Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions 2

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 2 (cont.) 8) Using the ASA Physical Status Classification system, a patient that is moderately anemic or moderately dehydrated would be classified as: a) Class P1 b) Class P2 c) Class P3 d) Class P4 e) Class P5 9) Which of the following signs of disease in a calm canine patient would be most significant in terms of the potential to increase e the risk of anesthesia? a) Increase respiratory effort b) Lethargy c) A body temperature of 103.4° F d) A sinus arrhythmia 10) Which of the following species or breeds must be watched especially closely during any anesthetic procedure to ensure a patent airway? a) Brachycephalic breeds b) Exotic breeds c) Cats and Horses d) Sighthounds 11) Using a prescribed fluid administration rate of 5mL/kg/hr for the first hour of anesthesia, and a macrodrip administration set with a delivery rate of 15gtt/mL, a 53 lb patient would require which of the follow infusion and drip rates? a) 265 mL/hr; 1 gtt/sec b) 121 mL/hr; 1 gtt/ sec c) 121 mL/hr; 1 gtt/ 2 sec d) 121 mL/hr; 1 gtt/ 4 sec 12) Which of the following statements regarding IV catheter placement and use in anesthesia patients is incorrect? a) Choose an administration set with an injection port. b) Give all IV drugs slowly unless told otherwise. c) Always follow IV injections through a catheter with sterile saline flush. d) Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding. 13) Which is the following general guidelines about body fluids in a normal adult animal is incorrect? a) About 40% of the body weight is water. b) About two thirds of the total body water is inside the cells. c) Blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight. d) Dogs have a larger total blood volume than cats. 14) The fluid type most appropriate to replace moderate losses from dehydration would be: a) Colloids b) Hypertonic saline c) Isotonic crystalloids d) 50% Dextrose

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 8 1) Idiopathic pain is defined as: a) Pain that is caused by cancer b) Pain that is of unknown cause c) Pain that is caused by inflammation d) Pain that is caused by injury to nerves 2) Pathogenic pain is defined as: a) Pain that is caused by cancer b) Pain that is of unknown cause c) Pain that is prolonged and exaggerated d) Pain that is not associated with tissue injury 3) An ovariohysterectomy, which involves surgically incising the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has the following components of pain: a) Somatic pain only b) Visceral pain only c) Both somatic and visceral pain d) Neither somatic of visceral pain 4) The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals called action potentials is: a) Perception b) Modulation c) Transduction d) Transmission 5) In the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. This process is known as: a) Perception b) Modulation c) Transduction d) Transmission 6) Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or “windup” occur? a) Brain b) Spinal cord c) Visceral pain receptors d) Peripheral pain receptors 7) Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true? a) The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used. b) Multiple pain receptor mechanisms are targeted by one drug. c) One pain receptor mechanism is targeted by several drugs. d) Side effects are increased by using several drugs. 8) Which of the following drug combinations is an example of multimodal analgesic therapy? a) Dexmedetomidine, sevoflurane b) Acepromazine, ketamine, isoflurane c) Acepromazine, morphine, ketamine d) Dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions For the following questions, more than one answer may be correct. 16) A reservoir bag that is not moving well may indicate that: a) The endotracheal tube is not in the trachea b) The animal has a decreased tidal volume c) There is a leak around the endotracheal tube d) The vaporizer is empty 17) The anesthetist will know when the granules in the carbon dioxide absorber have been depleted because the: a) Anesthetist will smell waste carbon dioxide b) Granules will be brittle c) Granules may change color d) Granules may be hard 18) An increase in the depth of anesthesia can be achieved quickly by: a) Having high oxygen flow rates b) Having high vaporizer settings c) Using a closed anesthetic system d) Bagging the animal with the precision vaporizer on 19) The concentration of anesthetic delivered from a non-precision vaporizer may depend on the: a) Temperature of the liquid anesthetic b) Flow of the carrier gas through the vaporizer c) Back pressure d) Type of anesthetic in the vaporizer 20 When an anesthetic machine is operating correctly, the pressure in the machine are always: a) 40 to 50 psi between the pressure- reducing valve and the flowmeters b) 15 psi between the flowmeters and the breathing circuit c) 2200 psi between the compressed gas cylinder and the pressure- reducing valve d) 15 psi entering a VOC vaporizer Lesson 2 Chapter 3 1) A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of: a) An opioid and an anticholinergic b) An anticholinergic and tranquilizer c) An opioid and a tranquilizer d) An anticholinergic and a benzodiazepine 2) Most preanesthetics will not cross the placental barrier. a) True b) False 3) It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia. a) True b) False

