Consider a system with Lagrangian L(q.4) = km²q* + amậ²V (q) + BV(q)² %3D where a and B are constants to be determined. Does L give identical physics to the usual Lagrangian L= }mq² – V (q) for a particle in a potential, for any potential V(q)? Why?
Consider a system with Lagrangian L(q.4) = km²q* + amậ²V (q) + BV(q)² %3D where a and B are constants to be determined. Does L give identical physics to the usual Lagrangian L= }mq² – V (q) for a particle in a potential, for any potential V(q)? Why?
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