BDS02
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Rio Salado Community College *
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4
Subject
Electrical Engineering
Date
Feb 20, 2024
Type
docx
Pages
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Uploaded by SuperMusic12967
BDS02
1. If a 3.2MHz upstream channel is using 16 QAM at a symbol rate of 2.560 millions of symbols per second (MS/s), what is the amount of bandwidth available in Mbps?
a.
10.24
b.
5.12
c.
20.48
d.
8.192
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2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using hubs within an architecture?
a.
increased power requirements
b.
increased performance in the network
c.
decreased fiber requirements
d.
reuse of the frequency spectrum
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3. What is the symbol rate of 256 QAM?
a.
5.36 MS/s @ 6MHz and 6.95 MS/s @ 8MHz
b.
2.56 MS/s @ 6MHz and 5.12 MS/s @ 8MHz
c.
3.84 MS/s @ 6MHz and 5.36 MS/s @ 8MHz
d.
1.28 MS/s @ 1.6MHz and 2.56 MS/s @ 3.2 MHz
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4. Match the following two-way cable configurations.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
Sub-Split 39210
39210,39211,392
=
b
39217,39214,392
a.
900 to 1050 MHz D
2.
Mid-Split 39211
39210,39211,392
=
c
39217,39214,392
b.
5 to 42 MHz DOCSIS (D) / 5 to 65 MHz EuroDOCSIS (ED)
3.
High-split 39212
39210,39211,392
=
d
39217,39214,392
c.
5 to 85 MHz D
4.
Top-split 39213
=
a
d.
5 to 200 MHz D
39210,39211,392
39217,39214,392
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5. ** CORRECTED **
An HFC network is typically designed with:
a.
additional actives and passives as compared to a tree and branch system.
b.
higher gain amplifiers than compared to a tree and branch system architecture.
c.
a goal of producing a similar amount of distortions and noise as compared to a coax only architecture.
d.
power supply design based on a per fiber mile / kilometer basis.
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6. Repeaters (amplifiers) are used in an optical system for:
a.
Signal loss compensation
b.
Reducing node size or homes passed (HP)
c.
Noise reduction
d.
Improving distortion levels
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7. Name the architecture that places numerous fiber optic cable runs deeper into the HFC to optical node areas that are very small, and serve fewer number of homes passed (HP).
a.
RFoG
b.
Active Network
c.
GPON / RF Overlay
d.
Fiber deep
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8. In a classic tree and branch architecture, the distribution plant includes ___________.
a.
Trunk and feeder cables
b.
Nodes
c.
Optical amplifiers
d.
Optical couplers and splitters
Show Explanation
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9. True or False: Replacing the trunk cascade with an optical fiber link can significantly improve network reliability.
True
False
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10
. True or False: The number of amplifiers after the node is limited to the amount of distortion and noise they produce.
True
False
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11
. Which return / forward split offers the most amount of upstream bandwidth?
a.
sub
b.
mid
c.
high
d.
super
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12
. In an HFC network, fiber replaces which portion of the tree and branch system architecture?
a.
coaxial distribution
b.
line extenders
c.
power supplies
d.
coaxial trunk
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13
. The reliability of an HFC architecture increases ___. (Choose 2)
a.
As hard-line coax length increases
b.
As the number of active devices decreases
c.
As the number of customers decreases
d.
As the node size increases
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14
. In an architecture where fiber replaces the coax and amplifiers, producing a node + 0 architecture, coax is retained in the "last mile
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(meter)." What is the name of the architecture?
a.
Coax to the Curb
b.
Fiber to the Home
c.
Trunk and Feeder
d.
Radio Frequency over Glass
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15
. An architecture in which a common signal source is distributed to many municipalities is referred to as:
a.
Multiplexing b.
De multiplexing
c.
Point to Point
d.
Point to Multi-point
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16
. What is the term that describes a series of amplifiers, where one amplifier feeds the next which feeds the next, etc.?
cascade
39240
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17
. What is the total loss of a 400 meter piece of coaxial cable that has a loss of 4.1dB per 100 meters at 865 MHz? Enter the answer in a single decimal place
below.
16.4
219176
Complete the module quiz to assess your knowledge. The quiz is open book so you can use your course materials, references and the Internet but you should not consult other individuals. A passing score is 70%. If you do not pass the quiz you can review the course materials and retake the quiz.
BDS03
1. What is the bandwidth occupied by a North America downstream equivalent NTSC or DOCSIS digital signal? (in MHz)
6
39295
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2. What is the function of a thermal coupler or thermal plug?
a.
To correct excessive excursions from channel to channel.
b.
To compensate for levels caused by changes in temperature.
c.
To amplify return signals.
d.
None of the above.
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3. True or False: Since higher frequencies have a higher attenuation factor than lower frequencies, a negative RF slope is required.
True
False
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4. ** CORRECTED **
Standard cable spacing is established during cable system design for the spans between amplifiers. What determines this spacing? (Choose 2)
a.
voltage required by the amplifier
b.
signature of the amplifier (characteristics)
c.
attenuation properties of the coaxial cable
d.
location of the hub site
e.
availability of commercial power
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5. Before the first stage of amplification, what is the plug-in used to attenuate the RF signal's lower frequencies greater the higher frequencies at the same RF level? (Hint: not flat loss)
a.
equalizers
b.
pads
c.
attenuators
d.
shunts
e.
feedermakers
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6. True or False: Frequency response is the plot of the loss or gain of a system across its operating frequency range.
True
False
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7. Which method is NOT used to direct power on an amplifier?
a.
fuse
b.
shunt
c.
switch
d.
potentiometer
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8. The DC power supply of the amplifier converts the AC quasi-square wave to DC power. What is the AC voltage converted?
a.
24 or 27 volts
b.
60 or 90 volts
c.
110 or 120 volts
d.
48 volts
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9. What is the typical power gain in dB for an HFC return amplifier?
a.
18 to 20 dB
b.
5 to 10 dB
c.
-8 to 8 dB
d.
0 dB
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10
. What is the device that separates the forward band pass and return band pass
from each other (and recombines) so they can be routed to the appropriate
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components within the amplifier station?
a.
diplex filter
b.
directional coupler
c.
line extender
d.
automatic gain control
e.
thermal plug-in
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11
. Name the most efficient amplifier to amplify an input signal to high signal outputs with multiple legs.
a.
Mainstation
b.
Node
c.
trunk w/bridger
d.
Line Extender
e.
trunk
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12
. Name the device that adjusts the tilt of the return amplifier, used in lieu of plug-
in equalizers.
a.
gain control potentiometer
b.
pads or attenuators potentiometer
c.
input injection potentiometer
d.
slope control potentiometer
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13
. A ferroresonant transformer steps 120vAC down to 60vAC or 90vAC. What type of waveform is produced?
a.
quasi-
square
b.
sine
c.
square
d.
triangular
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14
Match the following HFC active devices.
.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
Converts optical or light energy from the headend (or hub location) to an electrical RF form in the forward path.
21801
21801,21803,218
=
c
21804,2
a.
Mainstation or trunk amplifier
2.
Restores signal loss of the electrical energy coming from the headend and produces the highest amount of noise with
low distortion. 21803
21801,21803,218
=
a
21804,2
b.
Line Extender or distribution amplifer
3.
Restores loss RF signal levels and produces the highest amount of gain compared to the other amplifier mentioned.
21805
21801,21803,218
=
d
21804,2
c. Node
4.
Part of the HFC distribution system that restore loss RF signal levels during travel from the headend, produce the highest amount of distortions. 21807
21801,21803,218
=
b
21804,2
d.
