ThE-417-BanQ-4

01. Which of the following is NOT considered a reason for issuance of an FAA Issue Paper? Select one: a) Personality disputes between the Applicant and Validation Authorities b) Tracking resolution of an Equivalent Level of Safety (ELOS) request c) New information relating to scientific advancements in understanding of environmental factors d) Documenting the Means of Compliance (MOC) 01. Which is NOT true regarding Delegation of Authority. Select one: a) Transport Canada and the Delegate share a common commitment to aviation safety b) The Delegates’ obligations are restricted to his employer’s policies c) The Delegate is responsible for the performance of authorized functions d) The Delegate is accountable to the Minister 01. Choose the FALSE statement. Select one: a) SARPS are contained in Annexes and are issued by ICAO b) The Horizontal Stabilizer is used to trim the aircraft in pitch c) Flaps and Slats are used to improve takeoff and landing performance d) Two engine aircraft cannot fly safely if one engine loses total thrust 2. Choose the FALSE answer. Select one: a) Turbulence, gusts and wind shear cause disturbances to the aircraft in flight b) Visual Flight Rules (VFR) are a set of regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in weather conditions generally clear enough … c) Microbursts do not pose a hazard during takeoff or landing since all aircraft are equipped with a Windshear Detection System and … d) The Pilot in Command (PIC) has full authority of an aircraft following dispatch 3. Fatigue is a complicated issue linked to reduced physical and mental performance and alertness. Fatigue is associated with a variety of factors including sleep requirements, continuous hours awake, and circadian rhythms. Which one is CORRECT about fatigue? Select one: a) Fatigue can lead to long term stress b) There are no regulations regarding Crew Duty Time limits c) Pilots become accustomed to fatigue over time and it has less of an impact d) Jet lag doesn’t result in fatigue 3. Which of the following is FALSE? Select one: a) ICAO can issue new standards following new and novel security threats b) ICAO is a branch of the United Nations c) States do not have exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above their own territory d) Aligning with the need for economical Air Transport is one mandate of ICAO 5. This hazard presents the highest risk of engine malfunction and flame outs. Select one:

a) Lightning b) Tornado c) Volcanic ash d) Icing 5. Which is NOT true of a Contracting State. Select one: a) Can allow foreign aircraft to enter their sovereign airspace b) A Contracting State has signed the Chicago Convention c) May provide Safety Recommendations to ICAO following an Accident Investigation d) Always has their own National Aviation Authority 6. Which of the following is NOT considered a reason for issuance of an FAA Issue Paper? Select one: a) Documenting the Means of Compliance (MOC) b) Tracking resolution of an Equivalent Level of Safety (ELOS) request c) Personality disputes between the Applicant and Validation Authorities d) New information relating to scientific advancements in understanding of environmental factors 8. What term refers to a type of treaty that is sponsored by an international organization - typically signed by many States? a) Regulation b) ICAO Annex c) Standard d) Convention 8. Which of the following is TRUE of an Airworthiness Directive (A.D.) Select one: a) An A.D has no requirement for FAA inspection and/or validation b) An A.D is issued following every accident c) An A.D has a specified recommended (but not mandatory) time period for compliance d) The FAA issues ADs when an unsafe condition is found to exist in a product and the condition is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design 10. Which of these is NOT an ICAO Global Priority for Aviation? Select one: a) Environmental protection b) Aviation safety c) Commercial competition amongst airlines d) Economic development 11. Choose the CORRECT answer: There are three basic factors that affect safety in aviation: Man, Environment and Machine. These can be viewed as three links ensuring safety. Select one: a) Only if the weakest link fails will there be an accident

b) Not all phases of flight are equally prone to accidents. Most accidents occur during landing or take-off c) Failure of an aircraft component is always related to either a faulty design or an error during certification d) Aviation safety hazards can be caused by foreign object debris, misleading information, lightning, ice and snow, engine failure, structural failure of the aircraft, stalling, fire or bird strike 16. If a new aircraft design contains an unusual or novel system that is not adequately addressed by current airworthiness regulations, what is the means to handle this from a certification perspective? Select one: a) Equivalent Level of Safety (ELOS) b) Exemption c) Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) d) Special Condition 16. What are the three main High-Risk Accident Occurrence Categories (HRC) that ICAO is currently focusing on as a Global Safety Priority? Select one: a) MED, CFIT and RS b) GS, MED and UNK c) RS, OTH and MED d) CFIT, LOC-I and RS 17. Which of the following scenarios would be classified as an accident? Select one: a) A firefighting plane goes missing and is never found b) A plane narrowly avoids hitting a mountain c) Turbulence causes a passenger to drop and damage their laptop computer d) A pilot declares an emergency due to lack of fuel and lands safely 18. Choose the CORRECT answer. Select one: a) Advisory Circulars include information regarding recent regulation to issue Papers b) An Advisory Circular is an informal document created by the Applicant to guide the Compliance Checklist c) An Advisory Circular provides an acceptable means, but not the only means of compliance to a regulation d) Only certain portions of an Advisory Circular can be used by the Applicant without consideration of all other portions 19. Which of these is NOT an issue investigated in the science of human factors? Select one: a) Ethnic background of flight crew b) Cockpit Resource Management (CRM) c) Management or schedule pressure d) Employee physical and mental health

