Jerk Exam

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San Diego State University *

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Course

798

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Mechanical Engineering

Date

Apr 3, 2024

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docx

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31

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Q: The SHEL model is another human factors tool. The goal is to determine not only what the problem is, but also A: Where and why it exists Q: According to Dr. James Reason, there are two types of failure which can occur. They are: A: Active and latent Q: All of the following are consequences of human error, except: A: Mental Stressor Q: Many areas of aviation have shifted their focus from eliminating error to: A: Preventing and managing error Q: The three types of human error are: A: Omission, commission, and extraneous Q: The positive aspects of human factor issues are referred to as the: A: Magnificent Seven Q: When we think of aviation safety in a contemporary way, human error is: A: the starting point Q: How is quality system assured? A: By an internal reporting and auditing system Q: Which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster? A: Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area
Q: For aircraft operated under Part 91, which of the following records must be retained and transferred with the aircraft when its sold? A: Records of the current status of applicable AD's and date and time when recurring Ads are next due Q: How long is a mechanic certificate with airframe and/or powerplant rating(s) valid? A: Until voluntarily surrendered, permanently revoked, or temporarily suspended Q: An aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on US certificated aircraft; however, the work must be done in accordance with FAA-approved technical data before the aircraft can be returned to service. Which is NOT approved data? A: AC 43.13-2A Q: Airworthiness Directives are used primarily to: A: correct an unsafe condition Q: The following words are an example of what kind of statement in an AD? 'Required within the next 25 hours time-in-service after the effective date of this AD, unless already accomplished: A: Compliance Q: A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service. Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will be made each second 50-hour period. From the above statement, at what intervals will valve mechanism inspections be performed? A: 100 hours
Q: When approving for return to service after maintenance or alteration, the approving person must enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft A: a description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else), signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held. Q: An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document: A: major repairs and major alterations Q: A person working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with an airframe and powerplant rating is not authorized to perform: A: a 100-hour inspection Q: What regulations are covered by 14 CFR Part 1? A: Definitions and abbreviations Q: Which of these publications contains standards for protrusion of bolts, studs, and screws through self-locking nuts? A: AC 43.13-1B Q: (Refer to Figure 62) The -100 in the title block (area 1) is applicable to which doubler part number (s)? A: -101 Q: Placards required on an aircraft are specified in: A: Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets
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Q: Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer wires at a fairlead? A: Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary Q: What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated? A: Airworthiness Directives Q: (1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a Supplemental Type Certificate. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements: A: Only 1 is true Q: Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged heli- coils in a casting? A: Eight 14--20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted, the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, and tangs removed Q: A Technical Standard Order (TSO) is issued by whom? A: The Administrator Q: The replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount purchased from the manufacturer is considered a: A: minor repair
Q: Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards for an airplane certificated in the normal category? A: 14 CFR Part 23 Q: Which statement is true regarding the requirements for maintenance record format? A: Any format that provides record continuity and includes the required information may be used. Q: What does the acronym TSO mean regarding a type certificated aircraft part, material, component and/or process? A: Technical Standard Order Q: What does the Type Certificate Data Sheet designation code '2 PCSM' mean? A: Two place (number of seats) closed, sea, monoplane Q: (1) Manufacturer's data and FAA publications such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and advisory circulars are all approved data. (2) FAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data. Regarding the above statements, A: Only 2 is true Q: For aircraft operated under Part 91, when is aircraft total time required to be recorded in aircraft maintenance records? A: After satisfactory completing inspections Q: Which is an appliance major repair? A: Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump
Q: Using only the information given (when bend allowance, set back, etc. have been calculated) which doubler is it possible to construct and install? A: -101 Q: A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating unless, the work or the certificate holder has A: Served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 6 months. Q: Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new or newly overhauled engines at the first 50-hour inspection following installation. Subsequent inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at each third 50-hour inspection. From the above statement, at what intervals should you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness? A: 150 hours Q: What is the maximum penalty for cheating or other unauthorized conduct when taking the FAA mechanic test? A: Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year, and suspension or revocation of any certificate held. Q: When work is performed on an aircraft that necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should prepare the form? A: The person who performs or supervises the work. Q: An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be altered. Certificated mechanics could: A: Perform and approve the work for return to service if it is a minor alteration
