Now assume that both firms are in the market and they choose quantities to supply. Assume also that, in equilibrium, firm 1 supplies 1/4 of the market, while firm 2 supplies the remaining 3/4. Then, in equilibrium,   Question 2 options:   Firm 1 charges a larger (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is smaller than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.   Firm 1 charges a smaller (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. However, Firm 1's mark-up is larger than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.   Firm 1 charges a larger (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is larger than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.   Firm 1 and Firm 2 charge the same mark-up (in percent). This mark-up is smaller than the mark-up they would charge as monopolists.   Firm 1 and Firm 2 charge the same mark-up (in percent). This mark-up is larger than the mark-up they would charge as monopolists.   Firm 1 charges a smaller (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is smaller than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly

ENGR.ECONOMIC ANALYSIS
14th Edition
ISBN:9780190931919
Author:NEWNAN
Publisher:NEWNAN
Chapter1: Making Economics Decisions
Section: Chapter Questions
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Now assume that both firms are in the market and they choose quantities to supply. Assume also that, in equilibrium, firm 1 supplies 1/4 of the market, while firm 2 supplies the remaining 3/4. Then, in equilibrium,

 

Question 2 options:

 

Firm 1 charges a larger (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is smaller than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.

 

Firm 1 charges a smaller (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. However, Firm 1's mark-up is larger than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.

 

Firm 1 charges a larger (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is larger than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.

 

Firm 1 and Firm 2 charge the same mark-up (in percent). This mark-up is smaller than the mark-up they would charge as monopolists.

 

Firm 1 and Firm 2 charge the same mark-up (in percent). This mark-up is larger than the mark-up they would charge as monopolists.

 

Firm 1 charges a smaller (percentage) mark-up over its costs than firm 2. Firm 1's mark-up is smaller than the mark-up it would charge if it was a monopoly.

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why is it not firm 1 will charge a larger percentage markup over its cost than firm 2? according to this part of the explanation "As firm 1 has a smaller market share, it will face a less elastic demand curve as compared to firm 2. This means that firm 1 will have a larger markup over its costs than firm 2."

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