19. Which of the following is not contained in a TCDS? Select one: a) List of Approved Documentation b) Description of Certification Basis c) Approved Manufacturing Basis d) Operating Limitations 22. Protecting the aviation system from intentional wrongdoing and criminal behaviour is called: Select one: a) Aviation Security b) Preventive Maintenance c) Protecting sovereignty d) Safety and Airworthiness 22. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a Certification Plan. Select one: a) Names of Delegates b) Regulatory Amendment Level c) Means of Compliance (MOC) d) Cross reference to ICAO Annex 8 23. The Minister of Transport may. Select one: a) Make agreements with other governments b) Promote aeronautics; provide information related to aeronautics c) All of the other answers are correct d) Authorize others to act on his behalf (with limitations) 25. A Required Inspection means an inspection on an aeronautical product that is required by. Select one: a) All of the other answers are correct b) Airworthiness Limitation c) Airworthiness Directive d) Maintenance schedule 27. Aircraft Unsafe Occurrence reports can be a result of findings during: Select one: a) Audit of Maintenance records b) New testing or updated analysis c) In service incident d) All of the other answers are correct 28. Which items must be designated to comply with Flammability standards? Select one: a) All of the other answers are correct b) Seat cushions c) Baggage Bay d) Wiring and electrical components

41. Flight Testing for Minimum Control Speed on the Ground (Vmcg) is: Select one: a) Is used to determine Landing Speeds b) Is not considered to be hazardous since multiple safety precautions are taken during testing c) Applies only for two engine airplanes d) A basic regulation applicable to all Transport Category airplanes 42. Choose the FALSE statement. Select one: a) Flight tests may be conducted to validate the effect of complex flow-fields on performance b) flight test data can be used to improve the accuracy of simulation models c) Flight tests must be conducted for all MMEL and CDL candidates d) Flight tests may be used to assess aircraft level effect of interactions between various systems 42. Which statement is TRUE regarding the classification of Failure Conditions? Select one: a) Catastrophic Failures must be shown to be Extremely Improbable b) A hazardous condition can be associated with a Hull Loss c) Quantitative assessment need not to be correlated with failure classifications d) The Operator is responsible to make the assessment of failure classification 42. Choose the FALSE statement. Select one: a) Transport Canada is responsible to the Delegate and the Delegate is accountable to the Minister b) Transport Canada and the Delegate share a common commitment to aviation safety c) Delegation is a Partnership and it is a Privilege d) Transport Canada, not the Delegate, is responsible for the performance of authorized functions 44. In an aircraft certification program, means of compliance (MOC) to airworthiness standards are documented by the manufacturer through: Select one: a) Special Conditions b) Certification Plan c) Applicant’s Engineering Procedures Manual d) Issue Papers 45. Passenger Briefing Cards: Select one: a) Are customized to the operator’s specific aircraft configuration b) Are not required by airworthiness regulations, ie. they are for ‘information only’ c) Can be used with no consideration to a Crew Members’ Instructions d) Have a standard format, regardless of the aircraft Floor-plan and installed equipment

