FINAL PREP IN-CLASS-Quiz Results

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Purdue University *

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Mechanical Engineering

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Feb 20, 2024

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Quiz Results Green explanations indicate questions you answered correctly. Red explanations indicate questions you answered incorrectly. Score 96.0%. You answered 96 out of 100 correctly. View Performance Chart Save Missed Questions 1. V(SO) is defined as the A . stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. B. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. C. stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed. V(SO) is the calibrated power-off stalling speed or the minimum steady-flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable in the landing configuration. Answer (B) is incorrect because this is V(S1). Answer (C) is incorrect because V(S) is stalling speed, and V(2) is the minimum takeoff safety speed. 2. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? A. V(Y). B. V(A). C . V(X).

V(X) (best angle-of-climb speed) is the calibrated airspeed at which the aircraft will attain the highest altitude in a given horizontal distance. Answer (A) is incorrect because V(Y) is best rate-of-climb speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because V(A) is design maneuvering speed. 3. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft? A. Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review. B. A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. C . An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. No person may act as PIC, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry unless they have in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current pilot certificate and a photo ID. Except for free balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting gliders, no person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft unless they have in possession or readily accessible in the aircraft an appropriate current medical certificate or other documentation acceptable to the FAA. Answer (A) is incorrect because aircraft checkouts don't need to be recorded, and a flight review record and currency proof don't need to be in your possession. Answer (B) is incorrect because aircraft checkouts don't need to be recorded, and a flight review record and currency proof don't need to be in your possession. 4. A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A. May 3, 1 year later.

B. May 31, 1 year later. C . May 31, 2 years later. A Third Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of the 24th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination, for operations requiring a Private Pilot Certificate. 5. For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23- year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on A. October 21, 2 years later. B. October 31, next year. C . October 31, 5 years later. A First Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of the 60th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination, for operations requiring a Private Pilot Certificate. 6. To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding A . 48 months. B. 24 months. C. 12 months.

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BasicMed regulations require you to complete the CMEC every 24 months while a physical examination by a state-licensed physician must be completed every 48 months. 7. To maintain BasicMed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every A . 48 months. B . 24 months. C. 12 months. BasicMed regulations require you to complete a medical education course every 24 months and a medical examination checklist and physical examination with a state-licensed physician every 48 months. 8. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A. If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. B . If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight. C. There is no exception. A private pilot may act as PIC of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization, and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization. This can be done if the sponsor of the airlift notifies the FSDO having jurisdiction over the area concerned, at least 7 days before the flight, and furnishes any essential information that the office requests.

9. (Refer to Figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)? A . Student Pilot Certificate. B. Private Pilot Certificate C. Sport Pilot Certificate. Hayward Executive is located in Class D airspace up to but not including 1,500 feet MSL as depicted by the blue segmented line surrounding it. No specific pilot certification is required for flight within Class D airspace. A student pilot may operate within Class D airspace with appropriate solo endorsements. Answer (B) is incorrect because no minimum pilot certificate is specified for operations in Class D airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because no minimum pilot certificate is specified for operations in Class D airspace. 10. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from A. 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. B . 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. C. the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. Federal airways are part of Class B, C, D, or E airspace. They are 8 miles wide, 4 miles either side of centerline. They usually begin at 1,200 AGL and continue up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL, or FL180. 11. With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 14,500 feet MSL. C . 18,000 feet MSL. Class E airspace extends upward to (but not including) 18,000 feet MSL. 12. (Refer to figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? A . Class C. B . Class E. C. Class G. The Nalf Fentress (NFE) airport is halfway between areas 1 and 2 in Figure 20. It is inside a magenta dashed line indicating Class E airspace starts at the surface. Answer (A) is incorrect because Class C airspace is indicated with a solid magenta line. Answer (C) is incorrect because Class G airspace would be indicated with solid (shaded) magenta or blue lines. 13. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least A. 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

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B . 1,000 feet and 3 miles. C. 2,500 feet and 3 miles. Except as provided in 14 CFR 91.157, no person may operate an aircraft, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. The flight visibility and cloud clearance for VFR operations in Class D airspace is 3 SM visibility, and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from all clouds. 14. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A . In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. B. Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment. C. Under no condition. Except in an emergency, or a medical patient under proper care, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated, or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs, to be carried in that aircraft. 15. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A . 8 hours. B. 12 hours.