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 3 (cont.) 20) Adverse effects common with isoflurane include: a) Hepatic toxicity b) Accumulation in body fat stores c) Depression of respiration d) Seizures during recovery 21) MAC will vary with: a) Body temperature of the patient b) Age of the patient c) Concurrent use of other drugs d) Anesthetic agent 22) Factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include: a) Partition coefficient of the agent b) Vaporizer setting c) MAC of the agent d) Concurrent use of atropine 23) Which of the following are alpha₂-agonists? a) Atipamezole b) Xylazine c) Acepromazine d) Demedetomidine 24) Effects that atropine may have on the body include: a) Decreased salivation b) Increased vagal tone c) Decreased gastrointestinal motility d) Mydriasis 25) Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include a) Pronounced sedation in healthy young animals b) Muscle relaxation c) Significant decrease in respiratory function d) Minimal effect on cardiovascular system Chapter 7 1) In the healthy awake animal, the main stimulus to breathe is the result of: a) Excess oxygen concentration in the blood b) Excess carbon dioxide concentration in the blood c) Insufficient oxygen in the blood d) Insufficient carbon dioxide in the blood 2) In the healthy awake animal, exhalation lasts at least ___ times as long as inhalation. a) 1/2 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 7 (cont.) For the following questions, more than one answer may be correct. 21) Problems that may result from excessive controlled ventilation may include: a) A decreased cardiac output b) Muscle twitching c) A state of respiratory alkalosis d) Ruptured alveoli 22) Local anesthetic agents such as lidocaine or proparacaine work well when applied: a) Topically on the epidermis b) Topically on mucous membranes c) Topically on the cornea d) Through injection 23) Factors that may interfere with the action of local anesthetic agents include: a) Fat b) Scar tissue c) Rapid heart rate d) Hemorrhage 24) Clinical signs of systemic toxicity from a local anesthetic agent may include: a) Sedation b) Convulsions c) Muscle twitching d) Respiratory depression 25) The effects that could result from an epidural anesthetic if the drug reached the thoracic and cervical spine could include: a) Sympathetic blockade b) Paralysis of intercostal muscles c) Paralysis of the diaphragm d) Hypertension Chapter 9 1) Consider the following scenario: You are performing a procedure on a canine patient that you feel is at an appropriate anesthetic depth. Which of the following setting would be most appropriate if using sevoflurane in this patient? a) 2% b) 2L/min c) 3.5% d) 4mL/min e) 6% 2) Which of the following statements about how to induce anesthesia in a young healthy patient using an IV agent such as alfaxalone or Propofol is least accurate? a) If, after giving the initial amount, the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose b) Draw up the calculated dose, give about ¼ to ½ first, and give the rest to effect. c) You must be sure the drug gets in the vein. d) Old, sick, or debilitated patients often require less. 3) Which of the following statements regarding IV induction agents is least accurate? a) Ketamine—diazepam takes slightly longer to act and lasts somewhat longer than Propofol b) When using Propofol, give about 25% to 50% of the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect c) Significantly lower doses of thiopental sodium must be used in sick, old, or debilitated patients. d) Propofol is generally given intravenously but can be given intramuscularly in uncooperative patients.

