HTHSCI 1H06 Sample Midyear Exam F2023 (without answers)
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McMaster University *
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1H06
Subject
Anatomy
Date
Jan 9, 2024
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19
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HTHSCI 1H06A
*** SAMPLE MIDYEAR EXAM ***
Human Anatomy and Physiology
Instructor:
Dr. Peter Helli
DAY CLASS
DURATION OF EXAMINATION: 2 Hours
MCMASTER UNIVERSITY MIDYEAR EXAMINATION
December 2023
THIS EXAMINATION PAPER INCLUDES
XX PAGES AND 75 QUESTIONS
WORTH A
TOTAL OF 90 MARKS
.
YOU ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR ENSURING THAT YOUR COPY
OF THE PAPER IS COMPLETE.
BRING ANY DISCREPANCY TO THE ATTENTION OF
YOUR INVIGILATOR.
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS:
PLEASE WRITE YOUR NAME AND STUDENT NUMBER ON EVERY PAGE.
PLEASE NOTE THAT THERE IS ONLY ONE VERSION OF THIS EXAM
THIS EXAMINATION HAS TWO (2) SECTIONS.
1. SECTION
A
CONTAINS
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
QUESTIONS
THAT
MUST
BE
ANSWERED
USING
AN
OPTICAL
MARK
RECOGNITION
(OMR)
ANSWER
SHEET.
DETAILED
INSTRUCTIONS
FOR
FILLING
OUT
AN
OMR
SHEET
CAN
BE
FOUND
ON
PAGE
2.
PLEASE LEAVE THE VERSION COLUMN ON THE OMR (SCANTRON) SHEET
BLANK.
2.
SECTION
B
CONTAINS
FIGURE
QUESTIONS
THAT
ARE
TO
BE
ANSWERED
IN
THE
SPACES
PROVIDED
ON
THE
EXAM
PAPER.
THE EXAM PAPER AND THE OMR SHEET MUST BE HANDED IN AT THE END OF THE
EXAMINATION.
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OMR EXAMINATION - STUDENT INSTRUCTIONS
NOTE:
IT IS YOUR RESPONSIBILITY TO ENSURE THAT THE ANSWER SHEET IS
PROPERLY COMPLETED:
YOUR EXAMINATION RESULT DEPENDS UPON
PROPER ATTENTION TO THESE INSTRUCTIONS.
The scanner, which reads the sheets, senses the shaded areas by their non-reflection of
light.
A heavy mark must be made, completely filling the circular bubble, with an HB pencil.
Marks made with a pen or felt-tip marker will
NOT
be sensed.
Erasures must be thorough,
or the scanner may still sense a mark.
Do
NOT
use correction fluid on the sheets.
Do
NOT
put any unnecessary marks or writing on the sheet.
1.
On side 1 (red side) of the form, in the top box, in pencil, print your student
number
(NOTE: 9 digits)
, name, course name, instructor name and date in
the spaces provided.
Then you
MUST
sign in the space marked
SIGNATURE.
2.
To indicate your answers, mark only
ONE
choice from the alternatives
(1,2,3,4,5 or a,b,c,d,e) provided for each question.
The question number is
to the left of the bubbles.
Make sure that the number of the question on the
scan sheet is the same as the question number on the test paper.
3.
Pay particular attention to the Marking Directions on the form.
4.
Begin answering questions using the first set of bubbles, marked "1".
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SECTION A
(Maximum of 66 marks)
ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION ARE TO BE ANSWERED ON THE
OMR (SCANTRON) SHEET.
(Each question is worth 1 mark)
THERE IS ONLY ONE CORRECT ANSWER.
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
1.
Which section plane that divides the body into superior and inferior halves?
A) Sagittal plane
B) Coronal plane
C) Transverse plane
D) Frontal plane
Something, something, something...
2.
Which cranial nerve is MOST responsible for closing the eyelids?
A) Optic nerve (CN II)
B) Oculomotor nerve (CN III)
C) Facial nerve (CN VII)
D) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
3.