C. 24 hours. No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage. Remember: '8 hours bottle to throttle.' 16. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A. Only in an emergency. B . If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C. If prior permission is received from the FAA. No PIC of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property. 17. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with A. .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. B. .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. C . .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. No person may act, or attempt to act, as a crewmember of a civil aircraft while having .04 percent or more, by weight, alcohol in the blood. 18. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division?

A . No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. B. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate. Each person holding a pilot certificate shall provide a written report of each drug or alcohol-related motor vehicle action to the AMC-700 not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. 19. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A . taxi, takeoffs, and landings. B. all flight conditions. C. flight in turbulent air. During taxi, takeoff, and landing, each person on board the aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a seatbelt and shoulder harness, properly secured if installed. 20. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 200 knots. B . 250 knots. C. 288 knots.

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Maximum speed below 10,000 feet MSL is 250 knots. 21. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A. that has the other to its right. B. that is the least maneuverable. C . at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another. When two aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, the lower aircraft has the right-of-way. A pilot shall not take advantage of that rule to overtake or cut in front of another aircraft. 22. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A . 200 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 250 knots. No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying Class B airspace at a speed of more than 200 knots. 23. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A. taxi at a faster speed.

B. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. C . return to the starting point on the airport. A flashing white light signal to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to return to the starting point on the airport. Answer (A) is incorrect because there are no light signals for these instructions. Answer (B) is incorrect because there are no light signals for these instructions. 24. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to A. hold position. B . exercise extreme caution. C. not land; the airport is unsafe. An alternating red and green light signal means to exercise extreme caution. Answer (A) is incorrect because you can't hold position in flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because this would be a flashing red signal. 25. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Commercial Pilot Certificate. B . Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

C. Private Pilot Certificate with an Instrument Rating. It is generally true that no person may operate a civil aircraft within Class B airspace unless the pilot-in-command holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate or is a student pilot that has the proper logbook endorsements. However, there are certain Class B airports which never permit students, even if they have the proper endorsements. Answer (A) is incorrect because Private pilots may operate in Class B airspace. Answer (C) is incorrect because only some airports restrict student pilots, and none require an Instrument Rating. 26. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? A. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. B. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME. C . Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. Class C requires two-way radio communications equipment, a transponder, and an encoding altimeter. 27. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C . 5 miles.

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Controlled airspace above 10,000 feet which allows VFR is Class E airspace, and requires 5 statute miles visibility above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL. 28. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a A. magnetic heading of 0° through 179°. B . magnetic course of 0° through 179°. C. true course of 0° through 179°. When operating below 18,000 feet MSL in VFR cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and on a magnetic course of 0° through 179°, any odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (i.e., 3,500, 5,500, etc.) is appropriate. On a course of 180° through 359°, even thousands plus 500 feet (4,500, 6,500, etc.) is appropriate. Answer (A) is incorrect because VFR altitudes are based on a magnetic course. Answer (C) is incorrect because VFR altitudes are based on a magnetic course. 29. In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A. Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual. B. Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms. C . Operating limitations and registration certificate. No person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it: 1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate, displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew. 2. A registration certificate issued to its owner.

3. An approved flight manual, manual material, markings and placards or any combination thereof, which show the operating limitations of the aircraft. 30. When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if re-chargeable? A. After any inadvertent activation of the ELT. B . When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. C. When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver. ELT batteries must be replaced after 1 hour of cumulative use or when 50 percent of their useful life has expired, whichever comes first. 31. Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A. End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. B. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C . Sunset to sunrise. An aircraft must display lighted position lights from sunset to sunrise. Answer (A) is incorrect because it applies to logging of night time. Answer (B) is incorrect because it applies to the night landing requirement. 32. Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

A . Owner or operator. B. Certified mechanic. C. Repair station. Each owner or operator shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating maintenance done and the aircraft has been approved for return to service. 33. Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with? A . Owner or operator. B. Repair station. C. Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with the ADs found in 14 CFR Part 39. 34. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 12 calendar months. C . 24 calendar months.

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No person may use an ATC transponder unless within the preceding 24 calendar months, the ATC transponder has been tested and inspected and found to comply with Appendix F of Part 43. 35. May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? A. Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. B . Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. C. No, it may not be moved under any circumstances. Prior to the time the Board and its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, it may not be disturbed or moved except to remove persons injured or trapped, to protect the wreckage from further damage, or to protect the public from injury. 36. The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days? A. 5 B. 7 C . 10 The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1 or 6120.2 within 10 days of an accident. 37. Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?