Bridger amplifier
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15
. Name a device used to correct irregularities such as peaks or valleys (peak to trough) caused by resonance in cable spans, connectors and passives.
a.
response EQ
b.
interstage c.
plug-in pad d.
gain control potentiometer
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16
. Name the device used to establish the band split of the amplifier. (Hint: two words.)
diplex filter
39302
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17
. Name a flat loss plug-in used to ensure the RF input levels to the preamplifier hybrid (gain stage) is equal at all identical amplifiers (unity gain) regardless of amplifier spacing.
a.
pad or attenuator
b.
equalizer
c.
power diplex
d.
trim device
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18
. What type of amplifier amplifies and passes signals from the headend to the customer? (Hint: closest to the customer)
a.
trunk amplifier
b.
distribution amplifier
c.
bridger amplifier
d.
hub amplifier
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19
. ** CORRECTED **
What is the device that transfers heat from an amplifier's components to the amplifier's housing?
fins
heat sink
39343
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20
. ** CORRECTED **
Name the amplifier component used to provide an effective RF shield from ingress.
rf gasket
housing
21813
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21
. What is the semiconductor that produces an electrical output signal in response to an optical input signal?
a.
dark current
b.
photodiode
c.
resistor
d.
diplex filter
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22
. What is the device used to route current in an amplifier?
a.
shunt
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b.
pad
c.
EQ
d.
diplex filter
e.
AGC
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23
. Name the device that separates or combines AC power and the RF broadband
signals.
a.
power diplex
b.
diplex filter
c.
power supply
d.
a trim device
e.
response EQ
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24
. True or False: In amplifiers without ALSC or AGC, a temperature monitoring circuit is used to account for the changing attenuation of the cable during weather changes.
True
False
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25
. The automatic level and slope control (ALSC) circuit maintains the proper tilt and output level despite changes in the input signals. What is common practice for tilt by operators for setting the upper frequencies vs. the lower frequencies?
a.
3 dB
b.
6 - 12 dB
c.
25 - 28 dB
d.
2 - 4 dB
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26
. In the EuroDOCSIS/European return path spectrum, what band would a sub-split diplex filter produce?
a.
5 to 65 MHz
b.
5 to 42 MHz
c.
5 to 88 MHz
d.
5 to 108 MHz
Show Explanation
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27
. Name an integrated or plug-in module used to amplify the DOCSIS 5 to 42MHz or EuroDOCSIS 5 to 65 MHz spectrum.
a.
return amplifier
b.
forward amplifier
c.
trunk amplifier
d.
line extender
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28
. Name a passive uneven or unbalanced RF splitting device, with low loss from input to output port (insertion loss).
a.
diplex filter
b.
optical splitter
c.
line extender
d.
node
e.
directional coupler
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29
. Name the device used to maintain constant output levels when the coaxial cable loss changes due to temperature changes.
a.
Thermal attenuators b.
Diplex Filter
c.
Automatic Gain / Slope Control
d.
DC Power Supply
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30
. Name the most efficient trunk amplifier in terms of low distortions used to amplify the cable signal.
a.
Mainstation
b.
Node
c.
Distribution Amplifier
d.
Line Extender
e.
None of these
Show Explanation
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BDS04
1. A directional coupler 9 (DC-9) with an input of 15dBmV has a tap port output of
___ dBmV.
6
21946
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2. What is the name of the isolation between the tap plate ports, designed to prevent interfering RF signals from neighboring customer signals to move between ports?
a.
port to port isolation
b.
input to output isolation
c.
port termination
d.
tap loss
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3. Active devices such as amplifiers in an HFC contain devices to:
a.
detect concentricity in the cable
b.
convert analog "NTSC/PAL" signals to digital "ATSC/DVB"
c.
separate an AC signal from an RF signal
d.
measure bending radius of the coax cable a specific intervals
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4. True or False: Feed-through and addressable are two types of directional taps used in one type of HFC architecture.
True
False
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5. Which of the following taps are available as self-terminating (no output port)?
(Choose 2)
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a.
4
b.
8
c.
11
d.
17
e.
23
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6. What is the primary difference between a splitter and a directional coupler?
a.
A typical splitter divides input power into one equal outputs while a directional coupler divides input power into two unequal outputs.
b.
A typical splitter divides input power into two unequal outputs while a directional coupler divides input power into two equal outputs.
c.
A typical splitter divides input power into two equal outputs while a directional coupler divides output power into two unequal inputs.
d.
A typical splitter divides input power into two equal outputs while a directional coupler divides input power into two unequal outputs.
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7. The RF signal level at the input to a tap plate is 30dBmV. You measure 15dBmV at the tap port of a tap plate. What is the dB loss value of this tap plate?
a.
17
b.
47
c.
32
d.
15
e.
2
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8. This device facilitates adding AC power from a line power supply (LPS) onto coax cable while also allowing RF signals to pass along the same cable.
a.
power diplex
b.
power supply
c.
power inserter
d.
directional coupler
e.
addressable tap
view QuestionExp
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9. Match the following characteristics common to many passive devices:
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1. Excess Loss
21924
21924,21
=
b
21929,21
a.
Compares the tap port signal level to the input port signal level in units of dB.
2. Insertion Loss
21926
21924,21
=
d
21929,21
b.
Power consumed in the circuit. The difference between the input power and the total output power.
3.
Tap Value
21928
21924,21
=
a
21929,21
c.
The ratio expressed in dB between the signal entering a port and the signal reflecting from that port.
4. Return loss
21930
21924,21
=
c
21929,21
d.
Power loss in dB between the input port and the output port caused by power coupled to tap port and power consumed in the circuit.
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10
. True or False: If a return loss value is relatively high, then the reflected signal is relatively low.
True
False
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11
. What is the unit of measure for specifying changes in signal level characteristics through passive devices?
decibel
21912
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12
. ** CORRECTED **
Directional couplers and splitters route RF signals based on the principle of:
a.
induction
b.
capacitance
c.
impedance
d.
current flow
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13
. Identify the correct notation for decibel-millivolt that is referenced to 1mV.
a.
dBm
b.
dB
c.
dBmV
d.
decMV
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14
. Levels attenuate by about ____ dB at each split of a tap plate or splitter bank.
3.5
39359
view QuestionExp
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15
. Name a gasket that is designed to prevent RF signals from entering (ingress) or leaving (egress) a closed housing such as a power insert or amplifier.
a.
ingress
b.
RF integrity
c.
egress
d.
housing
view QuestionExp
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16
. True or False: A power-passing tap plate passes AC power to the tap ports whereas a tap with a power bypass bar passes RF signal and AC power to the output port even if the faceplate is removed.
True
False
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
I'm Done Reviewing Answers
Complete the module quiz to assess your knowledge. The quiz is open book so you can use your course materials, references and the Internet but you should not consult other individuals. A passing score is 70%. If you do not pass the quiz you can review the course materials and retake the quiz.
BDS05
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1
. Match the following system maps.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1. strand
22012
22012,
=
c
22015,22
a.
maps of the system as the designer has engineered it. They are the blueprints for constructing the plant.
2. design
22014
22012,
=
a
22015,22
b.
maps of the completed and current system plant, showing any changes or revisions that were made during construction and ongoing operation showing pole, amplifier and tap locations.
3. as-built
22016
22012,
=
b
22015,22
c.
maps of the aerial and underground routing of the various cables throughout the system, showing poles, strand location, trench routes, footages, and other data as needed
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2
. What C/N ratio would you expect at the end of a cascade of 4 identical amplifiers if the first amplifier has a C/N ratio of 59 dB? Assume that the cascade is fed directly from a hub.
a.
53
b.
47
c.
44
d.
41
Show Explanation
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3
. What design map symbol is shown?
a.
Optical Node
b.
Line Extender
c.
Power Supply
d.