In the ear, midrange frequencies are detected by which structure?
A) The basilar membrane
B) The vestibular membrane
C) The middle of the spiral organ
D) The tectorial membrane
4.
Which structure do bacteria and viruses travel through to cause a middle ear infection?
A) External auditory meatus
B) Tympanic membrane
C) Auditory tube
D) Mastoid air cells
5.
Which of the following structures is LEAST involved in hearing?
A) Vestibulocochlear nerve
B) Spiral organ
C) Semicircular canals
D) Ossicles
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6.
How does the thoracic spinal cord differ from other sections of the spinal cord?
A) It contains dorsal grey matter
B) It contains lateral grey matter
C) It contains lateral white matter
D) It contains dorsal white matter
7.
Afferent information for pain and temperature sensations:
A) Enter the spinal cord by the ventral root of a spinal nerve
B) Synapse with neurons in the ventral grey horn of the spinal cord
C) Cross over in the brainstem at the level of the medulla oblongata
D) Are conveyed to the brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus
8.
Proprioceptive information travels up which two white matter tracts of the spinal cord?
A) Dorsal columns and spinocerebellar tracts
B) Corticospinal and spinocerebellar tracts
C) Dorsal columns and spinothalamic tracts
D) Spinothalamic and spinocerebellar tracts
9.
A 19-year-old suffers a penetrating injury that has severed the left half of the spinal cord at the
T6 level. Which deficit would you expect the patient to experience?
A) Spastic paralysis of muscles in the right lower limb
B) Atrophy and hyporeflexia in the muscles of the left lower limb
C) Loss of touch and pressure sensations below the lesion on the right-hand side
D) Loss of pain and temperature sensations below the lesion on the right-hand side
10. A lesion to the lateral corticospinal tracts would be accompanied by which clinical sign?
A) Hyporeflexia
B) Muscle atrophy
C) Positive Babinski sign
D) Flaccid paralysis
11. Paresis in the T5 myotome that is NOT accompanied by sensory loss in the same dermatome is
likely due to damage to what structure?
A) T5 ventral spinal root
B) T5 mixed spinal nerve
C) T5 dorsal root ganglion
D) T5 ventral ramus
12. A patient presents with loss of sensation in the distribution of the musculocutaneous nerve but
has no difficulties in elbow flexion.
Where is the lesion located?
A) Upper roots of the brachial plexus
B) Lower roots of the brachial plexus
C) Musculocutaneous nerve at the elbow
D) Musculocutaneous nerve at the axilla
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13. Upper motor neurons are present in all the following structures, EXCEPT the:
A) Precentral gyrus of the cortex
B) Cerebral peduncles of the midbrain
C) Pyramidal tracts of the medulla
D) Ventral motor root of the spinal cord
14. Different types of connective tissue contain different types of cells.
Which is the predominant
cell type found in mature, compact bone?
A) Chondrocytes
B) Osteocytes
C) Osteoblasts
D) Osteoclasts
15. Which of the following statements concerning a synovial joint is INCORRECT?
A) The joint capsule spans the joint and is continuous with the periosteum of the bone.
B) Synovial joints have the greatest mobility but at the same time are the least stable.
C) The ends of the bones contained within the joint are completely ossified.
D) A meniscus (articular disc) helps improve the fit of two bones with different shapes.
16. How would a bone fracture that results in multiple splintered segments of bone that pierce the
skin be classified?
A) Simple compression fracture
B) Compound comminuted fracture
C) Simple greensick fracture
D) Compound spiral fracture
17. Which type of joint is formed between the radius and humerus and allows for supination /
pronation of the forearm?
A) Ball and socket joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Condyloid joint
18. When does contraction (force generation) in skeletal muscle begin?
A) When acetylcholine binds to ligand gated ion channels on the motor end plate
B) When sodium ions enter through voltage gated ion channels on the muscle fiber
C) When an action potential travels down the t-tubules of the muscle fiber
D) When calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fiber
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19. Which of the following shortens during muscle contraction?
