Practice Mid Term Exam

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Feb 20, 2024

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Practice Mid Term Exam – T&D 1) Components of a performance management process usually identify training and development needs of individuals leading to concrete plans for development of skills, knowledge, and abilities a. True b. False 2) Development is described as a planned effort to develop employees’ knowledge, skills, and abilities to help employees perform better at their current jobs a. True b. False 3) One of the extrinsic benefits of training and development is the benefits realized by society a. True b. False 4) The key environmental factors that drive human resources and training and development within an organization include technology, global competition, the labour market, and organizational strategy a. True b. False 5) The trend toward flatter organizational structures is causing some element of blurriness in what constitutes traditional roles associated with management functions a. True b. False 6) Restructuring, downsizing, and reengineering often lead to changes in employees’ tasks and responsibilities and so necessitate the need for training a. True b. False 7) A high-performance work system may be described as a specific combination of human resource practices that maximize the knowledge, skills, abilities, flexibility, and commitment of employees a. True b. False 8) A needs analysis typically has three levels: an organizational analysis, a departmental analysis, and a person analysis a. True b. False 9) The ISD model of training and development has three major steps: needs analysis, design, and delivery a. True b. False

10) Human capital refers to the knowledge, skills, and abilities of an organization’s employees a. True b. False 11) Work engagement is a positive, fulfilling, work-related state of mind that characterized by vigor, dedication, and attention a. True b. False 12) According to the textbook, what is the number-one attraction and retention tool for many organizations? a. Compensation b. Training c. Bonuses d. Development 13) Which of the following are two extrinsic benefits training will give an employee? a. An improved marketability and greater job security b. A greater sense of self-efficacy and a sense of accomplishment c. A more positive attitude toward their employer and their own confidence d. A greater sense of engagement toward customers and fellow employees 14) What should be the most important internal or external factor influencing training and development programs in organizations? a. Demographics b. The competitive nature of the industry c. Corporate strategy d. Leadership and managerial decisions 15) Which of the following key environmental factors drive training and development? a. Change b. Values c. Selection d. Culture 16) What tends to result when an organization subscribes to strategic human resource management whereby it has greater alignment between its HR practices and its strategies? a. Superior performance b. Greater work-life balance c. Enhanced efficiencies d. Exemplary quality

17) Which of the following is impacted by high-performance work systems? a. Employees’ compensation b. Employers’ motivation c. Employees’ motivation d. Community involvement 18) Which of the following statements regarding the instructional systems design (ISD) model is congruent with the material presented in the textbook? a. It is an irrational and scientific process b. It consists of four main steps: needs analysis, design, delivery, and evaluation c. It is a much more complex model when compared with the streamline ADDIE model d. Its first step attempts to answer the question “is training needed and is it the best solution?” 19) When a behaviour has been learned it can be thought of as a skill a. True b. False 20) According to Robert Gagne, learning outcomes associated with training can be classified into five general categories: declarative knowledge, intellectual skills, cognitive strategies, motor skills, and procedural knowledge a. True b. False 21) Kurt Kraiger and colleagues developed a classification scheme for learning outcomes that includes cognitive outcomes, skill-based outcomes, and affective outcomes a. True b. False 22) Conditioning theory suggests that trainees should be encouraged and reinforced throughout the training process a. True b. False 23) “Adult Learning” should be self-directed, and problem centred and should take into account the learner’s existing knowledge and experience a. True b. False 24) The 70-20-10 model states that 70% of workplace learning comes from on-the-job experiences, 20% comes from education, and 10% comes from formal learning activities and events a. True b. False