A . An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. B. An inflight radio communications failure. C. An inflight generator or alternator failure. When an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident, the NTSB must be notified immediately. 38. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft`s A. lift/drag ratio. B. lifting capacity. C . aerodynamic balance and controllability. The center of pressure of an asymmetrical airfoil moves forward as the angle of attack is increased, and backward as the angle of attack is decreased. This backward and forward movement of the point at which lift acts, affects the aerodynamic balance and the controllability of the aircraft. Answer (A) is incorrect because the lift/drag ratio is determined by the angle of attack. Answer (B) is incorrect because lifting capacity is determined by angle of attack and airspeed. 39. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude? A. 4,500 pounds.

B . 6,750 pounds. C. 7,200 pounds. Referencing FAA Figure 2, use the following steps: 1. Enter the chart at a 45° angle of bank and proceed upward to the curved reference line. From the point of intersection, move to the left side of the chart and read a load factor of 1.5 Gs. 2. Multiply the aircraft weight by the load factor. 4,500 x 1.5 = 6,750 lbs Or, working from the table: 4,500 x 1.414 (load factor) = 6,363 lbs Answer B is the closest. 40. (Refer to Figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude? A. 1,200 pounds. B. 3,100 pounds. C . 3,960 pounds. Referencing FAA Figure 2, use the following steps: 1. Enter the chart at a 30° angle of bank and proceed upward to the curved reference line. From the point of intersection, move to the left side of the chart and read an approximate load factor of 1.2 Gs. 2. Multiply the aircraft weight by the load factor: 3,300 x 1.2 = 3,960 lbs Or, working from the table: 3,300 x 1.154 (load factor) = 3,808 lbs Answer C is the closest. Answer (A) is incorrect because they are less than 3,300 pounds; load factor increases with bank for level flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because they are less than 3,300 pounds; load factor increases with bank for level flight.

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41. Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will A. increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat. B. result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans. C . cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. High engine temperatures can lead to loss of power, excessive oil consumption, detonation, and serious engine damage. 42. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine A. will run very rough. B. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position. C . cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position. If the ground wire between a magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the primary current cannot be directed to ground, and the engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position. 43. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used? A. All the time, to aid the engine-driven fuel pump. B . In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

C. Constantly, except in starting the engine. Two fuel pump systems are used on most airplanes. The main pump system is engine driven and an auxiliary electric driven pump is provided for use in the event the engine pump fails. The auxiliary pump, commonly known as the boost pump, provides added reliability to the fuel system, and is also used as an aid in engine starting. The electric auxiliary pump is controlled by a switch in the cockpit. 44. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? A . The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean. B. There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine. C. The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation. Air density increases in the descent, but the amount of fuel drawn into the carburetor remains the same. To re-establish a balanced fuel/air mixture in a descent, the mixture control must be adjusted toward rich. Answer (B) is incorrect because the mixture will become too lean and the engine temperature will increase. Answer (C) is incorrect because an excessively lean mixture will result. 45. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as A . high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high. B. high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.

C. low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high. If the temperature is between -7°C (20°F) and 21°C (70°F) with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot should be constantly on the alert for carburetor ice. Answer (B) is incorrect because icing is less likely to occur above 70°F. Answer (C) is incorrect because icing is less likely to occur below 20°F. 46. Carburetor icing can occur with an OAT as high as A. 100° F and visible moisture. B . 20° C and high relative humidity. C. 75° F and low relative humidity. If the temperature is between -7°C (20°F) and 21°C (70°F), with visible moisture or high humidity, the pilot should constantly be on the alert for carburetor ice. 47. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as A. combustion. B . pre-ignition. C. detonation. Preignition is defined as ignition of the fuel prior to normal ignition.