Headend transmitter
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4
A chart used to display various information about a node, amplifier or a
. line extender at the time it was deployed in the HFC is called a:
tombstone
39409
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5
. ** CORRECTED **
Name a cable design philosophy for amplifier spacing in the forward and
return path, where the total loss of the amount of coax cable and passive device loss in the network before an amplifier will equal the gain
of the amplifier.
a.
unity gain
b.
amplifier gain
c.
frequency gain
d.
loss / gain design
view QuestionExp
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6
. Strand maps show: (Choose 3)
a.
strand locations
b.
trench routes
c.
tap locations
d.
streets
view QuestionExp
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7
. Name a modulation scheme typically used in the forward path or downstream.
a.
64 QAM
b.
256 QAM
c.
QPSK
d.
16 QAM
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8
. True or False: The noise figure (F) is the degradation of the S/N or C/N ratio and the amount of noise that an amplifier will contribute to total system S/N or C/N ratio as the signal passes through the HFC.
True
False
view QuestionExp
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9
. True or False: Any change in the amplifier noise contribution will introduce a change in intermodulation distortions.
True
False
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
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1
0
. What design map symbol is shown in the diagram?
a.
2 way directional tap plate
b.
4 way directional tap plate
c.
8 way directional tap plate
d.
directional coupler
view QuestionExp
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1
1
. How is the RF signal level at the input of all distribution amplifiers decided?
(Choose 1)
a.
same as the trunk
b.
established by the system design
c.
same as bridger amplifier
d.
determined by node cascade
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1
2
. If the number of identical amplifiers in a cascade is increased from 2 to 4 amplifiers, and the original 2 amplifiers produced a total C/N ratio of 51 dB, what would the total C/N ratio be at the end of the 4 amplifier cascade?
a.
49 dB
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b.
47 dB
c.
48 dB
d.
45 dB
Show Explanation
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1
3
. ** CORRECTED **
Units of dBm are decibels relative to ___ mW of power; hence 0 dBm equals ___ mW of power.
1, 1
1
39413
view QuestionExp
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1
4
. True or False: Consistent headend upstream or return levels are required regardless of the location of the source upstream or return signal.
True
False
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
1
5
. According to the diagram, what is the output of the amplifier in dBmV?
21
39403
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
1
6
. An amplifier's measured output is worse than the designed output. How should you begin troubleshooting?
a.
increase the transmit output of the hub LASER
b.
increase the gain of the amplifier
c.
check the input levels to the amplifier
d.
adjust the slope of the amplifier
e.
reduce the padding of the amplifier's output
view QuestionExp
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1
7
. Each time the number of like amplifiers with similar input levels (pad, EQ, power) is doubled, the carrier to noise (C/N) gets ___ dB worse, 10 log (x).
a.
3.01
b.
1
c.
6.02
d.
2
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
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1
8
. What is the C/N ratio at the output of a single amplifier with a noise figure (F) of 9 dB and an input power level of 12 dBmV? Assume termination noise of minus 59.2 dB.
62.2
39416
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
1
9
. Systems maps provide signal flow and are an important troubleshooting tool, so it is important to keep all maps:
(Choose 1)
a.
up-to-date to avoid misinformation
b.
stored in the supervisor office
c.
only used by back office engineering
d.
changed as often as possible
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
2
0
. The C/N changes ___ dB for every 1 dB change in output power levels.
1
22026
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
2
1
. ** CORRECTED **
The C/N improves from every 1 dB that is added to the input of the amplifier above the noise figure (F); however, the CTB and XMOD get worse by ___ dB.
1
2
39406
view QuestionExp
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2
2
. The difference between the RF carrier and average level of the noise floor is called:
a.
signal to valley
b.
modulation error ratio
c.
bit error rate
d.
carrier to noise
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
2
3
. According to the diagram, what is the dB gain of amplifiers 1, 2 and 3?
14.5
39400
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
2
4
. The difference between the most positive signal amplitude and the most
negative signal amplitude levels of an electrical signal such as RF is called:
a.
peak to valley
b.
carrier to noise
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c.
signal to noise
d.
wave to floor
Show Explanation
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2
5
. If the 256 QAM symbol rate is 5.36 millions of symbols per second (MS/s), what is the data rate in Mbps?
a.
42.88
b.
32.16
c.
21.44
d.
37.52
Show Explanation
view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
2
6
. An amplifier tombstone or data block on an RF design map includes which of the following information? (Choose 3)
a.
Amplifier Cascade
b.
Footage to Previous Amplifier
c.
Forward Equalizer
d.
DC voltage
e.
Reverse Diplex Filter
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BDS Module 06 - Electrical Characteristics of Cable taken by Robert Benzakein
(view test intro)
Complete the module quiz to assess your knowledge. The quiz is open book so you can use your course materials, references and the Internet but you should not consult other individuals. A passing score is 70%. If you do not pass the quiz you can review the course materials and retake the quiz.
BDS06
1. What is the ohm's law formula for resistance?
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a.
R = E (V) / I
b.
R = I / E (V)
c.
R = I x E (V)
d.
R = P / I
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2. Using ohm's law, calculate the current in a circuit where the voltage is 24 v and
the resistance is 10 k ohms:
a.
4.2 mA
b.
2.4 A
c.
2.4 mA
d.
1-A
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3. The creation of an electric charge or a magnetic field in material such as cable is called:
induction
39474
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4. True or False: Capacitance blocks DC current, allowing AC current to pass.
True
False
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5. True or False: Coax cable kinks creates an impedance mismatch, the impedance of the source and load not matching, which may cause excess return loss or reflected RF signals.
True
False
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6. What are the effects of capacitance on a cable system? (Choose 3)
a.
suck out
b.
roll off
c.
allows DC current to pass
d.
ability to store electrical charge
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7. Resistance is measured in:
a.
farads
b.
amperes
c.
voltage
d.
ohms
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8. Which electrical quantities determine the impedance (Z) of a circuit: (Choose all that apply)
a.
resistance (R)
b.
capacitance (C)
c.
inductance (L)
d.
frequency (f)
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9. Calculate the amount of voltage on a piece of coax cable with 0.8 amperes (I) of current.
a.
10.67 mV
b.
60 v
c.
93.75 v
d.
none of these
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10
. True or False: An inductor is a coil wound wire in different diameters and coil sizes that allows AC to pass, but resists DC.
True
False
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11
. A function of the distance between the center conductor and the outer shield of a coaxial cable is referred to as:
a.
capacitance
b.
inductance
c.
impedance
d.
velocity of propagation
Show Explanation
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12
. The difference between dB and dBmV is:
a.
dB is a ratio with no specific unit of measure while dBmV is a specific signal level.
b.
dB is a measure of wattage while dBmV is a measure of voltage.
c.
dB refers to input and output signal levels while dBmV is a measure of internal signal-
power consumption.
d.
None of the above.
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
BDS07
1. Using ohm's law, calculate the current in a circuit where the voltage is 26v and the resistance is 2 ohm:
a.
0.08 A
b.
26 A
c.
13 A
d.
52 A
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2. Using Joule's Law, calculate the power dissipated in a circuit with a voltage of 24v, resistance of 10K and current of 2.4 mA.
a.
56.7 mW
b.
5.76 mW
c.
57.6 mW
d.
65.7 mW
Show Explanation
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3. Which formula is INCORRECT?
a.
R = E / I
b.
E = R x I
c.
I = P x E
d.
E = P / I
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view QuestionExp
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4. The difference between dB and dBmV is:
a.
dB is a ratio with no specific unit of measure while dBmV is a specific signal level.
b.
dB is a measure of wattage while dBmV is a measure of voltage.
c.
dB refers to input and output signal levels while dBmV is a measure of internal signal-
power consumption.
d.
None of the above.
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5. 0 dBmV equals:
a.
