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University of California, Berkeley *
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Course
101
Subject
Nursing
Date
Nov 24, 2024
Type
Pages
10
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Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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Formulation of nursing diagnoses is usually a three-step process. The only complete answer is
“Anxiety related to new drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to
give myself shots.’” The answer “Anxiety” is missing the “related to” and “as evidenced by” portions.
The answer “Anxiety related to new drug therapy” is missing the “as evidenced by” portion of defining
characteristics. The “related to” section in “Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as
evidenced by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to give myself shots’” is simply a restatement
of the problem “anxiety,” not a separate factor related to the response.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Analysis
OTHER
1.
Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order, starting
with the first phase.
a.
Planning
b.
Evaluation
c.
Assessment
d.
Implementation
e.
Diagnosing
ANS:
C, E, A, D, B
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Chapter 02: Pharmacological Principles
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
A patient is receiving two different drugs, which, at their current dose forms and dosages, are both
absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts. Which term best denotes that the drugs have the
same absorption rates?
a.
Equivalent
b.
Synergistic
c.
Compatible
d.
Bioequivalent
ANS: D
Two drugs absorbed into the circulation at the same amount (in specific dosage forms) have the same
bioavailability; thus, they are bioequivalent. “Equivalent” is incorrect because the term
“bioavailability” is used to express the extent of drug absorption. “Synergistic” is incorrect because
this term refers to two drugs given together whose resulting effect is greater than the sum of the effects
of each drug given alone. “Compatible” is incorrect because this term is a general term used to indicate
that two substances do not have a chemical reaction when mixed (or given, in the case of drugs)
together.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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2.
A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection. Which information should the nurse
provide for patient education?
a.
The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
b.
The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
c.
The medication’s action will begin faster when given intravenously.
d.
Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
ANS: C
Intravenous injections are the fastest route of absorption. The intravenous route does not affect the
number of adverse effects, the intravenous route is not a slow route of absorption, and the intravenous
route does not cause inactivation of the drug by the liver before it reaches the target area.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
3.
Which is
true
regarding parenteral drugs?
a.
They bypass the first-pass effect.
b.
They decrease blood flow to the stomach.
c.
They are altered by the presence of food in the stomach.
d.
They exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
ANS: A
Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect, but they still must be absorbed into
cells and tissues before they can exert their effects. Enteral drugs (drugs taken orally), not parenteral
drugs, decrease blood flow to the stomach and are altered by the presence of food in the stomach.
Parenteral drugs must be absorbed into cells and tissues from the circulation before they can exert their
effects; they do not exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Analysis
4.
A drug’s half-life is best defined as
a.
The time it takes for the drug to elicit half its therapeutic response.
b.
The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target cells.
c.
The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the
body.
d.
The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the
circulation.
ANS: C
A drug’s half-life is the time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from
the body. It is a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. Answers A, B, and D
are not correct definitions of a drug’s half-life.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5.
The term “duration of action” is best defined as
a.
The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response.
b.
The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response.
c.
The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation.
d.
The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic
response.
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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ANS: D
Duration of action is the time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic
response. The time it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response is the drug’s “onset of action.”
The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response is a drug’s “peak effect.” “The
length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation” defines a drug’s elimination and does not
correctly define a drug’s duration of action.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
6.
A drug interacts with enzymes by
a.
altering cell membrane permeability.
b.
“fooling” a receptor on the cell wall.
c.
enhancing the drug’s effectiveness within the cells.
d.
“fooling” the enzyme into binding with it instead of its normal target cell.
ANS: D
When drugs interact with enzymes, they inhibit the action of a specific enzyme by “fooling” the
enzyme into binding to it instead of to its normal target cell. Thus, the target cells are protected from
the action of the enzymes to result in a drug effect. The alteration of cell membrane permeability, the
“fooling” of a receptor on the cell wall, and the enhancement of the effectiveness of drugs within cells
do not occur with selective enzyme interactions.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
7.
When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound.
Which consequence will result from this protein binding?
a.
Renal excretion will take longer.
b.
The drug will be metabolized quickly.
c.
The duration of action of the medication will be longer.
d.
The duration of action of the medication will be shorter.