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions 2) The plane of anesthesia most suitable for surgical procedures occurs during: a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV 3) Breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs are most likely an indication that the animal is in what stage or plane of anesthesia? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III, light d) Stage III, deep 4) Anatomic dead space is considered to be the: a) Air within the breathing circuit b) Air within the digestive tract c) Air within the trachea, pharynx, larynx, d) Air within the alveoli bronchi, and nasal passages 5) The minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized large breed dog is ___bpm. a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 100 6) If the ECG is normal, the heart is beating normally. a) True b) False 7) In general, a respiratory rate of less than ____ breaths/minute is an anesthetized dog should be reported to the veterinarian. a) 4 b) 6 c) 10 d) 15 8) Tachypnea is: a) An increase in respiratory depth (tidal volume) b) An increase in respiratory rate c) A decrease in respiratory depth (tidal volume) d) A decrease in respiratory rate 9) A patient that has been anesthetized will often have a: a) Mild metabolic acidosis b) Mild metabolic alkalosis c) Mild respiratory acidosis d) Mild respiratory alkalosis 10) An animal that is in a surgical plane of anesthesia should not respond in any way to any procedure that is being done to it (e.g pulling on viscera should not change vital signs). a) True b) False 11) A 20-kg dog has been anesthetized by mask induction with isoflurane and after intubation is maintained on 2% isoflurane with a flow rate of 2L/min of oxygen. The heart rate is 80bpm, respiratory rate is 4 breaths/min and shallow, the jaw tone is fully relaxed, and all reflexes are absent. This animal is most likely in what stage of anesthesia. a) Stage II b) Stage III, light c) Stage III, surgical d) Stage III, deep 12) Pulse oximetry allows accurate estimation of: a) Arterial blood pressure b) Pulse pressure c) PaO2 d) Percent saturation of hemoglobin within oxygen e) Blood gas values

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 13 (cont .) 6) You look at the oxygen tank and note that 1000psi of pressure is left in the tank, but the flowmeter now reads zero and you cannot obtain a flow by twisting the knobs. The best thing to do would be to assume: a) The oxygen tank pressure gauge is malfunctioning and you need to recheck the flowmeter. b) The oxygen pressure is adequate and the flowmeter is simply not registering the flow. c) The animal is not getting oxygen, and you need to remove the animal from the circuit until a new machine is found or the problem is corrected. 7) A geriatric patient is considered to be one that: a) Is greater than 10 years old b) Is greater than 15 years old c) Has reached 50% of its life expectancy d) Has reached 75% of its life expectancy 8) Brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for longer than ___ minutes. a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 9) When a technician is performing CPR alone, the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation should be: a) 5:1 b) 10:1 c) 20:2 d) 30:2 10) When performing CPR, chest compressions should be discontinued a) When providing breaths b) If you are unsure whether or not the patient has arrested c) After 10 minutes of CPR if there is no response d) Briefly between every 2 minute cycle 11) Respiratory arrest is always fatal. a) True b) False For the following questions, more than one answer may be correct. 12) One may suspect that the endotracheal tube is malfunctioning eve if it is in the trachea because: a) Compression of the reservoir bag does not result in the raising of the chest b) The animal is dyspneic c) The animal cannot be kept at an adequate plane of anesthesia d) The reservoir bag is not moving or is moving very little 13) One may suspect that the pop-off valve has been closed or that it is malfunctioning if the: a) Reservoir bag is distended with air b) Patient has difficulty exhaling c) Patient wakes up d) Flow rate starts to drop 14) Administration of IV fluids at the commonly prescribed rate of 5 to 10mL/kg/hr during an anesthetic procedure may result in overhydration in the: a) Patient with cardiac disease b) Obese patient c) Pediatric patient d) Brachycephalic patient 15) Brachycephalic dogs may be at increased anesthetic risk because of their: a) Physical size b) Excess tissue around the oropharynx c) Increased vagal tone d) Small trachea in comparison with their physical body size