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Q: Technical information about older aircraft models, of which no more than 50 remain in service, can be found in the: A: Aircraft Listing Q: A person installing a product, part, or appliance on a type certificated product must make certain that the item's records document the A: Product, part, or material meets FAA airworthiness standards. Q: Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an aircraft? A: The aircraft owner Q: (1) A Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change, providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order (TSO) system requires no further approval for red installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements, A: Only 1 is true Q: The action required by an AD may take what form? 1. Inspection 2. Part(s) replacement 3. Design modification 4. Change in operating procedure(s)
5. Overall change in the content, form and disposition of aircraft maintenance records A: 1, 2, 3, and/or 4 Q: (1) Propellers are NOT included in the Airworthiness Directive System. (2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a minor repair on aluminum propeller and approve for return to service. Regarding the above statements, A: Only 2 is true Q: Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform: A: 100-hour inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on powerplants, or any components thereof, and may release the same to service. Q: Which is classified as a major repair? A: The splicing of skin sheets Q: Which of the following are sometimes used as authorization to deviate from an aircraft's original type design? A: FAA Form 337, Supplemental Type Certificate, and Airworthiness Directive Q: FAA certificated mechanics may: A: Approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they hold. Q: Which of the following is an instance when a special flight permit may not be issued? A: Flying passengers on a scheduled operation
Q: Which doubler(s) require(s) heat treatment before installation? A: -102 Q: An aircraft has a total time in service of 468 hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially complied with at 454 hours in service. How many additional hours in service may be accumulated before the Airworthiness Directive must be again complied with? A: 186 Q: Where should you find this entry? 'Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with figure 8 in the manufacturer's structural repair manual No. 21-1' A: FAA Form 337 Q: (1) Certificated mechanics with an airframe rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed indicator providing they have the necessary equipment available. (2) Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform a major repair to a propeller providing they have the necessary equipment available. Regarding the above statements, A: Neither 1 nor 2 is true Q: After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service, an FAA form 337 is prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms? A: Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA
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Q: How long are AD compliance records required to be kept? A: They shall be retained, and then transferred with the aircraft when it is sold. Q: When may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read, write, speak, and understand the English language be eligible to apply for a mechanic certificate? A: When employed outside the United States by a US air carrier. Q: The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by: A: 14 CFR Part 21 Q: Why is a mechanic applicant issued a temporary certificate after successful completion of the required test? A: To allow for review of their application and supplementary documents Q: The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA-issued aircraft specification: Normal operating speed 260 knots Never-exceed speed 293 knots Maximum lading gear operation speed 174 knots Maximum flap extended speed 139 knots The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at: A: 139 knots Q: How many parts will need to be fabricated by the mechanic in the construction and installation of one doubler? A: 3
Q: Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine- airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source? A: Aircraft Specifications or Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet. Q: Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a. 125-inch deep dent in a straight section of 1½ -inch aluminum tubing? A: Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to 37 degrees Q: The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a: A: Minor repair Q: When an aircraft is sold domestically, the Airworthiness Certificate: A: is transferred with the aircraft at the time of sale Q: The replacement of fabric-covered parts as wings, fuselages, stabilizers, or control surfaces is considered to be a: A: major repair even though no other alteration or repair is performed. Q: What is ATA iSpec 2200? A: Standardized electronic documentation for aircraft models. Q: What information is generally contained in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets? A: Control surface movements
Q: How long does the holder of a certificate issued under Part 65 have to notify the FAA after any change in permanent mailing address? A: 30 days Q: Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA Form 337? A: FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with other than US registered aircraft Q: Where are the technical descriptions of certificated propellers found? A: Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets Q: Type Certificate Data Sheets are issued for which of the following products? A: Aircraft, engines, and propellers Q: What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with an Airworthiness Directive? A: Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment Q: Which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an airplane certificated in the normal category? A: 14 CFR Part 23 Q: For aircraft operated under Part 91, which of the following records must be retained for at least one year, or until the work is repeated or superseded? A: Records of maintenance, alterations, preventative maintenance, 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections.