46. A Boeing 747 is missing aerodynamic sealant on one wing leading edge. Which statement is TRUE? Select one: a) A licensed Maintenance Engineer can authorize dispatch without further reference to Manufacturer’s documents b) The MMEL should address this case c) Dispatch cannot be allowed unless allowed by the CDL d) There is no airworthiness implication since this is a minor deviation on a large aircraft 48. Which of the following need NOT be considered when classifying a Modification as being Major? Select one: a) Structural strength b) Effect on Flight Performance c) Cost of the modification d) Potential impact on center of gravity 50. Choose the FALSE answer. Select one: a) FFS provides force feedback through a motion platform b) FFS simulates over 99% of all aircraft system accessible from the flight deck c) There is currently only one level of standard for FFS, called level A d) Full flight Simulator (FFS) can provide Zero Flight Time (ZFT) training of civil pilots when converting from one aircraft type to another —------------------------------ Choose the CORRECT answer a) There are three basic factors that affect safety in aviation: Man, Environment and Machine. These can be viewed as three links ensuring safety. The failure of a single link does not cause an accident. It is failure of the strongest link that causes an accident b) There are three basic factors that affect safety in aviation: Man, Environment and Machine. These can be viewed as three links ensuring safety. The failure of a single link does not cause an accident. It is failure of the weakest link that causes an accident c) There are three basic factors that affect safety in aviation: Man, Environment and Machine. These can be viewed as three links ensuring safety. All the three links must fail at the same time to cause an accident d) There are three basic factors that affect safety in aviation: Man, Environment and Machine. These can be viewed as three links ensuring safety. The failure of a single link is sufficient to cause an accident Choose the CORRECT answer a) The Transport Canada Civil Aviation Safety Alert (CASA) is used to convey important safety information to aircraft owners, aircraft maintenance engineers (AMEs) and foreign civil aviation authorities primarily through e-mail. CASA contains recommended action items. The CASA may be changed or amended. b) The Transport Canada Civil Aviation Safety Alert (CASA) is used to convey important safety information to aircraft owners, aircraft maintenance engineers (AMEs) and only

b) The GASP will help ICAO regions, sub-regions and States establish their safety priorities over the next 15 years. c) The GASP objectives strive to define and maintain acceptable levels of safety throughout the global aviation system. The GASP does not include strategies for maintaining safety when addressing the other important ICAO Strategic Objectives. d) The GASP is an overarching framework that includes key aviation policy principles to assist ICAO regions, sub-regions and States with the preparation of their regional and State aviation safety plans. Choose the CORRECT answer a) An awareness campaign has been initiated by the Reginal Aviation Safety Groups containing information that air operators may utilize to develop Standard Operating Procedures and training for pilots. b) An awareness campaign has been initiated by the Reginal Aviation Safety Groups containing information that air operators may utilize to develop Standard Certification Procedures and training for pilots. c) An awareness campaign has been initiated by the Reginal Aviation Safety Groups containing information that air operators may utilize to develop Standard Reporting Procedures and training for pilots. d) An awareness campaign has been initiated by the Reginal Aviation Safety Groups containing information that air operators may utilize to develop Standard Emergency Procedures and training for pilots. Choose the FALSE answer a) All member states of ICAO are obligated to provide timely notification to ICAO when adopting regulations or practices differing from those established by ICAO. b) The Reginal Aviation Safety Groups (RASGs) are independent groups that harmonize all activities undertaken by ICAO to address aviation safety issues specific to each ICAO region. c) Standardization is one of the Safety Performance Enablers to ensure uniform implementation of ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs). d) ICAO established a Strategic Aviation Safety Partnership (SASP) to prioritize safety initiatives and to coordinate their effective and efficient implementation. Choose the FALSE answer a) Turbulence, microburst, gust, wind shear and downburst cause disturbances to the aircraft in flight. b) Microbursts are very weak and so they can be safely ignored during the flight. c) CAT I, CAT II and CAT III are the three categories of visibility. d) Visual flight rules (VFR) are a set of regulations under which a pilot operates an aircraft in weather conditions generally clear enough to allow the pilot to see where the aircraft is going. Choose the FALSE answer

a) Aviation safety hazards are caused by foreign object debris, misleading information and lack of information, lightning, ice and snow, engine failure, structural failure of the aircraft, stalling, fire and bird strike. b) Piloting while intoxicated and controlling flight into terrain are some of the human factors that cause aviation safety hazards. c) Not all phases of flight are equally prone to accidents. Most accidents (55%) occur during landing or take-off. Only 10% occur when the aircraft is en-route. d) None of the above The 37th Session of the Assembly of ICAO expressed unanimous support for the development of a code of conduct on the sharing and use of safety information. The Code of Conduct Multidisciplinary Task Force (MTF) was established in November 2010 to assist the Secretariat in developing the code of conduct. (Choose the FALSE answer) a) One of the objectives of the code of conduct is to establish principles governing the collection, sharing and use of information related to the operation of civil aviation. b) One of the principles of the code of conduct is based compliance with the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention) and its Annexes: c) One of the standards of conduct for its member states is to ensure that shared safety information is used in an appropriate, fair and consistent manner, solely to improve aviation safety and not for inappropriate purposes, including for the purpose of gaining economic advantage; d) One of the other provisions is to require approval by the Council of ICAO for any changes to this code of conduct. Choose the CORRECT answer a) “aircraft” means any machine, including a rocket, capable of deriving support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air or outside of atmosphere from the reaction of jet, other than a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine. b) “aircraft” means any machine, excluding a rocket, capable of deriving support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air, other than a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine. c) “aircraft” means any machine, including a rocket, capable of deriving support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air, other than a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine. d) “aircraft” means any machine, including a rocket, capable of deriving support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air and also including a machine designed to derive support in the atmosphere from reactions against the earth’s surface of air expelled from the machine. Choose the CORRECT answer