1 millivolt peak measured across 75 ohms
b.
1 millivolt RMS measured across 75 ohms
c.
1 microvolt RMS measured across 75 ohms
d.
1 microvolt peak measured across 75 ohms
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6. Using the decibel formula, calculate the dB ratio (gain) of an amplifier with an input that equals 6 watts and an output that equals 12 watts.
a.
3.01
b.
0.28
c.
-3.01
d.
0.68
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7. In the positional number system, the value of a digit in a number is determined
by the power of ___.
ten
22142
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8. We use logarithms when comparing RF levels in a cable network because:
a.
The RF levels are extremely close in magnitude.
b.
The RF levels are vastly different in magnitude.
c.
There is a wide band of frequencies involved. d.
The FCC requires it.
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9. 75 ohms is the characteristic impedance of coaxial cable used in cable networks. 1 mV signal across this impedance is equal to:
a.
1 bel b.
3.01 dB
c.
0 dBmV
d.
10 mW
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10
. What is the maximum distance of QR860 cable that can be used with a 25dB gain amplifier? QR860 has a cable loss 1.24dB/100' at 750 MHz. (Hint: Provide whole number as answer, no decimal places please.)
2016
39507
Show Explanation
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11
. An amplifier has an input signal of 0.3 milliwatts (mW) and produces an output of 1 milliwatts (mW). What is the dB gain? (use 2 decimal places)
5.23
22149
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12
. What does an increase of 3 dB indicate?
a.
Doubling of power
b.
Halving of power
c.
A doubling or a halving of the power depending upon the direction of the change
d.
Change of the network's characteristic impedance
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13
. True or False: An RF amplifier with 3.01 dB of gain will produce an output of 3 watts if its input is 1.5 watts.
True
False
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
Coaxial Cable taken by Robert Benzakein
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Complete the module quiz to assess your knowledge. The quiz is open book so you can use your course materials, references and the Internet but you should not consult other individuals. A passing score is 70%. If you do not pass the quiz you can review the course materials and retake the quiz.
BDS08
1. SRL refers to the
a.
impedance variations of coax cable
b.
impedance variations of amplifiers
c.
impedance variations of connectors
d.
DC loop resistance
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2. A section of coaxial cable is 75 feet long feeding a 4-way splitter at the customer location. Assume that the coaxial cable has an attenuation of 1.8 dB per hundred feet at 200 MHz. What would be the approximate dB attenuation at the splitter's output port at 200 MHz?
a.
1.35
b.
8.35
c.
4.85
d.
11.85
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3. Reflections are caused by:
a.
improper connector terminations in the HFC resulting in an impedance mismatch
b.
the varying temperature of the environment
c.
manufactures using different types of coax dielectric material d.
the losses at high and low frequencies
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4. Name the transfer of signal power from the point of input (source) to the point of output (load). (Hint: two words, lowercase)
pow er transfer
39519
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5. True or False: Jacket bonding onto hardline coaxial cable does not increase RF shielding.
True
False
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6. ___ ___ ___ is used to describe the ratio of input power to reflected power and
is expressed in decibels (dB). (Hint: three words)
structural return loss
39524
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7. True or False: HELIAX air has greater attenuation than coax foam.
True
False
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8. A section of coaxial cable is 200 feet long feeding an 8-way splitter at the customer location. Assume that the coaxial cable has an attenuation of 5.5 dB per hundred feet at 752 MHz. What would be the approximate dB attenuation at the splitter's output port at 752 MHz?
a.
11
b.
22
c.
18
d.
14
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9. What happens when water soaks into the cable's dielectric?
a.
all frequencies attenuation more
b.
high frequencies attenuation more
c.
low frequencies attenuation more
d.
AC frequencies attenuation more
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10
. name the device that protects and prevents EMI (electromagnetic interference)
and RFI (radio frequency interference) in a coax cable circuit.
shield
39521
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11
. True or False: Coaxial cable attenuation has a flat loss across all frequencies.
True
False
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12
. True or False: Temporary fiber optic connections that carry AC need to have the same DC loop resistance.
True
False
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13
. A guideline for bending radius is ___ times cable diameter.
10
39550
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14
. A break in the coax shield allowing signals to leak out is called:
a.
outgress
b.
ingress
c.
egress
d.
ongress
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15
. Which of the following are components of the coaxial cable which will affect its impedance properties? (Choose 3)
a.
inner diameter of the shield
b.
outer diameter of the center conductor
c.
type of dielectric material
d.
DC loop resistance
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e.
length of the coax
f.
diameter of the coax
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16
. Mismatch occurs when any point in the RF distribution does not have a characteristic impedance of ___ ?.
75
22195
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17
. A compound that allows small aberrations or cuts on the outside jacket of underground coax to be rendered harmless to the cable.
flooding
22215
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18
. Reflected signals from an impedance mismatch mix with the RF signals to create a phenomenon called:
a.
standing waves
b.
structural return loss
c.
refracted waves
d.
ghosting in digital signals
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers BDS09
1. Refer to the diagram and select the 90 degree adapter.
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a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
f.
F
g.
G
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2. Refer to the diagram and select the splice connector.
a.
A
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b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
f.
F
g.
G
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3. True or False: The rounder the cable end is, the harder it is for the coring tool to enter the cable to begin coring.
True
False
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4. True or False: A hardline coax connector that uses the center conductor to extend beyond the front of the connector may result in coax damage caused by the set screw.
True
False
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5. A jacket removal tool should be used to remove the jacket on a hardline cable and NOT a: (Choose 3)
a.
knife
b.
torch
c.
screw driver
d.
cable prep tool
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6. True or False: An integral sleeve is used in some connectors to minimize RF leakage.
True
False
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7. Good hardline coaxial cable cores require at least ___ of straight cable to prevent damage.
a.
6 in or 15 cm
b.
12 in or 30 cm
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c.
3 in or 8 cm
d.
none of these
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8. True or False: The hardline connector has a center conductor guide on the mid-body to ensure proper length is achieved.
True
False
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9. Refer to the diagram and select the feed through connector.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
f.
F
g.
G
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10
. Refer to the diagram and select the housing to housing connector.
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a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
f.
F
g.
G
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11
. Refer to the diagram and select the housing terminator connector.
a.
A
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b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
e.
E
f.
F
g.
G
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12
. Which of the following is used to remove conductor pre-coat? (Choose 2)
a.
knife
b.
glass cutter tool
c.
propane torch
d.
plastic tool
e.
plexi-glass tool
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BDS10
1. When testing the voltage of a series of batteries, they should be within ___ vDC of each other.
.3
22294
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2. What device is used to insert power onto the coaxial cable for powering amplifiers and nodes?
a.
Line Power Inserter
b.
Line Power Supply
c.
Standby Power Supply
d.
Centralized Power Supply
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3. ** CORRECTED **
Identify the most common type of powering using multiple power supplies to
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energize line power inserters (LPI), designed to feed power in both directions, upstream and downstream, from an insertion point in the HFC.
a.
central
b.
standby
c.
distributed
d.
power grid
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4. This device passively combines RF signals with up to 90 vAC from a line power supply.
a.
LPS
b.
Standby power supply
c.
RFI
d.
Non standby power supply
e.
LPI
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5. Name two disadvantages of a non-standby power supply.
a.
is dependent on the utility company
b.
less expensive than standby power supplies
c.
generators are required for backup powering
d.
does not require batteries
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6. ___ power supplies contain batteries for supplying power output when utility power is interrupted.
standby
22274
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7. Standby power supplies use___ vDC batteries providing 3 hrs of backup.