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Q: What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations prescribes the requirements for issuing mechanic certificates and associated ratings and the general operating rules for the holders of these certificates and ratings? A: 14 CFR Part 65 Q: Who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are of the proper type and conform to the appropriate standards? A: The installing person or agency Q: The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification No. 100 (1) Establishes a standard for the presentation of technical data in maintenance manuals. (2) Divides the aircraft into numbered systems and sub systems in order to simplify locating maintenance instructions. Regarding the above statements, A: both 1 and 2 are true Q: Which of the following statements is true for a certificated and appropriately rated mechanic regarding repairs and alterations? A: He or she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration but cannot approve the work for return to service Q: What is the status of data used as a basis for approving major repairs or alterations for return to service? A: Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for that purpose
Q: When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or operator after an inspection, it says in effect that: A: Except for these discrepancies, the item inspected is airworthy Q: If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alterations performed constitutes: A: Approval for the return to service only for the work performed Q: A certificated mechanic without an inspection authorization who signs the appropriate block on FAA Form 337 is doing what? A: Certifying that the work was done in accordance with the requirements of 14 CFR Part 43 Q: Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturer's service bulletins normally indicated? A: Aircraft Maintenance Records Q: Instrument repairs may be performed: A: by an FAA-approved instrument repair station Q: In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance records, what is it necessary to establish? A: Total time-in-service of the airframe Q: Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards for an airplane certificated in the normal category? A: 14 CFR Part 23 Q: Under the Federal Aviation Regulations, an aviation maintenance technician is required to perform maintenance on an aircraft so that it: A: Is at least equal to its original properly altered condition
Q: Primary responsibility for the compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the: A: Aircraft owner or operator Q: Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair? A: The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams Q: Specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under a type certificate, of which less than 50 are shown on the FAA Aircraft Registry, can be found in the A: Aircraft Listing Q: 14 CFR Part 65 Subpart D contains regulations regarding the certification of: A: Mechanics Q: Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aviation mechanic? A: Red line missing, mounting screws loose, case paint chipped, or leaking at line B nut Q: For aircraft operated under part 91, what difference is there, if any, between the record entry requirements for maintenance (e.g., repair or alteration) and the record entry requirements for inspections (beyond the description of the work performed and the type and extent of inspection)? A: Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the inspection entry
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Q: Under title 14 of the code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum penalty for falsification, alteration, or fraudulent reproduction of certificates, logbooks, reports, and records? A: Suspension or revocation of any certificate held Q: If more space is needed for a work description entered on FAA Form 337, what information should be included on the attached sheet(s), in addition to the rest of the work description? A: Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the date the work was accomplished. Q: What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate? A: 120 days Q: A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall mean: A: the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or deterioration. Q: An aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet contains: A: Location of the datum Q: Aviation Maintenance Alerts (formerly General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts): A: Provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective actions. Q: Certificated mechanics, under their general certificate privileges, may: A: perform 100-hour inspection of instruments Q: When is a mechanic responsible for checking AD compliance? A: When performing an inspection required under part 91, 125, or 135
Q: Which of the following includes all the regulatory definitions of 'maintenance'? A: Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, inspection, and preservation Q: 14 CFR Part 65 contains regulations regarding the certification of: A: airmen other than flight crewmembers Fluid Lines and Fittings Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same size? A: The minimum radius for steel is greater than for aluminum. Q: The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be A: 52-1/2 inches Q: Which of the following hose materials are compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluids? A: Butyl and Teflon Q: What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting? A: Black Q: Which statement is true regarding the variety of symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines?
A: Symbols are always black against a white background regardless of line content Q: A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired provided it does not A: Appear in the heel of the bend Q: Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2-inch aluminum oil lines which are to be assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves, and fittings? A: AN-818-8 Q: The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4-inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing? A: 0.606 inch Q: Which of the following statements is/are correct in reference to flare fittings? 1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone. 2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical except for material composition and identifying colors. 3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with AC fittings of compatible material composition. A: 1
