is this statement true or false? and the explanation to why? Manufacturing highly standardized products are usually more profitable in high context cultures due to economies of scale. also, how does this then affect low-context culture in comparison? As extra explanation: High-context cultures are those that communicate in ways that are implicit and rely heavily on context. In contrast, low-context cultures rely on explicit verbal communication. Can you explain what does this have to do with them being more profitable in standardized products?? my personal assumption is that: high context culture are countries like Japan, China, France, and Brazil, Therefore, countries that buy a lot of rice, bread, milk, and standardized products so maybe its true?. but that is my assumption of these countries based on stereotype :( therefore, not a good argument? or maybe am looking at the statement completely wrong? :( help
is this statement true or false? and the explanation to why? Manufacturing highly standardized products are usually more profitable in high context cultures due to economies of scale. also, how does this then affect low-context culture in comparison? As extra explanation: High-context cultures are those that communicate in ways that are implicit and rely heavily on context. In contrast, low-context cultures rely on explicit verbal communication. Can you explain what does this have to do with them being more profitable in standardized products?? my personal assumption is that: high context culture are countries like Japan, China, France, and Brazil, Therefore, countries that buy a lot of rice, bread, milk, and standardized products so maybe its true?. but that is my assumption of these countries based on stereotype :( therefore, not a good argument? or maybe am looking at the statement completely wrong? :( help
Chapter1: Making Economics Decisions
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 1QTC
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is this statement true or false? and the explanation to why?
- Manufacturing highly standardized products are usually more profitable in high context cultures due to economies of scale.
- also, how does this then affect low-context culture in comparison?
- As extra explanation: High-context cultures are those that communicate in ways that are implicit and rely heavily on context. In contrast, low-context cultures rely on explicit verbal communication. Can you explain what does this have to do with them being more profitable in standardized products?? my personal assumption is that: high context culture are countries like Japan, China, France, and Brazil, Therefore, countries that buy a lot of rice, bread, milk, and standardized products so maybe its true?. but that is my assumption of these countries based on stereotype :( therefore, not a good argument? or maybe am looking at the statement completely wrong? :( help
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