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 13 (cont .) For the following questions, more than one answer may be correct. 16) To decrease anesthetic risk associated with a brachycephalic dog, the anesthetist may elect to: a) Use atropine as part of the anesthetic protocol b) Preoxygenate the animal before giving any anesthetic c) Use an injectable anesthetic to hasten induction rather than masking d) Intubate immediately after induction 17) Animals that undergo caesarean section are at increased risk during anesthesia because of: a) Decreased respiratory function b) Increased chance of aspiration of vomitus c) Increased chance of hemorrhage d) Increased workload of the heart 18) Anesthetic agents or drugs that one may want to avoid in the animal with cardiovascular disease include: a) Ketamine b) Isoflurane c) Xylazine d) Opioids 19) An inadequate plane of anesthesia may be the result of: a) An oxygen flow rate that is too low b) An incorrect vaporizer setting c) Incorrect placement of the endotracheal tube d) Use of an anesthetic with a low MAC 20) Tachypnea my result from: a) Increased levels of arterial oxygen b) Increased levels of arterial CO2 c) The use of ketamine d) An inadequate plane of anesthesia 21) When the blood pressure drops, the veterinarian may ask the technician to infuse a colloid. Which of the follow is not a colloid? a) Hetastarch b) Hypertonic saline c) Dextran d) Plasma 22) Laryngospasm is more common in the dog than in the cat. a) True b) False 23) Bradycardia can always be treated with an anticholinergic. a) True b) False 24) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia in the dog is initially treated with: a) Lidocaine b) Atropine c) Defibrillation d) Vasopressin Chapter 10 1) Which of the following is true regarding use of standing chemical restraint for performing surgery on a horse? a) Horses must be endotracheally intubated for standing chemical restraint. b) Risk of myopathy or neuropathy is higher with standing chemical restraint. c) The head must be supported in a normal position to avoid nasal congestion. d) Hypoxemia is a common complication of standing chemical restraint.

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 10 (cont.) 2) If a horse becomes excited after it has been premedicated with xylazine IV before general anesthesia, the next step the anesthetist should take is to: a) Allow the horse time to calm down before proceeding. b) Physically restrain the horse using ropes. c) Induce the horse with Acepromazine. d) Induce the horse with ketamine. 3) Appropriate positioning and padding of the horse on the surgery table are essential to prevent: a) Hypoxemia and hypotension b) Myopathies and neuropathies c) Hypoventilation and hypertension d) Regurgitation and aspiration 4) What is/are the main reason(s) for including guaifenesin in an induction protocol in horses? a) Muscle relaxation b) Analgesia c) Sedation d) All of the above 5) An Inhalant induction via nasotracheal tube placement is appropriate for which of the following patients? a) A 2-year-old Arabian stallion undergoing arthroscopy b) A 25-year-old Thoroughbred mare undergoing sinus surgery c) A 3-week-old foul undergoing colic surgery d) A 6-month-old foal undergoing umbilical hernia repair 6) Which of the following statements best describes endotracheal intubation in the horse? a) Intubation is performed blindly with the head and neck extended. b) Intubation can only be performed in lateral recumbency. c) A laryngoscope is useful for visualization of the larynx. d) An endoscope is commonly used to facilitate intubation. 7) The most common complications in horses during maintenance of anesthesia with inhalant anesthetics are: a) Hypoxemia, hypertension, and bradycardia b) Hypoxemia, hypotension, and bradycardia c) Hypoxemia, hypertension, and hypoventilation d) Hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypoventilation 8) Which drug is used to treat hypotension in the anesthetized horse? a) Dextrose b) Digoxin c) Dobutamine d) Doxycycline 9) Of all phases of anesthesia, recovery poses the highest risk to the horse, and is the phase over which the anesthetist has the least control. a) True b) False 10) A horse has recovered from anesthesia following arthroscopy, and shows the following clinical signs: hard, swollen gluteal muscles, stiff gait, and reluctance to walk. The most likely diagnosis is: a) Colic b) Myopathy c) Neuropathy d) Nephropathy