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Q: Which of the following tools is best to use when cutting soft aluminum tubing? A: Hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter Q: Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and A: Outside diameter in 1/16th inch increments Q: During installation, Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings A: Are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount, unless the manufacturer lists torque values. Q: A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will A: Have equivalent flow characteristics Q: Which statement is true regarding flattening of tubing in bends? A: The small diameter of the flattened portion must not be less then 75% of the original outside diameter Q: When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing, A: Remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location Q: What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing? A: More resistant to damage when the joint is tightened Q: Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps? A: Corrosion resistant steel annealed or 1/4H
Q: A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when under pressure, it A: Contract in length and expand in diameter Q: Flexible lines must be installed with A: A slack of 5-8% of the length Q: A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is A: Used to carry a hazardous substance Q: From the following sequences of steps, indicate the proper order you would use to make a single flare on a piece of tubing: 1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring block. 2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime. 3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube. 4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the plunger one-half turn after each blow. 5. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent slippage. 6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube. A: 3,1,6,2,5,4 Q: Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than A: 10% of the wall thickness
Q: In a metal tubing installation, A: Tension is undesirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift Q: When a Teflon hose has been in service for a time, what condition may have occurred and/or what precaution should be taken when it is temporarily removed from the aircraft? A: The hose may have developed a set, or have been manufactured with a pre set shape, and must be supported to maintain its shape Q: The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to A: Prevent excessive stress on the tubing Q: If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, where is the tube most likely to be weakened/ damaged? A: At the sleeve, fitting nut, or tube flare. Q: (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing. (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring. Regarding the above statements, A: Both 1 and 2 are true Q: Rolling-type flaring tools are used to flare X, X, and X tubing. A: Soft copper, aluminum, brass Q: Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the A: Inside diameter
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Q: In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type connector eliminates A: The possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process Q: When installing a castle nut, and the nut castellation does not align with the cotter pin hole in the bolt within the torque range, the acceptable practice is to A: Change the nut or washer and try again Q: The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with A: Impressions left in natural or synthetic rubber hose material Q: When flaring aluminum tubing for use with AN fittings, the flare angle must be A: 37 degrees Q: Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by A: Providing bends in the tubing Q: Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may be repaired A: By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends Q: A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the pilot's field of vision whenever the engine is running in order to avoid A: The tail rotor
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Q: How are aviation fuels, which possess greater antiknock qualities than 100 octane, classified? A: By performance numbers Q: When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing, it is important to A: Test the brakes Q: During starting of a turbine powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure. A: Shut the engine down Q: A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause A: Vapor lock Q: Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation gasoline? A: To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers Q: If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine powerplant, what is the likely cause? A: The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich Q: When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind, the elevators and A: Upwind aileron should be held in the down position Q: When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means A: OK to proceed but use extreme caution
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Q: Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in reference to the advantages of each? A: Kerosene has a higher energy/value per unit volume than gasoline Q: (1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation gasoline and therefore holds contaminants better. (2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel. Regarding the above statements, A: Only 1 is true Q: When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing red light from the control tower means A: Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately Q: Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft A: 3 Q: When starting and ground operating an aircraft's engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into the wind primarily A: For engine cooling purposes Q: The main differences between grades 100 and 100LL fuel are A: Lead content and color Q: Characteristics of aviation gasoline are A: High heat value, high volatility Q: A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause A: Hard starting