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Answer (A) is incorrect because combustion is the normal engine process. Answer (C) is incorrect because detonation is the exploding of the fuel/air mixture. 48. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to A. lean the mixture. B . lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed. C. apply carburetor heat. To prevent detonation, the pilot should use the correct grade of fuel, maintain a sufficiently rich mixture, open the throttle smoothly, and keep the temperature of the engine within recommended operating limits. Some aircraft have an automatically enriched mixture for enhanced cooling in takeoff and climb-out at full throttle. Lowering the nose will allow the aircraft to gain airspeed, which eventually lowers the engine temperature. Answer (A) is incorrect because leaning the mixture increases engine temperatures; detonation results from excessively high engine temperatures. Answer (C) is incorrect because although a richer fuel mixture results from applying carburetor heat, the heat may offset the cooling effect of the mixture change. The most efficient initial action would be to increase airspeed. 49. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by A . the oil level being too low. B. operating with a too high viscosity oil. C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

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Oil, used primarily to lubricate the moving parts of the engine, also helps reduce engine temperature by removing some of the heat from the cylinders. Therefore, if the oil level is too low, the transfer of heat to less oil would cause the oil temperature to rise. Answer (B) is incorrect because the higher the viscosity, the better the lubricating and cooling capability of the oil. Answer (C) is incorrect because a rich fuel/air mixture usually decreases engine temperature. 50. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates A. calibrated altitude at field elevation. B. absolute altitude at field elevation. C . true altitude at field elevation. The local altimeter setting corrects for the difference between existing pressure and standard atmospheric pressure. Whether local pressure is higher or lower than standard, it will indicate true altitude (MSL) at ground level, when the aircraft altimeter is set to the local altimeter setting (assuming no setting scale error). Answer (A) is incorrect because 'calibrated' does not apply to altitudes; it only applies to airspeeds. Answer (B) is incorrect because absolute altitude is the height above the ground. 51. What is density altitude? A. The height above the standard datum plane. B . The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

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C. The altitude read directly from the altimeter. Under standard atmospheric conditions, each level of air in the atmosphere has a specific density, and under standard conditions, pressure altitude and density altitude identify the same level. At temperatures higher or lower than standard, density altitude cannot be determined directly from the altimeter. Answer (A) is incorrect because the height above the standard datum plane is pressure altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because the altitude read from the altimeter is indicated altitude. 52. What is pressure altitude? A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. B . The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92. C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure. The pressure altitude can be determined by either of two methods: 1. Setting the barometric scale of the altimeter to 29.92 and reading the indicated altitude, or 2. Applying a correction factor to the elevation (true altitude) according to the reported altimeter setting. Answer (A) is incorrect because the altimeter is not corrected for position and installation error. Answer (C) is incorrect because indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure defines density altitude. 53. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude? A. If the altimeter has no mechanical error. B . When at sea level under standard conditions.

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C. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92. On a standard day (29.92 "Hg and +15°C) at sea level, pressure altitude, indicated altitude, and density altitude are all equal. Any variation from standard temperature or pressure will have an effect on the altimeter. Answer (A) is incorrect because mechanical error does not apply to true altitude. Answer (C) is incorrect because when the altimeter is set to 29.92, it indicates pressure altitude. 54. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? A. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude. B. 70-foot increase in density altitude. C . 700-foot increase in indicated altitude. When the knob on the altimeter is rotated, the pressure scale moves simultaneously with the altimeter pointers. The numerical values of pressure indicated in the window increase while the altimeter indicates an increase in altitude; or decrease while the altimeter indicates a decrease in altitude. This is contrary to the reaction on the pointers when air pressure changes, and is based solely on the mechanical makeup of the altimeter. The difference between the two settings is equal to 0.70 "Hg (29.85 - 29.15). At the standard pressure lapse rate of 1 "Hg = 1,000 feet in altitude, the amount of change equals 700 feet. 55. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument? A. Altimeter. B. Vertical speed indicator.

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C . Airspeed indicator. The pitot tube provides input for the airspeed indicator only. Answer (A) is incorrect because the altimeter and vertical speed indicator operate off the static system. Answer (B) is incorrect because the altimeter and vertical speed indicator operate off the static system. 56. (Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane? A. 0 to 60 knots. B. 100 to 165 knots. C . 165 to 208 knots. The caution range (yellow arc) includes speeds which should only be flown in smooth air, and is 165 to 208 knots for this airplane. Answer (A) is incorrect because 0 to 60 knots is less than stall speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because 100 to 165 knots is the normal operating airspeed range from maximum flap extension speed to maximum structural cruising speed, the upper limit of the green arc and lower limit of the yellow arc. 57. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if A. an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading. B. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading. C . a left turn is entered from a north heading.