In making its findings as to the causes and contributing factors of a transportation occurrence, it is not the function of the Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board to assign fault or determine civil or criminal liability. (Choose the CORRECT answer) a) However, the Board shall refrain from fully reporting on the causes and contributing factors because fault or liability might be inferred from the Board’s findings. b) However, the Board shall refrain from fully reporting on the causes and contributing factors so as not to have fault or liability be inferred from the Board’s findings. c) However, the Board shall not refrain from fully reporting on the causes and contributing factors merely because fault or liability might be inferred from the Board’s findings. d) However, the findings of the Board are binding on the parties to any legal, disciplinary or other proceedings. Choose the FALSE answer : The Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board a) shall make by-laws respecting the conduct of business at meetings of the Board. b) shall establish policies respecting the classes of transportation occurrences to be investigated. c) shall establish, either generally or in relation to specific classes of transportation occurrences, policies to be followed in the conduct of investigations. d) shall include in its finding the reports submitted to them by the Directors of Investigations without review in the original form. Choose the CORRECT answer a) For greater certainty, where the Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board cannot investigate a transportation occurrence, all other departments are prevented from investigating any aspect of the transportation occurrence so as not to interfere with the investigation at a later date by the board. b) Where the Board is notified of a transportation occurrence, it shall not forthwith provide particulars of the transportation occurrence to any minister responsible or not responsible for a department having a direct or indirect interest in the occurrence. c) On completion of any investigation, the Board shall prepare and make available only to the minister responsible its findings, including any safety deficiencies that it has identified and any recommendations that it considers appropriate in the interests of transportation safety. d) For greater certainty, where the Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board does not investigate a transportation occurrence, no department is prevented from investigating any aspect of the transportation occurrence that it is empowered to investigate. A Minister who is notified of the findings and recommendations of the Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board shall advise the Board in writing of any action taken or proposed to be taken in response to those findings and recommendations. His action must be completed within (Choose the CORRECT answer): a) forty days after being so notified

b) sixty days after being so notified c) ninety days after being so notified d) one month after being so notified The Canadian Transportation Accident Investigation and Safety Board may, subject to the approval of the Governor in Council, make regulations: (Choose the FALSE answer) a) respecting the keeping and preservation of records, documents and other evidence relating to transportation occurrences; b) defining, for the purposes of an investigation, the site or sites of a transportation occurrence but not prescribing any rules for the protection of those sites; c) for defining the rights or privileges of persons attending investigations as observers or with observer status; d) respecting the tariff of fees and expenses to be paid to any witness attending at an investigation or at a public inquiry conducted and the conditions under which a fee or expenses may be paid to any such witness; Choose the CORRECT answer a) The primary control surfaces of an aircraft are Stabilizer, Ailerons, Spoilers and Rudder. b) The primary control surfaces of an aircraft are Stabilizer, Flaps, Ailerons and Rudder. c) The primary control surfaces of an aircraft are Stabilizer, Slats, Flaps, Ailerons, Spoilers and Rudder. d) The primary control surfaces of an aircraft are Stabilizer, Ailerons and Rudder. Choose the FALSE answer a) The four main forces acting on an aircraft in flight are: Lift, Weight, Drag and Thrust. In a straight level un-accelerated flight, Lift equals Weight and Thrust equals Drag. b) When an aircraft turns to right of left in flight, it banks in the correct direct to avoid side slip. In this condition, the Lift is less than Weight and Thrust is greater than Drag. c) The three axes about which the aircraft rotates in flight are named: Pitch, Roll and Yaw. d) Systems on aircraft usually constitute 30% of the aircraft empty weight. Choose the CORRECT answer a) The Landing Gears of an aircraft have gears in them to speed up during takeoff and they work according to the anti-skid system. b) The systems on an aircraft can be divided into three main categories: Basic Systems, Payload Systems and Avionics Systems and are independent of each other. c) The Avionics Systems are information based and the Basic and the Payload Systems are energy based. d) APU stands for Auxiliary Power Unit and it works mainly when the aircraft is on ground and also during the takeoff and climb. Choose the CORRECT answer a) Engine feed pumps are often linked to the engine accessory gear box. b) Engine feed pumps are often directly linked to the engine shaft.