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12
39634
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8. Be careful handling the power supply unit. The ferroresonant transformer which provides regulated power output generates a significant amount of ___.
heat
39628
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9. What is shown in the diagram?
a.
central power supply
b.
standby power supply
c.
distributed power supply
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d.
non standby power supply
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10
. The placement of power insertion depends on the design of the distribution system and type of power supply used. What are the typical voltages used to power an HFC plant?
a.
30 volts or 60 volts
b.
60 volts or 90 volts
c.
90 volts or 120 volts
d.
120 volts or 240 volts
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11
. Which two powering architectures are commonly used in coaxial cable networks? (choose 2)
a.
Distributed
b.
Standby
c.
Centralized
d.
Field Selectable
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BDS11
1. How many states does the binary numbering system offer?
2
22335
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2. A modulation scheme that varies the frequency of a carrier is called:
a.
Amplitude Modulation b.
Frequency Modulation c.
Phase Modulation d.
Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
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3. The technique of varying the ___ of a carrier based on the characteristics of
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the baseband signal by referencing two carriers.
a.
phase
b.
frequency
c.
time
d.
amplitude
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4. 1011 is equivalent to a decimal ___.
11
39639
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5. This numbering system is the basis for QAM modulation encoding.
binary
39637
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6. Match the following symbol bits.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1. QPSK
22325
22325,2
=
d
22328,2233
a.
4 bits / symbol
2.
16 QAM
22327
22325,2
=
a
22328,2233
b.
6 bits / symbol
3.
64 QAM
22329
22325,2
=
b
22328,2233
c.
8 bits / symbol
4.
256 QAM
22331
22325,2
=
c
22328,2233
d.
2 bits / symbol
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7. True or False: BER is defined as the ratio of bits containing errors relative to the number of bits sent and received in a given time interval.
True
False
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8. A modulation scheme that depends on varying amplitude sidebands is called:
a.
Amplitude Modulation b.
Frequency Modulation c.
Phase Modulation d.
Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
e.
Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
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9. Order the following steps for A/D conversion.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1. Sample
22341
22341,2
=
b
22346,2234
a
. 3
2. Quantize
22343
22341,2
=
c
22346,2234
b
. 1
3. Encode
22345
22341,2
=
a
22346,2234
c. 2
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10
. In the QAM signal, there are two carriers, I and Q, within the same frequency but differing in phase by ___ degrees.
90
22359
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11
. True or False: Modulation symbol rate is sometimes called the baud rate.
True
False
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12
. Audio and video information are superimposed on an RF carrier by a process called:
a.
multiplexing
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b.
modulation
c.
compression
d.
combining
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BDS12
1. True or False: Intermodulation (CSO, CTB, XMoD) from an amplifier is the result of its nonlinear operation.
True
False
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2. Express the composite second order beat distortions for the following channels: Carrier A is 55.25 MHz Carrier B is 175.25 MHz (Choose 2)
a.
120 MHz
b.
230.5 MHz
c.
105 MHz
d.
240.5MHz
Show Explanation
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3. Identify the units that indicate the power relative to the power of the main carrier frequency.
a.
dBm
b.
dBmV
c.
dB
d.
dBc
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4. Distortion manifests as extra signals called ___.
beats
22388
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5. True or False: Using a spectrum analyzer, cross modulation would be found in the 15.75 kHz (approx.) video sidebands.
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True
False
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6. Match the following distortions.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
The source of CTB. When three signals have mixed in a non-linear device to produce a distorted signal.
22390
22390,22392,223
=
c
22399,22
a.
Cross Modulation Distortion
2.
The total effect of all third order products within one channel. 22392
22390,22392,223
=
e
22399,22
b.
Composite Second Order
3.
Combining of two frequencies to produce a third frequency.
22394
22390,22392,223
=
d
22399,22
c.
Discrete Third Order
4.
The total effect of all DSO products within one channel.
22396
22390,22392,223
=
b
22399,22
d.
Discrete Second Order
5.
The transferring of signal information (intelligence) from one
carrier to another. 22398
22390,22392,223
=
a
22399,22
e.
Composite Triple Beat
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7. Which of the following is a source of noise caused by random motion of electrons?
a.
Radiated noise
b.
Impulse noise
c.
Thermal noise
d.
Optical RF noise
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8. Are intermodulation distortions input or output related?
a.
input
b.
output
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9. If the output of an amplifier is changed by 1 dB the third order distortions change by ___ dBc.
a.
2
b.
1
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c.
6
d.
3
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10
. For every doubling of an amplifier cascade CTB and XMOD distortions increase by ___ dB in amplitude.
6
22376
Show Explanation
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11
. Express the composite triple beat distortion: (Choose 2)
a.
2xF1 - F2
b.
F1+F2
c.
F2-F1
d.
F2-F1+F3
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BDS13
1. This component contains the return transmitter, transforming the RF signal into
a light signal and transmits it back to the headend.
a.
amplifier
b.
power inserter
c.
node
d.
combiner
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2. What is the most common method of upstream level balancing?
a.
network-wide flat loss or pad adjustment
b.
network-wide thermal noise adjustment
c.
network-wide automatic level control
d.
the use of filters or trap trim devices
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view QuestionExp
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3. True or False: Downstream is energy distribution vs. upstream, which is energy accumulation.
True
False
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4. The HFC is similar to the coaxial topology except that long trunk runs are replaced by ___ links.
fiber
39710
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5. Impulse noise is caused by: (Choose all that apply)
a.
vehicle ignitions
b.
neon signs
c.
static from lighting
d.
power line switching transients
e.
household appliances
f.
excessive ingress
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6. True or False: CPD does NOT effect the forward path.
True
False
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7. Contains the optical receiver which receives the light from the return transmitter.
a.
headend or hub
b.
optical node c.
amplifier or line extender
d.
tap plate or conditioner
e.
street cabinet
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8. What are the most common causes of common path intermodulation distortion
(CPD)? (Choose 2)
a.
skin effect
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b.
dissimilar metals that become corroded
c.
non terminated amplifier housing ports
d.
LASER clipping -- power levels too high
e.
poorly installed connectors
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9. True or False: Combining MPEG-2 elementary streams (ES) for transmission over the metro or regional network is called an MPEG-2 transport stream (MPEG-TS).
True
False
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10
. A non-EuroDOCSIS return path uses a sub-split, which will produce a return path spectrum of:
a.
5 to 42 MHz
b.
5 to 65 MHz
c.
5 to 200 MHz
d.
5 to 238 MHz
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11
. The digital signal frequency designation used by cable operators is:
a.
the upper frequency
b.
the center frequency
c.
the lower frequency
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12
. While cable modems or embedded multimedia terminal adapters use QAM in the return, set top boxes use:
a.
FDMA
b.
QPSK
c.
QAM 64
d.
MPEG-TS
e.
DVB-C
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view QuestionExp
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13
. True or False: A consistent receive level is required at the headend regardless
of location of the source upstream signals.
True
False
Show Correct Answer
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14
. The measurement of impedance differences in dB.
a.
CSO
b.
CPD
c.
return loss
d.
CTB
e.
Hum
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers BDS14
1. Analog PAL uses a channel bandwidth of 8 MHz and analog NTSC uses a channel bandwidth of ___ MHz.
6
22418
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2. A nibble is ___ bits.
4
22448
view QuestionExp
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3. One million Hz is
a.
MHz
b.
KHz
c.
THz
d.
GHz
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4. The number of waves that pass a fixed point per unit of time defines:
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a.
amplitude
b.
phase
c.
frequency
d.
quadrature amplitude
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5. The color burst signal is ___ MHz away from the NTSC video carrier.
3.58
22420
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6. What is the bandwidth of a signal with an upper frequency limit of 275MHz and
lower frequency limit of 267MHz?
8
22424
view QuestionExp
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7. The audio carrier in an NTSC channel is located _____MHz above the video carrier.