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25) Training motivation predicts learning and training outcomes and is influenced by environmental and individual factors a. True b. False 26) A trainee’s cognitive abilities influence how much and how quickly a trainee will learn, impacting actual job performance a. True b. False 27) Self-regulation prompts ask trainees questions about their preferred style of learning a. True b. False 28) Which of the following is NOT an implication you would draw from understanding Kolb’s learning styles theory? a. Trainees differ in the way they prefer to learn b. Training methods should be aligned with the trainee’s learning preferences c. A trainee’s learning style is related to how trainees acquire knowledge in training and how they use information on the job d. Training design should consider so-called learning modes 29) Which of the following characteristics are congruent with the notion of informal learning? a. Spontaneous, immediate, and task-specific b. Strategic, goal-oriented, and long-term focused c. Structured, group-focused, and unplanned d. Defined, organization-wide, and explicit 30) Why is the concept of informal learning receiving so much attention from managers? a. Because of the need to reduce expenditures in training and development b. Because of the speed of change and demographic realities c. Because of the level of attention the topic of informal learning has received from academics and management gurus d. Because it requires fewer resources and management attention 31) How is the concept of training motivation defined? a. Trainees’ beliefs about how their behaviour is controlled b. The direction, intensity, and persistence of learning-directed behaviour c. The motivation that stems from a direct relationship between a worker and the task d. The relationship between worker, task, and valence

32) What training conclusions can be drawn for individuals with an internal locus of control? a. They tend to have lower self-efficacy for training b. They tend to have higher training motivation c. They tend to have higher anxiety about training d. They tend to make a weaker link between effort and training 33) One of the key outcomes of an organizational analysis is determining the congruency of a potential training program and the corporate or business-level strategy a. True b. False 34) Besides clarifying the nature of performance gaps, a needs analysis helps to determine whether training and development is a good solution to performance problems or whether some other intervention might be more effective a. True b. False 35) Organizational climate refers to the collective attitudes of its employees toward work, supervision, and company goals, policies, and procedures a. True b. False 36) Competencies are clusters of related knowledge, skills, and abilities that differentiate performers from ineffective performers a. True b. False 37) Ineffective performance indicates that training is needed to close the gap between current performance and desired performance a. True b. False 38) Contingency management has its basis in social cognitive theory a. True b. False 39) According to the textbook, which important step in the needs analysis process is the most extensive, potentially leading organization to skip it? a. A culture and climate audit of the organization b. A task and person analysis c. Data collection at three levels: organizational, task, and person d. Being clear on the nature of the actual “itch”

40) A task analysis consists of a description of the activities or work operations performed on a job and the conditions under which these activities are performed. It normally includes six important steps. Which of the following would NOT be considered one of those steps? a. Develop rating scales to rate the importance and difficulty of each task and the frequency with which it is performed b. Provide feedback on the results of the task analysis c. Prepare job descriptions and specifications for roles involved in the task analysis process d. Use surveys and interviews to gather data and information from a sample of job incumbents 41) What critical question is the resource analysis process attempting to answer? a. Does the organization have the desire to spend its resources on training? b. Does the organization have employees willing to learn? c. Does the organization have sufficient money, time, and expertise? d. Does the organization have access to effective decision makers? 42) What is one drawback of a task analysis process? a. It ignores mental processes required to complete a task b. It focuses only on target jobs as opposed to all jobs within the organization c. It develops bias from subjective rating scales and the use of estimates d. It assumes tasks are performed by teams, not individuals 43) What deficiency in task analysis does the newer technique of cognitive task analysis address? a. It compensates for the repetitiveness of observable tasks b. It involves complex mental tasks that are not easy to observe c. It expands a task analysis to incorporate differences in diversity d. It allows participants to focus on unusual rather than routine tasks 44) Which data collection method is expensive to use but allows for on-the-spot synthesis of different viewpoints via two-way communication? a. The quick needs analysis b. Group discussion c. Questionnaires d. Key consultation 45) A training objective is a statement of what trainees are expected to be able to do after a training program a. True b. False

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46) A training objective has five key elements of the desired outcome, including who is to perform the task, what is the behaviour to be observed, when and where the behaviour is displayed, and why the behaviour is important a. True b. False 47) Of the three broad training methods, the textbook concludes that “off-the-job” training methods are the most effective a. True b. False 48) The notion of metacognitive strategies includes two primary functions, control, and monitoring a. True b. False 49) Attentional advice has been found to have a negative effect on skill-based learning a. True b. False 50) Error-management training occurs when training programs are designed so as to minimize the likelihood of trainees committing errors during the training process a. True b. False 51) Which of the following statements regarding training objectives is true? a. Training objectives are done without direct connection to the needs analysis b. Training objectives should be written prior to designing a training program c. Training objectives tend to be broad in language so as to provide the trainer with flexibility d. Training objectives do not address standards of performance but do emphasize the conditions of performance 52) According to the textbook, training content should be anchored on which of the following? a. The employee who is to perform the desired behaviour b. The needs and objectives of the training c. The standard that will evaluate the behaviour d. The time when the new content will be needed 53) Which of the following conditions of practice would be classified as a “pre-training intervention”? a. Deciding to have mastery goals in the program b. Distributing practice so training may be broken up by rest periods c. Providing feedback to trainees on their ongoing performance d. Ensuring the program has elements of overlearning in its design