A) Actin
B) Myosin
C) I-band
D) A-band
20. An adult has more muscle mass than a child.
Which process is responsible for this increase in
muscle mass?
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Necrosis
D) Hypertrophy
21. Which of the following statements regarding muscle fiber types is CORRECT?
A) Fast glycolytic fibers resist fatigue
B) Slow oxidative fibers are always recruited first
C) Fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers produce the most force
D) Slow oxidative fibers are the largest fibers
22. Which of the following is an extrinsic muscle of the back?
A) Rhomboids
B) Spino-transverse system
C) Transverso-spinal system
D) Rectus abdominis
23. Back pain due to L5 nerve entrapment is best assessed by performing which test?
A) An Achilles tendon reflex test
B) A straight leg test beyond 30 degrees
C) A patellar tendon reflex test
D) A test for sensory loss on the medial thigh
24. Which structure helps to prevent the sacrum from tilting forward when standing erect?
A) Sacroiliac joint
B) Anterior longitudinal ligament
C) Sacrospinous ligament
D) Spino-transverse muscles
25. The interspinous ligaments of the vertebrae:
A) Serve to connect the lamina of adjacent vertebrae
B) Serve to connect the bodies of adjacent vertebrae
C) Are composed mainly of elastic tissue that stretches and recoils
D) Serve as an attachment site for some intrinsic back muscles
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26. A patient experiences loss of sensation in a stripe of skin along the front and back of the medial
aspect of the arm and forearm. This is accompanied by paresis of the finger adductors. The
lesion would most likely be in the:
A) Lower roots of the brachial plexus
B) Upper roots of the brachial plexus
C) Median nerve
D) Ulnar nerve
27. Which nerve innervates the deltoid muscle?
A) Axillary nerve
B) Long thoracic nerve
C) Thoraco-dorsal nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
28. Which statement concerning the pectoralis muscles of the anterior chest wall is CORRECT?
A) The pectoralis major is a stabilizer of the scapula
B) The pectoralis minor is superficial to the pectoralis major
C) The pectoralis minor aids in retraction of the scapula
D) The pectoralis major aids in flexion of the shoulder
29. Which nerve is responsible for conveying cutaneous sensations from the anterolateral aspect of
the forearm?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Median
D) Musculocutaneous
30. A tear in the supraspinatus muscle would likely result in difficulties:
A) Adducting the humerus
B) Abducting the arm (first 20 degrees)
C) Extending the cervical vertebrae
D) Elevating the scapula
31. Which structure is injured in a shoulder separation?
A) Joint capsule
B) Rotator cuff muscles
C) Axillary nerve
D) Acromioclavicular ligament
32. Injury to the median nerve, proximal to the elbow, be associated with:
A) Loss of sensation in the T1 dermatome
B) Difficulties abducting and adducting the fingers
C) Difficulties in flexion and opposition of the thumb
D) Loss of sensation on the lateral aspect of the forearm
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33. Which superficial muscle of the forearm allows one to form a good grip with the palm of the hand
so that they can “swing from the chandelier”?
A) Pronator teres
B) Flexor carpi radialis
C) Palmaris longus
D) Flexor digitorum profundus
34. Which
structure forms the ‘roof’ of the carpal tunnel?
A) The transverse carpal ligament
B) The flexor tendon sheath
C) The carpal bones
D) The extensor retinaculum
35. The muscles of the thenar and hypothenar eminence of the hand work together to perform
which action?