4.5
39735
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8. What is the bandwidth of a PAL TV channel?
a.
8 MHz
b.
6 MHz
c.
3.2 MHz
d.
1.6 MHz
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9. Error correction such as FEC added to a QAM signal is called:
a.
payload
b.
overhead
c.
symbol rate
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d.
data rate
e.
quality of service or QoS
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10
. Frames are located at the ___ layer of the OSI model.
a.
data-link
b.
session
c.
transport
d.
physical
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11
. What is the bandwidth of a NTSC TV channel?
a.
6 MHz
b.
8 MHz
c.
6.4 MHz
d.
3.2 MHz
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12
. What is the channel bandwidth of a return signal? (Choose 3)
a.
1.6 MHz
b.
3.2 MHz
c.
6.4 MHz
d.
6 MHz
e.
8 MHz
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13
. The FCC (or Ofcom in UK) requires that a minimum level of ___ dBmV be provided on an analog video channel to each subscriber terminal.
0
22496
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14
To provide guide data and other information such as the virtual channel
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. mapping to frequency mapping to set-top boxes, a(n) ____ channel is used.
a.
forward
b.
out of band
c.
return
d.
over the top
e.
narrow cast
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15
. Name a way of multiplexing several groups of carriers at different slots onto a single piece of coaxial cable for transmission in the return path. (Allows cable modems to communicate with the CMTS)
a.
FDM / FDMA b.
ATDMA / TDMA / SCDMA
c.
WDM / DWDM
d.
CWDM / WDM
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16
. The binary value "1001" is equal to a ___ decimal value.
9
22450
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17
. An octet or byte is ___ bits.
8
22452
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18
. A way of multiplexing several groups of carriers at different frequencies onto a single piece of coaxial cable for transmission in the forward path.
a.
FDMA b.
ATDMA
c.
TDMA
d.
WDM
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e.
DWDM
f.
CWDM
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19
. Match the following filters.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
High pass filter
22438
22438,22440,224
=
e
22443,2244
a
. block a band of frequencies
2.
Low pass filter
22440
22438,22440,224
=
c
22443,2244
b
. low pass filter preventing 1GHz and greater
3.
Band rejection filter
22442
22438,22440,224
=
a
22443,2244
c.
all signals below a frequency
4.
Point of Entry (PoE) for MoCA
22444
22438,22440,224
=
b
22443,2244
d
. pass a band of frequencies
5.
Band pass filter
22446
22438,22440,224
=
d
22443,2244
e
. all signals above a frequency
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20
. Layer 3 of the OSI model is called ___.
a.
data-link
b.
physical
c.
transport
d.
network
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21
. True or False: A digital 6/8 MHz channel is multiplexed, representing a number
of MPEG-2 compressed channels where a signal analog NTSC/PAL channel used to be.
True
False
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22
. True or False: The relationship within a channel between amplitude and frequency is referred to as the frequency response.
True
False
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23
. An analog signal uses AM for video and this type of modulation for audio.
a.
FM
b.
AM
c.
PM
d.
QAM
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24
. Over the air (OTA) vestigial sideband (VSB) transmission for analog removes ___ information.
sideband
22422
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
BDS15
1. True or False: A line loop tester or brown meter finds faults in the telephone wires of the customer's home.
True
False
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2. When using the divide and conquer (or half-split method) troubleshooting method, if the signal level at a tap indicates a signal level below minimum, the next place to check would be:
a.
the input to the ground block or isolator
b.
the output of the amplifier upstream
c.
the output of the node
d.
the output of the headend LASER
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3. When looking at the constellation of a QAM signal, the area in which each point of the constellation falls is called a ___ area.
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decision
22623
view QuestionExp
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4. True or False: The proper channel plan and channel type for the cable system is not required to be loaded on the H-DSA or SLM.
True
False
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5. Visual display of modulation errors on a QAM signal.
a.
constellation
b.
delta
c.
sine wave
d.
hay stack
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6. The device used in a line power supply to transmit the status data upstream to a network operation center, headend or hub is called:
a.
transponder
b.
time domain reflectometer
c.
cable modem
d.
node
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7. The resistance of a short piece of coax cable will read approximately ___ on an ohm-meter.
infinity
22536
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8. Order the following steps of troubleshooting.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
Analyze the Symptoms
22592
22592,22594,225
=
d
22595,2259
a
. 2
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2.
Isolate the source of the Problem
22594
22592,22594,225
=
a
22595,2259
b
. 3
3.
Divide and Conquer
22596
22592,22594,225
=
b
22595,2259
c. 4
4.
Problem Resolution and/or Repair
22598
22592,22594,225
=
c
22595,2259
d
. 1
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9. Used to test analog plain old telephone system (POTS) lines. Tests such as making calls, measuring voltage or monitoring the line are conducted on the POTS lines.
a.
butt set
b.
signal level meter
c.
foreign voltage detector
d.
continuity tester
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10
. How often should leakage equipment be calibrated?
a.
daily
b.
weekly
c.
monthly
d.
yearly
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11
. What is going on with the constellation?
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a.
too much noise, interference, or non-linearity
b.
coherent (discrete) interference
c.
over compression of signals
d.
phase noise
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12
. The two pieces of test equipment most often used to troubleshoot an outage are: (choose 2)
a.
signal level meter
b.
volt ohm meter
c.
time domain reflectometer
d.
TV test set
e.
optical power meter
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13
. True or False: When coax lines are close together, the signal from the locator is induced onto the parallel conductor making accurate location easy.
True
False
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14
. True or False: In digital signals, the carrier is suppressed for transmission (as compared to an analog) in the forward path.
True
False
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view QuestionExp
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15
. A ___ is a device or tool that displays a plot of signal frequency versus signal amplitude, used to verify frequency response.
a.
spectrum analyzer
b.
signal leakage meter
c.
optical power meter
d.
time domain reflectometer
e.
volt ohm meter
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16
. True or False: When no RF is available at a set-top box or cable modem, check levels at the station cabinet or tap plate.
True
False
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17
. A VOM or DMM can be used to test phone line:
a.
shorts or opens
b.
wiring mapping and color coding
c.
ringer equivalency number of interior wiring
d.
RF power levels
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18
. True or False: Always check to see that the RF signal levels from the tap port or splitter bank meet system design specifications before attaching connections down stream.
True
False
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19
. After connecting the drop to the set-top box, no digital picture appears on the TV. What course of action should be down next?
a.
check RF levels on the drop
b.
verify channel settings on the TV for analog
c.
verify hookup -- component, HDMI, composite, etc...
d.
check the ground block or isolator
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view QuestionExp
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20
. What RF levels are commonly considered to be an indication of sufficient analog video level at the RF input of a TV set?
a.
0 to -5 dBmV
b.
0 to +10 dBmV
c.
+11 to +20 dBmV
d.
+ 15 to +25 dBmV
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21
. True or False: Channel plans in the SLM should be reloaded when channels are changed at the headend or hub.
True
False
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22
. Device used to locate damage, transmission line discontinuities, or impedance
mismatches in coaxial cable by using distance and phase is called:
a.
QAM analyzer
b.
signal leakage detector
c.
atmosphere monitor d.
time domain reflectometer
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23
. True or False: Total system noise at the headend is greater than at any single source found downstream.
True
False
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24
. What is the problem associated with the donut constellation?
a.
phase noise b.
too much noise, interference, or non-linearity
c.
coherent (discrete) interference
d.
carrier compression
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25
True or False: Digital signal level readings are average power measurements.
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.
True
False
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26
. In ground based CLI calculations, only those leakage levels of ___ or greater should be considered.
a.
50 or > µV/m at a distance of 10 ft / 3 m
b.
20 or > µV/m at a distance of 10 ft / 3 m
c.