b) A state suggestion that each operator might choose to implement SMS c) A cash reward offered by the state to report pilots who violate procedures d) A list of all aviation incidents that resulted in the loss of an aircraft Which is FALSE regarding the Foreing Validation of a Type Certificate? a) It allows the Type Certificate holder to sell the product in foreign markets b) Takes place after initial Type Certification by the Applicant’s NAA c) International Airworthiness Agreements such as BASA facilitate Foreign Validation d) It is not required to export aircraft When certifying a new aeronautical product in Canada, the amendments level of the airworthiness standards to be applied to the product is determined by the: a) Target date which the company wishes to receive its’ Type Certificate b) Issue date of the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) c) Date of application for the product’s C of A d) Original date of application for Type Certification Which of the following is TRUE? a) Certification of aircraft interiors involves an understanding of human ergonomics and strength b) Machine Factors are not influenced by an aircraft’s operating environment c) The Dirty Dozen can include malpractice by the Flight Crew d) Environmental factors are now clearly understood, so there is no need for further research Which statement is TRUE? a) None of the other statements is true b) For an aircraft with a passenger seating capacity greater than 44, the Emergency Evacuation requirement dictates that all passengers and crew must exit the aircraft within 60 seconds following a simulated emergency condition c) An airline mechanic can install a household microwave (to replace a faulty factory installed one) with no regulatory consequences, since they are accountable for the safety of the aircraft d) Baggage compartments need not be certified for Flammability, since passenger bags are screened Any inoperative equipment requires some form of rectification. How does an MMEL ensure that corrective action occurs in a timely fashion? a) It accomplishes it through a system of categorization, with each category having a maximum time period between deferral of an inoperative item and its rectification b) It refers to the applicable section of the manufacturer’s maintenance program or the Maintenance Review Board (MRB) Report for each item on MMEL c) It requires the operator to publish the maximum time between failure and rectification in the aircraft maintenance program

d) It contains annexes which contain instructions regarding the maintenance of all items identified in MMEL When certifying a new aeronautical product in Canada, the amendments level of the airworthiness standards to be applied to the product is determined by the: a) Original date of application for Type Certification b) Issue date of the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) c) Date of application for the product’s C of A d) Target date which the company wishes to receive its’ Type Certificate Which of the following factors can potentially lead to an Emergency Decompression? a) Structural failure due to fuselage crack on an aging airplane b) Cockpit windshield failure due to impact with a flock of birds c) All the other answers are correct d) Failure of the aircraft Environmental Control System Which of the following is NOT required to maintain Airworthiness? a) Certified Maintenance Program b) ICAO approval in accordance with Annex 8 c) Compliance with an Airworthiness Directive d) Mandatory inspections specified by Manufacturer Select the item that would NOT normally be listed in the Type Cert. Basis for an aeronautical product a) New regulations issued after the date of application that the applicant wishes to comply with b) Issue Papers that document a point of contention between the applicant and Transport Canada c) Special Conditions imposed when there are no applicable standards available for the product d) Exemptions which are in the public interest and are not likely to affect aviation safety Choose the CORRECT answer a) An Experimental Flight Permit is one example of a valid ‘’Flight Authority’’ b) A CDL can authorize dispatch with one or more systems inoperative c) An aircraft at FL410 is flying at 41,000 ft above ground level d) A MEL can be less restrictive than an MMEL Which of the following is NOT a role of Transport Canada Certification branch a) Review and Verify design and performance data b) Establish and regulate standards for aeronautical products designed and operated in Canada c) Amend the Canadian Aeronautics Act as necessary d) Supervise and perform ground and flight tests

c) International Airworthiness Agreements such as BASA facilitate Foreign Validation d) Is not required to export aircraft Choose the TRUE statement: a) An Issue Paper (I.P) and Special Conditions (S.C.) have the same meaning b) Flight Manual Supplement is required if a major modification affects the Maintenance schedule c) Major modification approval documents are STC, LSTC d) Wake turbulence behind an aircraft can be completely eliminated by the addition of winglets