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If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags, or indicates a turn in the opposite direction. Answer (A) is incorrect because acceleration error does not occur on north or south headings. Answer (B) is incorrect because acceleration error does not occur on north or south headings. 58. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if A. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading. B. a left turn is entered from a west heading. C . an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading. While on an east or west heading, an increase in airspeed or acceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn toward the north and a deceleration will cause the compass to indicate a turn to the south. If on a north or south heading, no error will be apparent because of acceleration or deceleration. (Remember ANDS = Accelerate North Decelerate South). 59. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate? A . Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. B. As long as the airspeed is constant. C. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°. The magnetic compass should be read only when the aircraft is flying straight- and-level at a constant speed. This will help reduce errors to the minimum.

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Answer (B) is incorrect because airspeed can remain constant in a turn, and the compass is subject to turning errors. Answer (C) is incorrect because no matter how steep the turn, the compass is still susceptible to turning errors. 60. (Refer to Figure 8.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions: Altimeter setting 29.25 Runway temperature + 81°F Airport elevation 5,250 ft MSL A. 4,600 feet MSL. B. 5,877 feet MSL. C . 8,500 feet MSL. Referencing FAA Figure 8, use the following steps: 1. Since the altimeter setting that is given is not shown in FAA Figure 8, interpolation is necessary. Locate the settings immediately above and below the given value of 29.25 "Hg: Altimeter Setting Conversion Factor 29.20 673 feet 29.30 579 feet 2. Determine the difference between the two conversion factors: 673 - 579 = 94 feet 3. Determine the amount of difference to be added to the 29.30 "Hg conversion factor: 94 x .5 = 47 feet 4. Add the amount of difference to the amount shown for the 29.30 "Hg conversion factor: 579 + 47 = 626 feet 5. Add the correction factor to the airport elevation to find pressure altitude: 5,250 + 626 = 5,876 feet MSL (pressure altitude) 6. Determine the density altitude by entering the chart at +81°F; move upward to the 5,876 pressure altitude line; from the point of intersection, move to the left and read a density altitude of 8,500 feet. 61. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance? A. It increases performance.

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B . It decreases performance. C. It has no effect on performance. An increase in air temperature or humidity, or a decrease in air pressure (which results in a higher density altitude) will significantly decrease both power output and propeller efficiency. If an air mass is humid, there is more water in it, therefore, less oxygen. 62. What force makes an airplane turn? A . The horizontal component of lift. B. The vertical component of lift. C. Centrifugal force. As the airplane is banked, lift acts horizontally as well as vertically and the airplane is pulled around the turn. Answer (B) is incorrect because the vertical component of lift has no horizontal force to make the airplane turn. Answer (C) is incorrect because the centrifugal force acts against the horizontal component of lift. 63. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? A. Aileron down on the downwind side. B. Ailerons neutral.

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C . Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. Taxiing with a quartering tailwind provides the most hazardous conditions. In this case, the elevator should be in the down position and the aileron on the upwind side should also be in the down position to keep the wing from lifting. 64. The term angle of attack is defined as the angle between the A . chord line of the wing and the relative wind. B. airplane's longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil. C. airplane's center line and the relative wind. The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind. 65. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? A . Unequal heating of the Earth's surface. B. Variation of terrain elevation. C. Coriolis force. All altimeter settings are corrected to sea level. Unequal heating of the Earth's surface causes pressure differences. 66. When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience

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A. clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. B. good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. C . an increase in temperature as altitude increases. An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as an inversion. An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates heat and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold while the temperature a few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, the temperature increases with height. A ground-based inversion usually means poor visibility. Answer (A) is incorrect because a temperature inversion will not result in vertical development, since warm air will not rise if the air above is warmer. Answer (B) is incorrect because a temperature inversion will trap dust, smoke, and other particles, thus causing reduced visibilities. 67. What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere? A. Atmospheric pressure. B . Actual lapse rate. C. Surface temperature. The difference between the existing lapse rate of a given mass of air and the adiabatic rates of cooling in upward moving air determines if the air is stable or unstable. 68. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

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A . Warming from below. B. Cooling from below. C. Decrease in water vapor. When air near the surface is warm and moist, suspect instability. Surface heating, cooling aloft, converging or upslope winds, or an invading mass of colder air may lead to instability and cumuliform clouds. Answer (B) is incorrect because cooling from the air below would increase the stability of the air. Answer (C) is incorrect because an increase in water vapor will result in a decrease in stability. 69. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there A. are thunderstorms in the area. B. has been cold frontal passage. C . is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude. Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitude. 70. What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dew point is 48°F? A. 4,000 feet MSL. B. 5,000 feet MSL.