A) Flexion of the metacarpal-phalangeal joint
B) Adduction of the digits
C) Opposition of the digits
D) Adduction of the thumb
36. Which muscle extends, abducts, and externally rotates the thigh?
A) Gluteus medius
B) Gluteus maximus
C) Iliopsoas
D) Tensor fascia latae
37. Contraction of which muscle will result in extension of the hip joint.
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Quadriceps
C) Iliopsoas
D) Quadratus lumborum
38. Which of the following is LEAST responsible for stabilizing the hip joint?
A) Iliopsoas muscle
B) Superior gluteal nerve
C) Iliofemoral ligament
D) Gluteus maximus muscle
39. Which structure does the tibial nerve pass through to exit the pelvis and enter the lower limb?
A) Inguinal canal
B) Adductor hiatus
C) Greater sciatic foramen
D) Obturator foramen
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40. Which of the following is MOST involved in stabilizing the knee?
A) Biceps femoris muscle
B) Tibial nerve
C) Semitendinosus muscle
D) Quadriceps muscle
41. Which of the following is MOST involved in unlocking the knee?
A) Cruciate ligaments
B) Lateral meniscus
C) Medial collateral ligament
D) Joint capsule
42. Which structure is responsible for putting the ankle into the MOST stable position?
A)
Gastrocnemius muscle
B)
Anterior tibio-fibular ligament
C)
Tibialis posterior muscle
D)
Fibular nerve
43. The muscles responsible for extension of the toes are found where?
A) Dorsal surface of the foot
B) Plantar surface of the foot
C) Anterolateral compartment of leg
D) Posterior compartment of leg
44. Which structure is NOT involved in orienting the head help to maintain balance?
A) Cochlea
B) Accessory nerve (XI)
C) Medial cerebellum
D) Otoliths of macula
45. How can hormone secretion be regulated?
A) By changes in blood ion composition
B) By the nervous system
C) By negative feedback mechanisms
D) By all the above
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46. Which of the following statements concerning endocrine hormones is INCORRECT?
A) Lipophilic hormones normally will enter the cell and after a few steps bind to a hormone
response element
B) Oxytocin binds to intracellular receptors which enter the nucleus to activate hormone
response elements
C) Hydrophilic hormones normally bind to surface receptors and cause production of second
messengers within the cell
D) Production of a second messenger leads to amplification of the effects of hormone binding
47. A 30-year-old person has been living with an undiagnosed growth hormone-secreting tumour of
the anterior pituitary for the past 5 years.
Which of the following would you expect to observe in
this person?
A) Persistently low blood glucose levels (hypoglycemia)
B) Gigantism (increased height) due to excessive long bone growth
C) Course facial features, thickened skin, and broadened nose
D) Elevated levels of growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)
48. Where is the hormone oxytocin
produced
?
A) In the hypothalamus
B) In the posterior pituitary
C) In the cervix
D) In the anterior pituitary
49. A patient has a thyroid adenoma that is secreting large amounts of thyroid hormone.
Which of
the following
would you expect to observe in this patient’s blood work?
A) Low T
3
and T
4
levels
B) High TSH levels
C) Low TRH levels
D) High cholesterol levels
50. Which of the following statements regarding thyroid hormones is CORRECT?
A) Their release is regulated by a positive feedback pathway
B) Peripheral tissues convert T4 into T3
C) The thyroid gland mainly makes T3 (triiodothyronine)
D) Thyroid hormone is made by modifying the amino acid tryptophan
51. The parathyroid glands secrete a hormone that:
A) Reduces serum calcium levels
B) Decreases the activity of osteoclasts
C) Antagonizes the effects of calcitonin
D) Enhances kidney excretion of calcium
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52. Why is the hormone calcitonin less effective in adults than it is in children?
A) Because osteoblasts are more active in children than adults
B) Because androgens and estrogens promote the closure of the epiphyseal growth plates
C) Because parathyroid hormone promotes renal production of active vitamin D
D) Because osteoclasts are less active in children than adults
53. Which layer of the adrenal gland is responsible for salt and water balance?
A) Fasciculata
B) Reticularis
C) Glomerulosa
D) Medulla
54. The stress response involves release of all the following, EXCEPT:
A) ACTH from the posterior pituitary
B) Catecholamines from the adrenal medulla
C) Mineralocorticoids from the zona glomerulosa
D) Cortisol from the zona fasciculata
55. A second-year nursing student is preparing to meet their very first client in the clinical setting.
As the student approaches the room, they notice their palms become cool and sweaty, their
heart begins to race, and their mouth suddenly feels dry.