ANS: C
Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by a longer duration of action. Protein
binding does not make renal excretion longer and does not increase metabolism of the drug. Protein
binding of a drug means that the duration of action is longer, not shorter.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
8.
When monitoring a patient on an insulin drip to reduce blood glucose levels, the nurse notes that the
patient’s glucose level is extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. Which
adverse drug reaction is the nurse observing?
a.
An adverse effect
b.
An allergic reaction
c.
An idiosyncratic reaction
d.
A pharmacological reaction
ANS: D
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A pharmacological reaction is an extension of the drug’s normal effects in the body. In this case, the
insulin lowered the patient’s blood glucose levels too much. An adverse effect is a predictable, well-
known adverse drug reaction that results in minor or no changes in patient management. An allergic
reaction (also known as a
hypersensitivity reaction
) involves the patient’s immune system. An
idiosyncratic reaction is unexpected and is defined as a genetically determined abnormal response to
normal dosages of a drug.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9.
A patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where
should the nurse tell the patient to place the tablet?
a.
Under the tongue
b.
In the space between the cheek and gum
c.
At the back of the throat, for easy swallowing
d.
On a non-hairy area on the chest
ANS: A
Drugs taken by the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Placing the tablet in the space
between the cheek and gum is done for the buccal route; placing the tablet at the back of the throat (for
easy swallowing) is done in the oral route; and placing the tablet on a non-hairy area on the chest is
done in the topical or transdermal route.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
10.
The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is in liver failure due to end-stage cirrhosis.
The nurse is aware that patients with liver failure are most likely to have problems with which
pharmacokinetic phase?
a.
Absorption
b.
Distribution
c.
Metabolism
d.
Excretion
ANS: C
The liver is the organ that is most responsible for drug metabolism. Decreased liver function will most
affect a drug’s metabolism. The absorption of a drug is not affected by liver function, and distribution
is not affected by liver function. Excretion is affected only because decreased liver function may not
transform drugs into water-soluble substances for elimination via the kidneys, but this is not the best
answer to this question.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
In the development of a new drug by a pharmaceutical company, the researcher must ensure that the
participants in experimental drug studies do not have unrealistic expectations of the new drug’s
usefulness. What will the researcher include in the design of the study to prevent bias that may occur?
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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a.
A placebo
b.
Health Canada approval
c.
Informed consent
d.
Efficacy information
ANS: A
To prevent bias that may occur as a result of unrealistic expectations of an investigational new drug, a
placebo will be incorporated into the study. Health Canada approval, if given, does not be obtained
until after phase III of the study. Informed consent is required in all drug studies. Efficacy information
is not determined until the study is under way.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2.
A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose
participation will help determine the optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug. In what
type of study is the team member participating?
a.
Phase I
b.
Phase II
c.
Phase III
d.
Phase IV
ANS: A
Phase I studies involve small numbers of healthy volunteers to determine the optimal dosage range and
the pharmacokinetics of the drug. Phases II, III, and IV involve progressively larger numbers of
volunteers who have the disease or ailment that the drug is designed to diagnose or treat.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
3.
A patient has a prescription for a drug classified as Schedule F. What important information should the
nurse give this patient about obtaining refills for this medication?
a.
No prescription refills are permitted.
b.
Refills may be obtained via telephone order.
c.
Refills are indicated by the prescriber.
d.
The patient may have no more than six refills in a 12-month period.
ANS: C
Schedule F contains a list of drugs that can be sold and refilled only on prescription; prescriptions can
be refilled as often as indicated by the prescriber.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Analysis
4.
A patient has been chosen to be a recipient of an investigational drug for heart failure and has given
informed consent. Which is indicated by the patient’s informed consent?
a.
The patient has been informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy.
b.
The patient will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues.
c.
The patient will not be assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment.
d.
The patient has received an explanation of the study’s purpose, procedures, and the
benefits and risks involved.
ANS: D
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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Informed consent involves the careful explanation of the purpose of the study, procedures to be used,
and the possible benefits and risks involved. Being informed of the possible benefits of the new
therapy, being informed of the study details as research continues, and being assured of receiving the
actual drug during the experiment do not describe informed consent.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5.
Which is the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing practice?
a.
Canada Health Act
b.