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 11 1) Comparing the sensitivity of cattle, horses, and swine to Xylazine, which of the following is true? a) Cattle are more sensitive than horses, which are more sensitive than swine. b) Cattle are more sensitive than swine, which are more sensitive than horses. c) Horses are more sensitive than cattle, which are more sensitive than horses. d) Swine are more sensitive than cattle, which are more sensitive than horses. 2) An anticholinergic is an essential component of premedication in ruminants. a) True b) False 3) “Double drip” contains which two drugs? a) Guaifenesin and dobutamine b) Guaifenesin and ketamine c) Xylazine and ketamine d) Acepromazine and ketamine 4) You plan to anesthetize a 1000kg bull and maintain anesthesia using an inhalant technique. Which of the following statements regarding intubation is correct? a) The inhalant can be safely delivered via a facemask. b) You will need a laryngoscope to visualize the larynx. c) You will have to intubate the bull manually. d) All of the above. 5) It is common for anesthetized ruminants to hypoventilate. a) True b) False 6) Positioning the head of an anesthetized ruminant with the pharynx higher than the mouth helps to prevent: a) Hyperventilation b) Hypoventilation c) Aspiration d) Hypoxemia 7) Ruminants should be placed in sternal recumbency during recovery to allow them to: a) Eructate b) Regurgitate c) Salivate d) Hyperventilate 8) A hematoma that results from unsuccessful jugular cauterization in a camelid may result in which of the following? a) Bloat b) Excessive blood loss c) Nasal congestion d) Pressure on the tracheal wall 9) When recovering a camelid after general anesthesia, how should it be positioned? a) In lateral recumbency with the head on the ground b) In lateral recumbency with the head elevated c) In sternal recumbency with the head on the ground d) In sternal recumbency with the head elevated 10) Intubation is made easier in pigs by a) The presence of a laryngeal diverticulum b) The possibility of laryngospasm c) The use of a stylette d) The angle of the laryngeotracheal junction

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 11 (cont.) 11) Which of the following statements regarding porcine anesthesia is TREU? a) Oscillometric blood pressure monitors work well in pigs. b) All pigs should have complete blood work before anesthesia. c) Pigs are very sensitive to alpha₂agonist. d) Intravenous sedation is virtually impossible in healthy pigs. 12) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of porcine stress syndrome? a) Hypothermia b) Hyperthermia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypercapnia Chapter 12 1) Glycopyrolate should be used, instead of atropine, in rabbits because: a) Atropine is highly toxic in rabbits. b) Many rabbits have high levels of atropinase, so atropine is relatively ineffective. c) Rabbits are unable to metabolize atropine. d) Atropine causes marked bradycardia in rabbits. 2) Pulse oximeters can be used in small mammals, but they may not be reliable because: a) The heart rate of the animal may exceed the upper range of the instrument. b) The hemoglobin absorption characteristics are different in rodents from those in dogs and cats c) Pulse oximeters do no function on animals that have dark fur. d) Small rodents have a rapid respiratory rate. 3) The position of the eye cannot be used to assess the depth of anesthesia in rodents because: a) The eye is too small to assess its position accurately. b) The position of the eye does not change during anesthesia. c) The eye rotates downwards at very light planes of anesthesia. d) The eyelids remain closed throughout anesthesia. 4) An advantage of using dexmedetomidine combined with ketamine for anesthesia of rodents and rabbits is that: a) It is readily absorbed from body fat. b) It can be given by mouth to produce anesthesia. c) It promotes gut motility and so reduces the occurrence of postoperative inappetence. d) It can partially reverse using Atipamezole, allowing faster recovery. 5) An adult mouse weighs 40g will have a blood volume of approximately: a) 10 mL b) 3 mL c) 50 mL d) 0.2 mL 6) When fluids such as Lactated Ringer’s solution are given to small mammals they should be: a) Used at about 4° C so that they are rapidly absorbed. b) Administered orally, because it is not possible to use another route. c) Warmed to body temperature before administration, to avoid causing hypothermia. d) Only given postoperatively, to avoid overloading the circulation.

