. diencephalon B. cerebrum C. cerebral cortex D. forebrain 40. The _____ is divided into left and right hemispheres which are paired together by the _____. A. cerebellum; corpus callosum B. brain; cerebrum C. cerebral cortex; ventricles D. cerebrum; corpus callosum 6

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41. What is the deepest meningeal layer called? _____________________ 42. Which of the following actions is the somatic nervous system responsible for? A. reacting to visceral pain B. the ability to see distinct colors C. increased respiratory rate D. flexing the bicep 43. Which of the following cranial nerves has both sensory and motor functions? A. vestibulocochlear B. optic C. trigeminal D. olfactory 44. Which cranial nerves emerge from the cerebrum, not the brainstem? (Select all that apply) A. CN 9 B. CN 1 C. CN 10 D. CN 5 E. CN 2 F. CN 3 45. A patient suffered a stroke leaving him unable to swallow. Which cranial nerve is affected? A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 4 46. The cerebral hemispheres are paired by _____. A. lobes B. regions C. divisions D. corpus callosum E. sulci 47. Select all the functions of the hypothalamus. A. controls autonomic nervous system B. reactive response to odors C. controls thirst D. regulates sleep 48. The ________ nerve innervates the trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and pharyngeal muscles. A. facial B. oculomotor C. hypoglossal D. accessory 7

49. TRUE or FALSE? Afferent and efferent nerves are part of the somatic nervous system. _____ 50. Cranial nerves are part of the _____________________ nervous system. 51. Which of these muscles does NOT participate in movement? A. pectoralis major B. flexor digitorum C. quadriceps femoris D. vastus lateralis E. all participate in movement 52. Which of the following is NOT a function of muscle? A. storing red and white blood cells B. aid in locomotion C. protect organs D. generate heat E. assist in stabilizing joints 53. What is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber? A. myofibril B. sarcomere C. striations D. endomysium 54. Muscle contraction occurs when myosin pulls actin toward _____. A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. calcium C. sarcomeres D. myofibrils 55. What protein is found in thin myofilaments? A. actin B. tropomyosin C. troponin D. myosin 56. Which of these muscles enables dorsiflexion? A. anterior tibialis B. occipitofrontalis C. extensor digitorum D. soleus E. vastus medialis 57. Each myofibril is surrounded by fibrous connective tissue sheaths called _____. A. sarcomeres B. perimysium 8

C. endomysium D. epimysium 58. Central nervous system homeostasis relies wholly on _____. A. the brain B. the brainstem C. cerebrospinal fluid D. the blood-brain barrier 59. The more energy a muscle expends, the more _____ it requires. A. adenosine triphosphate B. energy C. sucrose D. blood E. filaments 60. Choose the statement about the brainstem that is FALSE. A. 10 of the 12 cranial nerves emerge from the brainstem B. the brainstem is critically important to supporting homeostasis C. the brainstem regulates pulse, sleep, respiration, and consciousness D. the brainstem is covered in meninges E. the brainstem plays a role in the sleep-wake cycle 61. An individual severs his spinal cord in the area of T6. This injury will result in which of the following outcomes? A. paralysis below the hips B. paralysis below the cervical spine C. paralysis above the waist D. paralysis of all four limbs 62. The thoracic nerve plexus: A. controls movement of the limbs B. includes the phrenic nerve C. is in the region of T1 and T12 D. all the above 63. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm? A. abducens B. vagus C. phrenic D. trochlear 64. A muscle contracts when _____ in the _____ is released into muscle cells. A. calcium; sarcoplasmic reticulum B. ATP; ER C. sodium; cells 9

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D. potassium; sarcoplasmic reticulum 65. All muscle tissues: A. have striations B. are types of epithelial tissue C. exhibit extensibility and contractility D. can fully function after an injury 66. This connective tissue attaches muscle to bone. A. epimysium B. perimysium C. tendon D. ligament E. cartilage 67. Muscle tissue that contracts involuntarily. A. skeletal muscle only B. cardiac muscle only C. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle D. smooth muscle only E. cardiac muscle and smooth muscle 68. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion used to name muscles? A. number of origins of the muscle B. shape of the muscle C. how muscle attaches to bone D. relative size of the muscle E. action of the muscle 69. A muscle located on the dorsal side of the body is the: A. biceps brachii B. rectus femoris C. deltoid D. latissimus dorsi E. sternocleidomastoid 70. The _____ is an extension of the optic nerve, also known as cranial nerve II. A. cornea B. retina C. pupil D. iris E. lens 10

71. The neurologist asks the patient to open his mouth and say “Ah.” At the same time, he touches the posterior aspect of the patient’s tongue with a tongue depressor, triggering the gag reflex. Which cranial nerves were assessed? A. CN 4 and 7 B. CN 9 and 10 C. CN 12 and 5 D. CN 7 and 6 72. A patient presents to the emergency department unable to move their right eye laterally. Which cranial nerve has been damaged? A. CN 6 B. CN 1 C. CN 3 D. CN 4 73. A patient tore his biceps femoris muscle while exercising. Which of these movements is he now incapable of doing? A. abducting the arm laterally B. flexing or extending the arm C. extending or flexing the leg D. adducting the shoulder E. rotation or circumduction of the arm F. dorsiflexion or plantarflexion of the foot 74. Which of these structures of the brain have neuro-endocrine functions? (Select all that apply) A. pineal B. hypothalamus C. thyroid D. thalamus E. cerebrum F. cerebellum G. pituitary 75. How many spinal nerves are there? _________ 11

AP 1 FINAL TEST 12-11

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