54) Which statement is congruent with the notion of distributed practice? a. Learning is enhanced when cramming is used by trainees b. Learning is enhanced when material is provided in a single session c. Distributed training sessions tend to result in lower learning levels over time d. Distributed training session tend to result in higher learning levels over time 55) What has research concluded about active learning? a. It is effective for developing adaptive expertise b. It is effective for learning rigid policies and procedures c. It provides the trainer with much more control over trainees’ learning processes d. It gives trainees much less control over their learning experience 56) How can error training improve learning and performance? a. Errors force trainees to learn error-recovery strategies b. Errors allow trainees to learn to avoid certain activities c. Errors enable trainees to learn how to sequence activities d. Errors permit trainees to view themselves as human 57) What conclusions can you draw from research presented in the textbook of error-management training? a. It is effective for performance during training but not for post-training performance b. It is more effective for tasks that require routine expertise c. It is more effective for the performance of tasks that require adaptive expertise d. Trainers should avoid using error-management training 58) Which of the following is NOT one of the categories from Bloom’s taxonomy of learning objectives? a. Synthesize b. Bloom’s Analyze c. Bloom’s Evaluate d. Create 59) If a trainer wants to make the training content of a training program meaningful to trainees, what should he do? a. Make the training content rich in details and easily remembered by trainees b. Make the training content rich in details and easily understood by trainees c. Make the training content rich in associations and easily remembered by trainees d. Make the training content rich in associations and easily understood by trainees 60) Instructor-led classroom training continues to be the most popular method of providing training in both Canada and the United States a. True b. False

61) The lecture method offers tremendous advantages over other training methods particularly if the learning outcomes are geared toward changing behaviour or acquisition of skills a. True b. False 62) The discussion method is a training method strongly linked with the development of critical thinking skills and declarative knowledge acquisition a. True b. False 63) The case study method of training works best in structured and formalized classroom settings a. True b. False 64) Case incident and case study methods share many similarities including length of material provided, scope of issues covered, and preparation requirements a. True b. False 65) The role-play instructional method has three stages: development, enactment, and debriefing a. True b. False 66) One of the limitations of role play is that trainees are not shown exactly what to do and how to behave prior to participating in the role a. True b. False 67) What types of instructional methods does Queen’s University use to train health professionals? a. Lecture and case study b. Discussion and case incident c. On-the-job instructional methods d. Simulation and state-of-the-art technology 68) What should the trainer first determine before deciding on a training method? a. What trainees are expected to know after training b. The level of skills and the mix of trainees c. The level of detail needed and how he/she will present the material d. The level of humour needed to make the lecture interesting

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69) What might a trainer do to overcome some of the shortcomings of the discussion method? a. Ensure that trainees have similar experiences with the company, and generally have the same level of education b. Ensure that groups have at least ten participants c. Have a senior executive stop by the session to share his/her viewpoint at the start of the session d. Have a seating arrangement that encourages within-group discussion, ideally a circle 70) Which training methods often creates frustration for trainees given the lack of information presented, particularly when the trainees lack experience? a. Case incident b. Action learning c. Role play d. Behaviour modelling 71) What instructional method would you suggest be most appropriate for teaching interpersonal and supervisory skills to a group of managers? a. Action learning b. Simulation c. Behaviour modelling d. Discussion 72) Which of the following may NOT be considered a “best practice” when using role play as training method? a. Trust has to be established and an open and inclusive environment is needed b. Mistakes should be used as learning opportunities c. The trainer should act as a facilitator during the debrief phase d. Given the free-flow nature of this training method, trainers do not need to determine learning outcomes prior to the training session 73) The use of technology for training is becoming more popular in both Canada and the United States, albeit it is doing so at a relatively slow rate a. True b. False 74) Generative learning allows individuals to initiate and control what they learn, when they learn, and how they learn in a collaborative environment a. True b. False 75) One of the shortcomings of Web 2.0 technology is that it does NOT provide learners with the opportunity to share files for joint work and group completion of tasks a. True b. False