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C . 6,000 feet MSL. When lifted, unsaturated air cools at approximately 5.4°F per 1,000 feet. The dew point cools at approximately 1°F per 1,000 feet. Therefore, the convergence of the temperature and dew point lapse rates is 4.4°F per 1,000 feet. The base of a cloud (AGL) that is formed by vertical currents can be roughly calculated by dividing the difference between the surface temperature and the dew point by 4.4 and multiplying the rounded result by 1,000. 1. 70°F surface temperature - 48°F dew point = 22°F 2. 22 ÷ 4.4 = 5 3. 5 x 1,000 = 5,000 feet AGL 4. 5,000 feet AGL + 1,000 feet field elevation = 6,000 feet MSL 71. What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass? A . Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. B. Poor visibility and smooth air. C. Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation. Characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass include cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, rough air (turbulence), and good visibility (except in blowing obstructions). 72. How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff? A . Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. B. Frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff. C. Frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.

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The roughness of the surface of frost spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of the airflow. This slowing of the air causes early air flow separation over the affected airfoil, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. Answer (B) is incorrect because frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil. Answer (C) is incorrect because frost may prevent the aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed and will not lower the angle of attack. 73. A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a A. prefrontal system. B . squall line. C. dry line. A squall line is a nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single, most intense weather hazard to aircraft. 74. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A. A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains. B . An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. C. A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas. This fog frequently forms offshore as a

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result of cold water, then is carried inland by the wind. Answer (A) is incorrect because a warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains will form upslope fog and/or rain. Answer (C) is incorrect because a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea will form steam fog. 75. Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by A. warm, dense air moving inland from over the water. B. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. C . cool, dense air moving inland from over the water. Caused by the heating of land on warm, sunny days, the sea breeze usually begins during early morning, reaches a maximum during the afternoon, and subsides around dusk after the land has cooled. The leading edge of the cool sea breeze forces warmer air inland to rise. Rising air from over land returns seaward at higher altitude to complete the convective cell. Answer (A) is incorrect because there will be cooler air over the water. Answer (B) is incorrect because land absorbs and radiates heat faster. 76. What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist? A. Radiation fog and ice fog. B. Steam fog and ground fog. C . Advection fog and upslope fog. Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas, but often develops deep in continental areas. Advection fog deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots. Wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or

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stratocumulus. Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Answer (A) is incorrect because radiation fog and ice fog do not depend upon wind in order to exist. Answer (B) is incorrect because ground fog does not depend upon wind in order to exist. 77. Which inflight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms? A. Convective SIGMET. B . SIGMET. C. AIRMET. A SIGMET advises of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft other than convective activity. Some items included are severe icing, and severe or extreme turbulence. 78. What should pilots state initially when telephoning Flight Service for preflight weather information? A. The intended route of flight radio frequencies. B. The address of the pilot-in-command. C . The intended route of flight and destination. When requesting a briefing, pilots should identify themselves and provide as much information regarding the proposed flight as possible.

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Answer (A) is incorrect because the pilot only needs to identify the route of flight. Answer (B) is incorrect because the caller only needs to provide an aircraft number of pilot's name. 79. How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots? A . 14.25 NM. B. 15.00 NM. C. 14.50 NM. To find the distance flown in a given time, multiply ground speed by time. The distance flown in 7.5 minutes (convert to hours by dividing by 60) at a ground speed of 114 knots is .125 x 114 = 14.25 NM. 80. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. A . 36°24'N - 76°01'W. B. 36°48'N - 76°01'W. C. 47°24'N - 75°58'W. Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west longitude increases going westward. The approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport is 36°24'N, 76°01'W. 81. (Refer to Figure 20, area 3; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west

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of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct? A. 2. B . 5. C. 8. 1. Locate the Shawboro Airport and the Elizabeth City VOR in FAA Figure 20. Draw the radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Elizabeth City VOR on which Shawboro lies (030°). 2. When over Shawboro on the 030° radial, the CDI should be centered with a 030° FROM indication or a 210° TO indication (the reciprocal). Dials 5 and 9 satisfy these conditions. 82. (Refer to Figure 21, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? A. Turtle Lake. B . MAKEEFF. C. Johnson. Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west longitude increases going westward. The Makeeff (PVT) airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude. 83. (Refer to Figure 22, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport.