Which of the following mediators is responsible for this physiological response?
A) Mineralocorticoids
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Cortisol
D) Catecholamines
So on and so forth...
CONTINUE TO
SECTION B
(ANSWERS TO BE PLACED IN THE SPACES PROVIDED)
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SECTION B
(24 marks)
ANSWERS TO BE PLACED IN THE SPACES PROVIDED.
THE MARK ALLOCATION IS INDICATED FOR EACH QUESTION.
Question 1 (3 marks)
Identify the muscle group indicated by
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
What is their main action on the vertebral column?
(0.5 marks)
How are these muscles innervated?
(0.5 marks)
List two (2) muscles whose primary function is to antagonize this muscle group:
(0.5 marks)
(0.5 marks)
A tear in this muscle group near its attachment at the spine would give rise to what form of
back pain?
(0.5 marks)
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Question 2 (3 marks)
Identify muscle
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
Name one function of
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
Identify muscle
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
Name one function of muscle
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
Identify muscle
(C)
.
(0.5 marks)
Name one function of muscle
(C)
.
(0.5 marks)
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Page 14 of XX
Question 3 (3 marks)
Identify the muscle indicated by
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
What peripheral nerve innervates muscle
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
What artery accompanies muscle
(A)
in this region?
(0.5 marks)
Name one major function of muscle
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
What levels of the spinal cord are tested by eliciting a deep tendon reflex in muscle
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
Name one muscle that antagonizes the actions of muscle
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
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Page 15 of XX
Question 4 (3 marks)
Identify the bone indicated by
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
Identify the muscle indicated by
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
What peripheral nerve innervates muscle
(B)
?
(0.5 marks)
What major artery supplies blood to muscle
(C)
?
(0.5 marks)
Muscles
(B)
&
(C)
work together (synergistically) to perform what action?
(0.5 marks)
A fall on an outstretched hand can fracture the distal segment of bone
(D)
.
What is this
fracture specifically termed?
(0.5 marks)
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Question 5 (3 marks)
Identify the depression
(A)
at the base of the thumb (borders indicated by dashed lines).
(0.5 marks)
The tendon of what muscle forms the superior border of depression
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
What artery runs through the base of depression
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
Pain in depression
(A),
after a fall on an outstretched hand, is due to injury to what bone?
(0.5 marks)
What intrinsic muscles of the hand flexes joint
(B)
?
(0.5 marks)
What peripheral nerve(s) innervate the muscles that flex joint
(B)
?
(0.5 marks)
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Question 6 (3 marks)
Identify the structure indicated by
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
Identify the bone indicated by
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
From which major artery does bone
(B)
receive its blood supply?
(0.5 marks)
What muscle is MOST responsible for stabilizing this joint when it is bearing weight as a
person is walking?
(0.5 marks)
What nerve passes through opening
(C)
?
(0.5 marks)
What muscle group is innervated by the nerve that passes through opening C?
(0.5 marks)
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Question 7 (3 marks)
Identify the bone labeled
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
In what position is this joint most stable (locked)?
(0.5 marks)
Identify the muscle labeled
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
What is the function of muscle
(B)
?
(0.5 marks)
Identify the structure labeled
(C)
.
(0.5 marks)
What peripheral nerve passes over the neck of bone
(D)
?
(0.5 marks)
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Question 8 (3 marks)
Identify the muscle group labeled
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
What artery directly supplies blood to muscle
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
What peripheral nerve innervates muscle
(A)
?
(0.5 marks)
What bony prominence do the tendons of muscle
(A)
pass over to alter their direction?
(0.5 marks)
Name one major action of muscle
(A)
.
(0.5 marks)
Identify the bone labeled
(B)
.
(0.5 marks)
THE END