76) Personalization refers to structuring the training program so that trainees feel they are engaged in a conversation with the program a. True b. False 77) “Just-in-time” training is a team in the textbook that embodies one of the salient benefits of computer-based training a. True b. False 78) Learner control is when a trainee controls the content, sequence, and pace of training a. True b. False 79) The ability of trainees to choose between classroom and computer-based training appears to be a determining factor when comparing the effectiveness of these two methods a. True b. False 80) Which statement best describes the state of technology-based training in Canada? a. It has not surpassed instructor-led training; however, as a training method, it is increasing in popularity b. It has increased over the last decade with most companies using it exclusively c. Nearly 95% of organizations report that e-learning is becoming more important strategically to their organization’s learning strategy d. 15% of organizations offer some form of self-paced online learning or e-learning 81) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of synchronous training? a. Trainees often lack motivation given the non-interactive nature of this training b. Trainees may not learn all there is to know, or learn the wrong things c. Trainees may waste time d. Trainees lose flexibility to pick when they will train 82) What is one benefit of an electronic performance support system? a. Only the information that is needed is given b. It is particularly useful for low-turnover jobs c. It provides most benefit to tasks that are routine d. Only jobs that are done frequently will benefit

83) What of the following would NOT be considered a best practice when designing effective virtual training programs? a. Use short modules followed by application of module content on the job b. Delivery should have two-way communication c. Use multimedia content to illustrate complex concepts d. The ideal number of trainees should be fewer than 35 84) Which of the following statements relating to feedback is supported by evidence provided in the textbook? a. Feedback may in fact take away from the learning experience in computer-based training b. There is a positive relationship between feedback and trainees’ learning c. When using computer-based training, it is extremely difficult to design training programs that provide the trainee with feedback d. Evidence is somewhat mixed on the effectiveness of feedback in supporting the trainee’s learning experience 85) Which of the following is NOT a design principle for computer-based training? a. Multimedia principle b. Contiguity principle c. Modality principle d. Customization principle 86) Following Nellie is an approach to on-the-job training a. True b. False 87) On-the-job training has been described as the most misused method of training a. True b. False 88) Job instruction training incorporate many principles of behaviour modelling training a. True b. False 89) As a best practice, job instruction training should NOT be integrated into other training methods including off-the-job methods so as to reduce training complexity a. True b. False 90) One of the most important advantages of the job rotation approach is that it eliminates the need to consider the trainee’s existing skill set, hence speeding up the training process a. True b. False

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91) Evidence provided in the textbook indicates that apprenticeship programs tend to attract greater representation from specific sectors of the labour market, particularly First Nations, women, and members of visible minorities a. True b. False 92) Coaching and mentoring are synonymous, focusing on broad skill needs to trainees a. True b. False 93) Which of the following are NOT considered on-the-job training methods? a. Mentoring and coaching b. Apprenticeship and job rotation c. Performance aid and coaching d. Simulation and lecture 94) Which off-the-job training method is similar to job instruction training because both techniques rely on observation, rehearsal, reinforcement, and transfer? a. Case incident b. Simulation c. Role play d. Behaviour modelling 95) In which phase of job instruction training does the trainer support the trainees by using techniques that enhance the trainees’ self-efficacy a. Needs analysis phase b. Follow-up phase c. Preparation phase d. Performance phase 96) The choice of on-the-job, off-the-job, or blended training should be anchored on training needs and objectives a. True b. False 97) Stretch assignments are job assignments that aim to “stretch” employees by having them work on projects in which they given more responsibility and autonomy a. True b. False

98) Which of the following occurs during the performance step in job instruction training? a. Show that safety is especially important b. Show why the job is important c. Allow the trainee to complete all the steps d. Break the job into tasks 99) Which of the following approaches to on-the-job training describes a pre-flight checklist used by a pilot to ensure all pre-flight procedures have been properly executed? a. Preparation checklist b. Procedure sequence c. Performance aid d. Performance checklist 100) The textbook identifies three levels of needs analysis: organizational, cognitive, and person analysis a. True b. False

Practice Mid Term Exam

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