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A. 47°02'N - 116°11'W. B . 47°33'N - 116°11'W. C. 47°32'N - 116°41'W. Graticules on Sectional Aeronautical Charts are the lines dividing each 30 minutes of latitude and each 30 minutes of longitude. Each tick mark represents one minute of latitude or longitude. Latitude increases northward, west longitude increases going westward. The approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport is 47°33'N, 116°11'W. 84. (Refer to Figure 22.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. A . 121°. B. 143°. C. 136°. Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Priest River to Shoshone County Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (143°). 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer (Wind Correction on FLT menu using CX-3): Wind direction is 030° (given in question) Wind speed is 12 knots (given in question) True course is 143° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 95 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 136°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by subtracting the easterly variation (15°E, as shown on the dashed isogonic line) from the true heading (136°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 136° - 15°E

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MH = 121° 85. (Refer to Figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, the true airspeed is 90 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6 degrees West. A . 209°. B . 230°. C. 212°. Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course from Allendale County Airport to Claxton-Evans County Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route (212°). 3. Find the true heading using a flight computer (Wind Correction on FLT menu using CX-3): Wind direction is 090° (given in question) Wind speed is 16 knots (given in question) True course is 212° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 90 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 203°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading (MH) by adding the westerly variation (6°W) to the true heading (203°): MH = TH ± VAR MH = 203° + 6°W MH = 209° 86. On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule. Distance between A and B 70 NM Forecast wind 310° at 15 kts Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Ambient temperature -10 °C True course 270° The required indicated airspeed would be approximately

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A. 126 knots. B . 137 knots. C. 152 knots. Use your CX-3 electronic flight computer to find the answer: 1. Find the ground speed that must be made between points A and B (Ground Speed on FLT menu). Distance 70 NM Time to travel 30 min Ground speed 140 kts 2. Find the true airspeed (Wind Correction on FLT menu). Wind direction 310° Wind speed 15 kts Course 270° Ground speed 140 kts True airspeed 151.8 kts True heading 274° 3. Find the required indicated (or calibrated) airspeed (Airspeed on FLT menu). Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Temperature -10 degrees C True airspeed 151.8 kts Indicated airspeed 137.1 kts (same as calibrated). 87. (Refer to Figures 23 and 58.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 08 knots, the true airspeed is 85 knots, and the magnetic variation is 5 degrees West. A. 033°. B . 042°. C. 038°. 1. Plot the course from Claxton-Evans County Airport to Hampton Varnville Airport. 2. Measure the true course angle at the approximate midpoint of the route

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(044°). 3. Use a flight computer to find the true heading (Wind Correction on FLT menu using CX-3): Wind direction is 280° (given in question) Wind speed is 8 knots (given in question) True course is 044° (found in Step 2) True airspeed is 85 knots (given in question) Therefore, the true heading is 040°. 4. Calculate the magnetic heading by adding the westerly variation (5°W) to the true heading (040°). MH = TH ± VAR MH = 040° + 5°W MH = 045° 5. Note that the compass deviation card in Figure 58 indicates that in order to fly a magnetic course of 030°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of 027° or a 3° compass deviation. To fly a magnetic course of 060°, the pilot must steer a compass heading of 056° or a 4° compass deviation. Interpolate between these to find the compass correction for 045° (3.5°). Calculate the compass heading (CH) by subtracting the compass deviation (3.5°) from the magnetic heading (045°): CH = MH +/- DEV, CH = 045° - 3.5°, CH = 41.5° 88. (Refer to Figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? A. 003°. B . 195°. C. 200°. Use the following steps: 1. Plot the course direct from Hampton Varnville Airport to the Savannah VORTAC. 2. Note the radial (magnetic course from Savannah) on which the plotted course lies (015°). 3. Determine the course TO the VORTAC by finding the reciprocal: TO = FROM + 180° TO = 015° + 180° TO = 195°

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89. (Refer to Figure 24.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245? radial of Sulphur Springs VOR/DME (area 5) and the 140? radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)? A. Weese Intl. Airport. B . Glenmar Airport. C. Majors Airport. Use the following steps: 1. Plot the 245° radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Sulphur Springs VOR/DME. 2. Plot the 140° radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Bonham VORTAC. 3. Note the intersection of the two plotted radials over the Glenmar Airport (Pvt). 90. (Refer to Figure 26, areas 4 and 2; and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport. Which VOR indication is correct? A. 2. B . 5. C. 8. 1. Locate the Cooperstown Airport and the Jamestown VOR in FAA Figure 26. Draw the radial (magnetic course FROM) of the Jamestown VOR on which Cooperstown Airport lies (030). 2. When over cooperstown Airport on the 030 radial, the CDI have a 030 FROM indication or a 210 TO indication (the reciprocal). Dial 5 satisfies these conditions.