15 or > µV/m at a distance of 100 ft /30.48 m
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27
. The ___ ___ ___ is required to accurately use a TDR or OTDR.
a.
speed of light
b.
velocity of propagation
c.
structural return loss
d.
bit symbol rate
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28
. The type of meter used to test downstream digital signal quality such as BER, MER or constellations, is called:
a.
time domain reflectometer
b.
signal leakage detector
c.
atmosphere monitor d.
QAM analyzer
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29
. The video carrier is ___ dB higher than an audio carrier in an analog signal.
15
39785
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30
. A customer's installation is not working correctly. Where should the first RF reading be taken?
a.
at the street cabinet or tap plate
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b.
at the wall plate
c.
at the last amplifier
d.
at the ground block or isolator
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31
. The tool used to identify specific wires of twisted pair or station wire and their route at the location is called:
a.
continuity tester b.
volt power meter
c.
reference cable modem
d.
toner and probe (trace)
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32
. When using a VOM on a feeder/distribution coax, the amount of resistance measured in ohms across the center conductor and outer metal shield when a short circuit is present will likely be:
a.
close to zero
b.
infinte
c.
a high rating
d.
not relevant to shorts
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33
. What is going on with the constellation?
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a.
too much noise, interference, or non-linearity
b.
coherent (discrete) interference
c.
over compression of signals
d.
phase noise
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34
. The picture on all TVs at the customer premises fluctuates from good to bad. Which item could be the cause?
a.
series 59 wire
b.
house amplifier plugged into an outlet on a wall switch
c.
customer TVs are defective
d.
splitter hit by lightening
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35
. When using a handheld digital signal analyzer (H-DSA) or signal level meter (SLM) the difference between an analog's video and audio carrier levels are expressed as a ratio of dB called the:
a.
delta
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b.
power c.
sum
d.
difference
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36
. Twisted pair wire bundles require a ___ for wire identification.
a.
wire mapper
b.
butt set
c.
VOM
d.
coax toner
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37
. You are on an outage and find an amplifier with good RF input, no RF output, and no AC voltage. You should:
a.
replace the DC power pack
b.
check the design maps for powering configuration c.
check to make sure that commercial power is available
d.
replace the line power inserter
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38
. A signal leakage reading of 5 uV/M at 271 MHz has been detected from 30 feet away. What should you do?
a.
re-measured from a distance of 10 feet
b.
this is fine, no logging required
c.
check all the amplifiers and nodes
d.
this is fine, logging is required
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39
. True or False: Group delay is defined as the rate of change of phase with respect to frequency, the amplitude ripple produces fine-grained phase ripple, which in turn may result in large group delay ripple.
True
False
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40
. A ___ is a device that is used to measure the amplitude of a forward path signal.
a.
spectrum analyzer
b.
signal leakage meter
c.
optical power meter
d.
time domain reflectometer
e.
signal level meter
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41
. True or False: The FCC rules require that all signal leakage of 20uV/meter measured at a distance of 10 feet in the aeronautical bands, must be logged and repaired.
True
False
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
BDS16
1
. ** CORRECTED **
What type of interference is displayed?
sparkles
electric
22645
view QuestionExp
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2
. What is happening here with the analog channel?
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a.
low RF levels
b.
high MER levels
c.
too much power
d.
bad isolator or ground block or bonding
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3
. A double image of the same picture in an analog television channel is called:
a.
ghost
b.
hum
c.
snowy or grainy
d.
motion smear
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4
. This is a ___ modulation distortion.
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cross
22654
view QuestionExp
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5
. Slow moving but identifiable patterns on the TV screen can be caused by:
a.
interfering signals
b.
noise
c.
low RF
d.
impedance mismatch
e.
high SRL
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6
. This is a ___ order distortion.
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third
22651
view QuestionExp
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7
. What may be the cause of this impairment on a single channel?
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a.
improperly installed connectors or excessive splitters
b.
bad return amplifier
c.
poor combining at the headend
d.
poor grounding at the pedestal or street cabinet
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8
. Ghosts may be leading (to the ___ of the stronger image) or following (to the ___).
a.
left, right
b.
right, left
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9
. Here is an impairment called ___, caused by composite second order distortions.
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a.
herringbone pattern
b.
hum
c.
macroblocking
d.
leading ghost
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1
0
. True or False: A stationary vertical band in an analog picture may be an indicator of severe ingress.
True
False
view QuestionExp
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1
1
. The cause of horizontal rolling bars may be:
hum
39829
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1
2
. What is the cause of this distortion?
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a.
a misadjusted amplifier, such as high output levels
b.
improper bonding / ground at the telephone pole or station cabinet
c.
low levels at the optical node
d.
defective customer TV
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1
3
. True or False: Excessive intermodulation, low C/N or hum in a downstream digital signal typically will cause the picture to macroblock.
True
False
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
BDS17
1
. Sweep is a measurement of relative ___ from the headend multiplexer to an amplifier output.
gain
22694
view QuestionExp
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2
. True or False: The phrase "sweep an amplifier" refers to the process of determining the frequency response by viewing a trace left by a variable frequency generator.
True
False
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view QuestionExp
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3
. True or False: Poor sweep response will never effect noise and distortion performance of a network.
True
False
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4
. True or False: The FCC or OfComm does NOT require sweep and balance.
True
False
view QuestionExp
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5
. A sweepless system does not require a ___, a receiver in the HFC measures the amplitude of the available active carriers already on the system to create a frequency response trace.
transmitter
22696
view QuestionExp
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6
. When sweeping downstream, peak to valley (trough) is the measure of what?
a.
The overall gain variation as a function of frequency
b.
The delta between the video and audio carrier in the worst channel
c.
The delta between the highest video carrier and the lowest digital carrier
d.
The highest and lowest video carrier
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers BDS18
1
. According to FCC regulations, in a system utilizing 500 MHz of bandwidth, the maximum allowable carrier level difference between any two channels at the customer's terminal is ___ dB.
12
22704
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2
. What is the FCC minimum required signal level after 100 feet of drop cable attached to a tap? ___ dBmV
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3
22706
view QuestionExp
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3
. FCC rules state in part that semi-annual proof of performance tests for 24 hour signal amplitude must be conducted in January and ___.
july
22708
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4
. The FCC's in-home standard allows a maximum hum modulation of ___ %.
3
22702
view QuestionExp
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5
. Per the FCC, signal leakage measurements must be taken using a dipole antenna and must NOT exceed ________ uV/M at a distance of three meters.
20
22700
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers BDS19
1. Which are required steps of aerial installation of coaxial? (choose all that apply)
a.
secure permits required to do work
b.
loading the coax on the truck
c.
understand cable route
d.
all trucks are serviced prior to usage
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2. Various types of ___ will be required for all strand-supported cable and self-
supporting cable.
guying
22788
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view QuestionExp
show TheAnsw e
3. Match the clearances and separations used during aerial construction.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
Power Lines
22741
22741,22743,227
=
e
22744,2275
a.
15.5 feet
2.
Public Roads
22743
22741,22743,227
=
a
22744,2275
b.
12 inches
3.
Pedestrian Traffic
22745
22741,22743,227
=
d
22744,2275
c.
3 feet
4. Railroads
22747
22741,22743,227
=
f
22744,2275
d.
10 feet
5.
Peaked Roof Buildings
22749
22741,22743,227
=
c
22744,2275
e.
40 inches
6. Telephone
22751
22741,22743,227
=
b
22744,2275
f. 23.5 feet
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4. True or False: In some situations conduits can be used to bond cable to the electrical ground system, depending on the conduit type and code requirements.
True
False
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5. The ground and bonds at a pole are specified by the:
a.
cable company b.
telephone company
c.
electric company
d.
pole owner
e.
contractor installing services on the pole
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6. What is the dimensions of the expansion loop separation from the strand?