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Q: What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel have on a turbine engine? A: The tetraethyl lead in gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades Q: A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by A: The starter cutting off too soon Q: (Refer to Figure 51.) Which marshalling signal should be given if a taxiing aircraft is in imminent danger of striking an object? A: 3 Q: When approaching the front of an idling jet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately A: 25 feet Q: What must accompany fuel vaporization? A: An absorption of heat Q: Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to A: Improve the gasolines performance in the engine Q: Which of the following conditions has the most potential for causing engine damage when starting or attempting to start a turbine engine? A: Hot start Q: The color of 100LL fuel is A: Blue
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Q: Generally, when an induction fire occurs during starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of action should be to A: Continue cranking and start the engine if possible Q: Which of the following is the most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake fire? A: Carbon Dioxide Q: When towing a large aircraft A: A persons should be in the cockpit to operate the brakes Q: When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or turbofan engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximately A: 100 feet Q: The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in the A: FULL-RICH position Q: Jet fuel number identifiers are A: Type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine Q: When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after taxiing (or towing), the nosewheel should be left A: Pointed straight ahead Q: How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-type carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? A: Crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off, and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge has been cleared.
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Q: If a fire develops in an engine during the starting procedure, you should A: Continue cranking to start the engine and extinguish the fire Q: The most important condition to be monitored during start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the A: EGT, TIT, ITT Q: Characteristics of detonation are A: Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in engine Power Q: Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing A: A tail wheel type in a direct crosswind Q: Which statement is true regarding tiedown of small aircraft? A: Nylon or Dacron rope is preferred to Manila rope Q: When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing white light from the control tower means A: Return to starting point Q: Which statement below reflects a typical requirement when towing some aircraft? A: If the aircraft has a steerable nose wheel, the torque link lock should be set to full swivel Q: If a radial engine has been shut down for more than 30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through at least two revolutions to A: Check for hydraulic lock
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FAR PARTS FAR Part 21 Certification Procedures for Products and Parts. *describes the Administrative procedures for obtaining FAA approval of products and parts *prescribes the Technical Standards which an aircraft or part must meet before the aircraft is approved for type certification. FAR Part 23 Airworthiness Standards: Normal, Utility and Acrobatic Category Aircraft. *prescribes airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates, and changes to those certificates, for airplanes in the normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter categories. FAR Part 33 Airworthiness Standards: Aircraft Engines. *prescribes airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates and changes to those certificates, for aircraft engines FAR Part 39 Airworthiness Directives. *describes the Airworthiness Directives program and how they are given FAR status. FAR Part 43 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding and Alterations. FAR Part 45 Identification and Registration Marks. FAR Part 47 Aircraft Registration FAR Part 65 Certification: Airmen other than Flight Crew members. FAR Part 91 General Operation and Flight Rules.
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FAR Part 121 Certification and Operations: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators of Large Aircraft. FAR Part 127 Certification and Operations of scheduled air carriers with helicopters. *similar with 125 but with rotorcraft instead of fixed wing FAR Part 135 Air Taxi Operators and Commercial Operations. FAR Part 145 Repair Stations. FAR Part 147 Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) Schools. FAR Part 183 Representatives of the Administrator. FAA Form 337 (major repair or alteration) FAA Form 8110-2 (supplemental Type Certificate) Part 43: Appendix A: Major Alterations, Major Repairs, and Preventive Maintenance Appendix B: Recording of Major Repairs and Major Alterations Appendix D: cope and Detail of Items (as Applicable to the Particular Aircraft) To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections Appendix E: Altimeter System Test and Inspection Appendix F: ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections FLUID LINES 2024-T or 5052-O used for general purpose low and medium pressure 1,000 to 1,500 PSI systems Steel Tubing -- Used in high pressure systems (3000 psi)
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--Used in areas subject to physical damage from dirt, debris, and corrosion (Example: Flap wells, external brake lines) Low-Pressure Hose Any pressure below 600 psi Used for air or vacuum and instrument systems Seamless inner tube Reinforcement made of single layer cotton fiber Outer Cover – ribbed or smooth rubber Medium-Pressure Hose Up to 3000 PSI Smaller sizes carry pressure up to 1,500 PSI Larger sizes carry pressure up to 3,000 PSI High-Pressure Hose Maximum operating pressure of at least 3000psi Petroleum Products Inner liner – synthetic rubber Reinforcement – two or more steel braids Black with yellow lay line . Skydrol Products Inner liner – Butyl rubber Green outer cover with white lay line .
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