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91. (Refer to Figure 27.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1345Z. B. 1445Z. C . 1545Z. Use the following steps: 1. Convert the EDT takeoff time to UTC: 0945 EDT takeoff time + 0400 conversion = 1345Z UTC (also called 'ZULU' time) 2. Add the flight time to the ZULU time of takeoff: 1345Z takeoff time + 0200 = 1545Z time of landing 92. If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight, A. the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information. B . the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. C. GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available. The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least one satellite, in addition to those required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect an integrity anomaly. For receivers capable of doing so, RAIM needs 6 satellites in view (or 5 satellites with baro-aiding) to isolate the corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution. GPS derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large and no integrity is provided.

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93. When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read A. 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT. B. 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. C . 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT frequency on the VOR receiver. With the CDI centered, the OBS should read 0° with the TO/FROM indication showing 'FROM' or the OBS should read 180° with the TO/FROM indication showing 'TO.' 94. (Refer to Figure 26, area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is A. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace. B. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL. C . Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. The Barnes County Airport is depicted inside the magenta shading, which is controlled airspace from 700 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet. Therefore, the airspace below 700 feet AGL is Class G. 95. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller? A. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

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B . Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance. C. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations. A constant-speed propeller permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance for a particular flight condition. A low blade angle allows higher RPM and horsepower, desirable for takeoffs. An intermediate position can be used for subsequent climb. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade may be changed to a higher angle for lower RPM, reduced engine noise, generally lower vibration, and greater fuel efficiency. Answer (A) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller is not used to maintain airspeed, but rather constant engine RPM. Answer (C) is incorrect because a constant-speed propeller may not be smoother or operate with less vibration than a fixed-pitch propeller. 96. (Refer to Figure 60.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum? A . 1 inch to the left. B. 1 inch to the right. C. 4.5 inches to the right. 1. Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and set them equal to one another. left = right 500(X) = 250(20) + 200(15) 500X = 8,000 X = 16 inches 2. The 500-pound weight must be 16 inches from the fulcrum to be in balance. It is currently located at 15 inches, therefore the weight should be shifted 1 inch to the left. 97. GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT (LB) (IN) (LB-IN)

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Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 -- Fuel (30 gal usable-no reserve) -- 96.0 -- The CG is located how far aft of datum? A. CG 92.44. B . CG 94.01. C. CG 119.8. 1. Compute the total weight and moment using the formula: Weight x Arm = Moment or: Item Weight Arm Moment Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Pilot & passenger 380.0 64.0 24,320.0 Fuel (30 x 6) 180.0 96.0 17,280.0 Total 2,055.0 lbs 193,193.0 2. Compute the center of gravity using the formula: CG = Total Moment ÷ Total Weight or: CG = 193,193 ÷ 2,055 = 94.01 inches aft of datum 98. (Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the moment with the following data: WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 340 -- Fuel (std tanks) Capacity -- Oil, 8 qt -- -- A. 69.9 pound-inches. B . 74.9 pound-inches. C. 77.6 pound-inches.

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1. Find the total weight and moment index by using the loading graph from FAA Figure 34. Item Weight Moment/1,000 B.E.W. 1,350 lbs 51.5 lbs-in Pilot & Pax (a) 340 lbs 12.6 lbs-in Fuel (Std. Tanks) (b) 228 lbs 11.0 lbs-in Oil (c) 15 lbs -0.2 lbs-in Total 1,933 lbs 74.9 lbs-in 99. (Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots? A . 19 knots. B . 23 knots. C. 26 knots. Use the following steps: 1. Determine the relative wind angle (WA) from the difference between the runway heading (RH) and the wind direction (WD): WA = WD - RH WA = 220° - 180° WA = 40° 2. Locate the arc corresponding to a 30-knot wind on FAA Figure 36. 3. Find the point of intersection of the 40° line with the 30-knot wind speed arc. 4. Draw a line to the left from the intersection to the headwind component scale and read the resulting velocity of 23 knots. 100. Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program? A. Recreational pilots only. B. Military pilots.

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C . Student pilots. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program.

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