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a.
6 inches or 15 cm
b.
12 inches or 30 cm
c.
18 inches or 45 cm
d.
24 inches or 60 cm
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7. All cables installed in the outside plant (OSP) should be ___ before cable connectors are installed.
tested
22786
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8. What type of pedestal is shown?
a.
Line Extender / Splitter / Tap plate
b.
Tap plate / Splitter
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c.
Tap Mounted to Stake
d.
Trunk Amplifier Pedestal
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9. Economy blocks are used to support a ___ cable prior to lashing.
a.
group of cables
b.
dual c.
single
d.
strand
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10
. True or False: Grounding and bonding equipment must be listed by a federal executive department, NOT an independent agency.
True
False
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11
. Poor bond strength between the dielectric and the center conductor of a coax cable:
a.
creates kinking of the coax more easier
b.
makes cable connectorization easier
c.
allows grounding, bonding or isolation to have a lower wattage
d.
changes the minimum bending radius
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12
. During the safety check, the integrity of any cable telecommunications equipment used during construction is verified. Which of the following would be involved in a safety check? (Choose 3)
a.
pole risers
b.
pole guying
c.
dead ending on poles
d.
pole material
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13
. Dynamometers measure the pulling ___ applied to cables.
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tension
22735
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14
. The best method to install coaxial cable that will have the least visible damage to a road surface.
a.
trenching machine
b.
boring machine
c.
plowing machine
d.
bucket truck
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15
. A ___ swivel is used to allow cables or conduits being pulled to swivel and will ensure that the recommended pulling tension is not exceeded.
breakaway
22772
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16
. Lashing is done when the coax is being paid out during this installation method.
a.
drive-off method
b.
back-pull method
c.
push-pull method
d.
dead ending
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17
. True or False: Before pulling out cable onto the strand, make sure all guying is
installed properly.
True
False
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18
. Name of the equipment shown.
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a.
set-up chute
b.
Cable Lasher
c.
Cable Overlash Puller
d.
Multiple Cable Puller
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19
. Required to minimize the potential difference between the systems ___.
a.
ground the cable shield to a structures electrical system
b.
couple the cable shield to a structures electrical system
c.
secure the cable shield to a structures electrical system
d.
reduce the hum on the line
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20
. True or False: To prevent the end of a lashing wire from accidentally causing a
serious injury, end of the lashing wire must be covered by the lashing wire clamp.
True
False
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21
This device is used to route cables through inside or outside corners up to 90º,
to ensure the cable does NOT exceed its minimum bending radius.
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.
a.
corner block
b.
bender Board
c.
reel brakes
d.
economy block
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22
. The use of dissimilar materials in certain environments (such as soil) is likely to cause ___ of the less noble metal, and should be considered in the selection of individual components.
a.
galvanic corrosion
b.
ingress c.
structural return loss
d.
egress
e.
a buildup of voltage
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23
. Expansion loops should be on the ___ side of all active and passive devices.
a.
output
b.
input
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I'm Done Reviewing Answers
BDS20
1. True or False: An attempt should be made to build a history of each amplifier for future; this can be a useful tool for troubleshooting or predicting potential future problems.
True
False
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2. Which of the following is NOT an active device verification test?
a.
Power-up test
b.
Frequency response test
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c.
Return loss test
d.
Structural return loss test
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3. Match each of the following active device verification tests to its purpose.
Column A
Your Answer
Column B
1.
Power-up test
39890
39890,39891,39
=
b
39895,39
a.
checks the flatness of the device
2.
Return loss test
39891
39890,39891,39
=
c
39895,39
b.
checks the operation of the power supply and associated circuits prior to installation
3. Frequency response test
39892
39890,39891,39
=
a
39895,39
c.
checks the impedance match of all the ports on the device
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4. Isolation between passive device ports should be greater than ___ dB.
a.
15
b.
18
c.
22
d.
27
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5.
When should system performance verification be done?
a.
Immediately upon completion of construction
b.
After inspection by the local regulatory agency
c.
After rough balance and sweep testing are completed
d.
After rough balance and before sweep testing are completed
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6. Which of the following is NOT a commonly performed test for coaxial cable?
a.
Structural return loss test
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b.
Attenuation vs. temperature test
c.
Impedance/TDR test
d.
Frequency vs. attenuation test
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7. True or False: Amplifiers should always be configured so that they can be installed in any location.
True
False
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8.
True or False: An initial rough balance is used to set the approximate level and tilt of the RF signals.
True
False
view QuestionExp
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9.
True or False: Verification of the coaxial cable is done after construction since the cable is ready to install upon receipt from the manufacturer.
True
False
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10
. True or False: The frequency response test for passive devices checks the components’ ability to pass the desired frequencies without excessive attenuation in any portion of the frequency spectrum.
True
False
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Related Documents
Related Questions
The following data are transmitted in a serial communication system (P is the parity
bit). What parity is being used in each case?
a. ABCDEFGHP = 010000101
b. ABCDEFGHP = 011000101
c. ABCDP = 01101
d. ABCDEP = 101011
e. ABCDEP = 111011
arrow_forward
Q12: CSMA/CD is a protocol used in what Data Link Layer protocol?
a. Polling
b. Token Passing bus
c. Token Passing ring
d. Ethernet
e. TDMA
f. FDMA
g. CDMA
h. None of the above
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Given that the base address is FoH.
1. Create a new asm project “Lab2_Q1.asm". Assume that port A of 8255A PPI is
connected to 8085. Write assembly code to send the value of FFH to FoH. Enter a delay
of 2 ms for each transmission.
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•An ISP is granted a block of addresses starting with
190.100.0.0/16. The ISP needs to distribute these
addresses to two groups of customers as follows:
•The first group has 64 customers; each needs 128 IP
addresses.
•The third group has 128 customers; each needs 64 IP
addresses.
• Write at least the first and last IP addresses for the first
two and last two customers in each group.
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Question is under attachment.
arrow_forward
A digital signaling system is required to operate at 9600 bps.
a. If a signal element encodes a 4-bit word, what is the minimum required band-width of the channel?
b. Repeat part (a) for the case of 8-bit words.
arrow_forward
Question II
1- Suppose AHU is allocated a block of IP address: 200.23.16.0/20. Based on your
knowledge on IP addressing, answer the following questions:
How many hosts at maximum can AHU supply with public IP addresses?
Suppose there are 8 colleges that AHU needs to distribute the IP addresses to
Suppose the IP address demand from each college is the same. What will be the block of
IP addresses allocated to each college? How many hosts can each college supply with
public IP addresses?
(e) Suppose there are 6 colleges that AHU needs to distribute the IP addresses to. Two of
the colleges request twice as much IP addresses as the other 4. What will be the block of
IP addresses allocated to each college? How many hosts can each college supply with
publie IP addresses?
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a) i) Determine the number of bits per level required when using FSK with 4 different
frequencies and QAM with a constellation of 256 points.
ii) We want to digitise a signal that contains frequencies between 100 Hz and 1500
Hz, assuming 16 bits per sample. The digitised signal will be transmitted using a
QPSK process. Determine the bit rate and the level rate.
iii) We need to send 210,000 bits per second over a noiseless channel using 128-
QAM. Determine the required bandwidth.
arrow_forward
Question 2
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
P Flag question
In a self-bias n-channel JFET, the operating
point is to be set at Ip = 1.5 mA and Vps =10
V. The JFET parameters are IDss= 5 mA and
Vp = 2 V.
Given that VDD = 20 V.
The value of Rs required for the circuit is
Select one:
a. 60.3 kohms
b. 603 ohms
c. 60.3 ohms
d. 603 kohms
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: 603 ohms
arrow_forward
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