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Chapter 12 (cont.) 7) Anesthetic breathing systems for use with small rabbits should: a) Only be constructed of plastic components because rabbits are allergic to latex. b) Have low equipment dead space. c) Have high equipment dead space. d) Always include soda lime to prevent rebreathing. 8) When small rodents are anesthetized with injectable anesthetics: a) It is not necessary to administer oxygen because most anesthetics stimulate respiration. b) Oxygen should be administered because most anesthetics depress respiration. c) Carbon dioxide should be included in the fresh gas mixture to stimulate response. d) Nitrous oxide should always be used; otherwise, the depth of anesthesia will be insufficient for surgery. 9) Postoperative analgesia should be given to rodents and rabbits to alleviate pain, but: a) NSAIDs cannot be used because they cause gastric ulceration at normal therapeutic doses in these species. b) Opioids (narcotics) cause severe respiratory depression and so must never be used. c) Opioids must be given with care if neuroleptanalgesic mixture has been used for anesthesia. d) Local anesthetics cannot be used because they produce cardiac arrest even at every low doses in the species. 10) If postoperative pain is not alleviated in rabbits, then: a) Animals will not eat or drink normally. b) Animals recover much faster form anesthesia. c) Rabbits will spend a great deal of time grooming themselves. d) Porphyrin staining will appear around their eyes. Answer Key Chapter 1 1) d 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) a, b, d 6) a, d Chapter 2 1) c 2) b 3) d 4) c 5) a 6) b 7) c 8) c 9) a 10) a 11) d 12) d 13) a 14) c 15) b 16) d 17) d 18) b 19) b 20) d Chapter 8 1) b 2) c 3) c 4) c 5)b 6) b 7) a 8) d 9) c 10) false 11) d 12) c 13) c 14) d 15) true Chapter 4 1)a 2)c 3)b 4)c 5)e 6)b 7)a 8)b 9) d 10) true 11)a 12)d 13) c 14) b 15) c 16) a,c,d 17) b,c,d 18) a,b 19) a,b,c,d 20) a,b,d

Anesthesia Chapter Review Questions Answer Key Chapter 5 1) false 2) true 3) a 4)b 5)false 6) true 7)b 8) a 9) c 10) c 11) a,b,c 12) a,c,d Chapter 3 1) c 2) false 3) true 4)a 5) true 6)d 7) b 8) c 9)a 10) c 11) true 12) a 13) c 14) d 15) c 16) d 17) a 18) a,b,c,d 19) a,b,c,d 20) c 21) a,b,c,d 22) a,b 23) b,d 24) a,c,d 25) b,d Chapter 7 1) b 2) b 3) b 4)a 5)a 6)d 7) b 8) c 9) true 10) d 11) c 12) b 13) c 14) c 15) b 16) a 17) false 18) a 19) c 20) false 21) a,c,d 22) b,c,d 23) a,b,d 24) a,b,c,d 25) a,b,c Chapter 9 1) c 2) a 3) d 4)b 5) c 6)a 7)b 8)d 9)c 10)b 11)d 12)d 13)a 14)c 15) a,b,c,d 16) b,c,d 17)a,c,d 18)a,b,c,d 19)a,b,c,d 20)a,c,d Chapter 6 1)true 2)b 3)b 4)c 5)a 6)false 7)b 8)b 9)c 10)false 11)c 12)d 13)a 14)b 15)c 16)c 17)a,b,c 18)a,b,c,d 19)a,b,c 20)b,c Chapter 13 1)d 2)d 3)b 4)a 5)c 6)c 7)d 8)b 9)d 10)d 11)false 12)a,b,c,d 13)a,b 14)a,c 15)b,c,d 16)a,b,c,d 17)a,b,c,d 18)a,c 19)a,b,c 20)b,d 21)b 22)false 23)false 24)c Chapter 10 1) c 2) a 3) b 4) a 5) c 6) a 7) d 8) c 9) true 10) b Chapter 11 1) a 2) false 3) b 4) c 5) true 6) c 7) a 8) d 9) d 10) c 11) d 12) a Chapter 12 1) b 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) b 6) c 7) b 8) b 9) c 10) a