Nursing Practice Act
c.
Controlled Drugs and Substances Act
d.
Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
ANS: B
Nurse practice acts (NPAs) are regulatory laws that are instrumental in defining the scope of nursing
practice and that protect public health, safety, and welfare. Nursing practice in Canada is regulated by
separate acts in each of the 10 provinces and 3 territories. These acts grant self-governance to the
nursing profession, direct entry into nursing practice, define the scopes of practice, and identify
disciplinary actions. NPAs are the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing
practice.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
6.
What potential failure is identified when a patient with a documented penicillin allergy receives 1.2 g
of benzylpenicillin IV?
a.
Failure to assess
b.
Failure to evaluate
c.
Failure to ensure safety
d.
Failure to identify the patient
ANS: C
Failure to ensure safety includes lack of adequate monitoring, failure to identify patient allergies and
other risk factors related to medication therapy, inappropriate drug administration technique, and
failure to implement appropriate nursing actions because of improper assessment of the patient’s
condition. Whereas failure to assess or evaluate includes failure to see significant changes in the
patient’s condition after taking a medication, failure to report these changes, failure to take a complete
medication history and nursing assessment/history, and failure to monitor the patient after medication
administration. Failure to identify the patient’s identity is a medication error.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
7.
Which statement correctly describes drugs in Part G, Part II of the
Food and Drugs Act
?
a.
They are drugs with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use.
b.
They are drugs with high potential for misuse that do not have an accepted medical
use.
c.
They are medically accepted drugs that may cause mild physical or psychological
dependence.
d.
They are medically accepted drugs with very limited potential for causing mild
physical or psychological dependence.
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ANS: A
Part G, Part II drugs are those with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use (e.g.,
barbiturates).
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8.
Miss Knox, a 26-year-old, has returned to the surgical unit post appendectomy. The physician has
prescribed intravenous (IV) morphine for pain. According to the Controlled Drugs and Substances
ACT (CDSA), morphine is classified under which schedule?
a.
Schedule I
b.
Schedule IV
c.
Schedule V
d.
Schedule III
ANS: A
The CDSA is based on eight schedules that list controlled drugs and substances based on potential for
misuse or harm or how easy they are to manufacture into illicit substances. A summary of Schedule I
contains the most dangerous drugs, including opiates (opium, heroin, morphine, cocaine), fentanyls,
and methamphetamine.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1.
Which are elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the Canadian Nurses
Association (CNA) Code of Ethics? (
Select all that apply.
)
a.
Promoting justice
b.
Maintaining anonymity
c.
Demonstrating responsibility
d.
Preserving dignity
e.
Promoting health and well-being
ANS: A, D, E
Elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the CNA Code of Ethics include
providing safe, compassionate, competent, and ethical nursing care; maintaining privacy and
confidentiality; promoting justice, being accountable, preserving dignity, and promoting and
respecting informed decision making; and promoting health and well-being.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Critical Thinking
2.
The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law
governing the collection, use and disclosure of personal health details. Protected health information
includes? (
Select all that apply.
)
a.
Patients’ health conditions
b.
Payment information
c.
Prescription numbers
d.
Dietary restrictions
e.
Medications
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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ANS: A, B, C, E
The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) requires all health care
providers, health insurance and life insurance companies, public health authorities, employers, and
schools to maintain patient privacy regarding protected health information. Protected health
information includes any individually identifying information such as patients’ health conditions,
account numbers, prescription numbers, medications, and payment information. A postal code on its
own covers a wide geographical area.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
Chapter 04: Patient-Focused Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
During the last trimester of pregnancy, drug transfer to the fetus is more likely to occur. Which is a
reason for this possibility?
a.
Fetal size
b.
Decreased surface area
c.
Enhanced placental blood flow
d.
Increased amount of bound drug in maternal circulation
ANS: C
Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester, as a result of enhanced placental
blood flow, increased fetal surface area, and an increased amount of free drug in the mother’s
circulation. Increased, not decreased, fetal surface area affects drug transfer to the fetus. The placenta’s
surface area does not increase during this time. Drug transfer is increased due to an increased amount
of free drug, not protein-bound drug, in the mother’s circulation. “Fetal size” is incorrect because the
first trimester of pregnancy is the period of greatest danger of drug-induced developmental defects.
During this period, the fetus undergoes rapid cell proliferation. Gestational age is more important than
fetal size.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2.
Which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly when calculating drug dosages for children?
a.
Fried’s rule
b.
Clark’s rule
c.
Young’s rule
d.
The mg/kg formula
ANS: D
The body weight method, using the mg/kg formula, is the most common and reliable method for
calculating doses for young patients. Fried’s rule, Clark’s rule, and Young’s rule are not methods used
for calculating drug dosages for young patients.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Knowledge
3.
While assessing an 82-year-old woman, the nurse determines that the patient is experiencing
polypharmacy. What is this experience most likely to indicate?
Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 4th Edition by Kara Sealock, Cydnee Seneviratne Test Bank
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a.
The patient has a lower risk of drug interactions.
b.
The patient takes medications for one illness several times a day.
c.
The patient risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
d.
The patient takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
ANS: D
Polypharmacy usually occurs when a patient has several illnesses and takes medications for each of
them, medications possibly prescribed by different specialists who may be unaware of the patient’s
other treatments. This situation puts the patient at increased risk of drug interactions and adverse
reactions. Polypharmacy means that the patient has a higher, not lower, risk of drug interactions, and
that the patient is taking several different medications, not just one. Polypharmacy can include
prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and natural health products.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
4.
Which statement is true in regard to children?
a.
Their levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased compared to those of adults.
b.
Their total body water content is much less than that of adults.
c.
Their first-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
d.
Gastric emptying is more rapid than that of adults because of increased peristaltic
activity.
ANS: A
In children, the levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased. A child’s gastric emptying is slowed
because of slow or irregular peristalsis. Total body water content is greater in children than in adults,
and first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because of immaturity of the liver and reduced levels
of microsomal enzymes.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5.
For accurate medication administration to young patients, the nurse must take into account which
information?
a.
Weight, height, age, and organ maturity
b.
Age, glomerular filtration rate, and weight
c.
Weight, height, body temperature, and age
d.
Weight, height, and total body water content
ANS: A
To accurately administer medications to young patients, their weight, height, age, physical condition,
metabolism and organ maturity must be taken into account. Glomerular filtration rate, body
temperature, and total body water content are not considerations when administering medications to
young patients.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
6.
An older adult patient will often experience a reduction in the stomach’s ability to produce
hydrochloric acid. This change will result in which alteration?
a.
Delayed gastric emptying
b.
Increased gastric acidity
c.
Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
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d.
Altered absorption of select drugs
ANS: D
This aging-related change results in a decrease in gastric acidity and may alter the absorption of some
drugs. Delayed gastric emptying, increased gastric acidity, and decreased intestinal absorption of
medications are not results of reduced hydrochloric acid production.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Application
7.
Which is the reason drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate?
a.
The lungs are immature.
b.
The kidneys are smaller.
c.
The liver is not fully developed.
d.
Renal excretion of the drug is faster.
ANS: C
A neonate’s liver is not fully developed and cannot detoxify many drugs; thus, drug toxicity is more
likely to occur in the neonate. The lungs and kidneys do not play major roles in drug metabolism.
Renal excretion of the drug is slower, not faster, due to organ immaturity.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8.
An 83-year-old female patient has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat mild heart failure. She and her
daughter should be taught to watch for which complications?
a.
Dizziness and constipation
b.
Fatigue and dehydration
c.
Daytime sedation and lethargy
d.
Edema and blurred vision
ANS: B
Electrolyte imbalance, fatigue, and dehydration are common complications of thiazide diuretics in
older adult patients. Dizziness and constipation, daytime sedation and lethargy, and edema and blurred
vision are not complications that occur when these drugs are given to older adults.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9.
Which complication is common with an older adult patient who is taking digoxin?
a.
Hallucinations
b.
Edema
c.
Dry mouth
d.
Constipation
ANS: A
Common complications for older adults taking digoxin include visual disorders, nausea, diarrhea,
dysrhythmias, hallucinations, decreased appetite, and weight loss. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
drugs may cause edema, anticholinergics and antihistamines may cause dry mouth, and opioids may
cause constipation.
DIF:
Cognitive Level: Comprehension
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