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IB204 -2023 - Exam 2 practice questions
Advice on using this material: the exact same questions will not be present on the final exam, however,
there are likely to be similar questions. Many topics have related concepts, so when reviewing the
questions and answers, it can be helpful to consider how a similar question about the related aspects may
be written. A good study technique is to try and use the same format to come up with your own questions.
Note: Please use these in addition to looking at the learning objectives and reviewing the in-class
activities. Questions can come from any of the learning objectives and completing these questions will not
ensure that you will be able to answer everything on the exam.
Q. The lac operon is typically found in prokaryotes in order to utilize lactose in the event that glucose is
absent. How does the presence of lactose affect the lac operon?
A.
It binds to the promoter, signaling the polymerase to attach
B.
It stimulates the transcription of the lac repressor gene
C.
It binds to the lac repressor, causing it to detach from the operator
D.
It attaches to the operator, blocking polymerase from attaching
E.
It binds to catabolite activated protein (CAP), causing it to bind to the promoter
Q: Under which of the following conditions would the lac operon be active
A.
Glucose is high, Lactose is low
B.
Glucose is high, Lactose is high
C.
Glucose is low, Lactose is high
D.
Glucose is low, Lactose is low
Q: Which gene sequences are encoded for within the Lac operon?
A.
LacZ, LacY, LacA
B.
LacZ, LacY, LacA, LacI
C.
LacZ, LacY, LacA, LacI, CAP
D.
LacZ, LacY, LacI
E.
LacZ, LacY, LacA, CAP
(note: regulatory gene sequences LacI and CAP are not part of the operon itself)
Q. The lac operon is an example of:
A.
only positive regulation
B.
only negative regulation
C.
both positive and negative regulation
D.
sometimes positive sometimes negative
E.
Constitutive regulation
Q: The following diagram represents two transcripts from the same gene, what process or processes could
have produced these versions?
A: Exon skipping or intron retention
Q: Which of the following statements best describes the process of chromatin remodeling?
A.
Histones are acetylated opening up chromatin, allowing transcription factors to bind
B.
Histones are methylated compacting chromatin, preventing transcription factors from binding
C.
Histone positions are changed allowing transcription factors to bind
D.
Histones are added to DNA, preventing transcription factors from binding
E.
Histone composition is changed, altering the ability to bind to DNA
Q. Which of the following statements best describes the direct impact of DNA methylation:
A.
Methyl-cytosine disrupts transcription factor binding to DNA suppressing transcription
B.
Methyl-cytosine acts as a signal to recruit proteins involved in gene silencing
C.
Methyl-cytosine causes compaction of nucleosomes
D.
A and B
E.
A, B and C
Q. Which of the following statements describes the mechanism of RNA interference by small interfering
RNAs (siRNAs)?
A.
A single RNA sequence directs the silencing machinery to the target, catalyzing cleavage and
degradation
B.
A single RNA sequence directs the silencing machinery to the target, inhibiting translation by the
ribosome
C.
Multiple RNA sequences direct the silencing machinery to the target, catalyzing cleavage and
degradation
D.
Multiple RNA sequences direct the silencing machinery to the target, inhibiting translation by the
ribosome
E.
C and D
Q. What is the genetic cause of tortoise shell coat patterning in cats?
A.
Random X-inactivation
B.
Incomplete dominance
C.
Maternal Imprinting
D.
Inactivation of the paternal X chromosome
Q. What of the following describes the function of EF-Tu in translation:
A.
EF-Tu forms part of the initiation complex allowing binding to the 5’ cap.
B.
EF-Tu binds to the stop codon and releases the polypeptide chain from the ribosome.
C.
EF-Tu binds to charged aa-tRNA molecules and delivers them to the A site of the ribosome.
D.
EF-Tu uses energy from GTP hydrolysis to push the ribosome along mRNA.
Q: Julie is homozygous for a defective allele for the tumor suppressor gene BRCA1. What is Julie's
condition:
A.
Julie has cancer
A.
Julie will develop cancer
A.
Julie has a high probability of developing cancer
A.
Julie has a low probability of developing cancer
Q: Praveena has been diagnosed with breast cancer, which of the following is the cause?
A.
Praveena is a carrier of the defective allele of the BRCA1 tumor suppressor and has a family
history of cancer
A.
Praveena has an activating mutation in the proto-oncogene HER2
A.
Praveena has a deactivating mutation in the BRCA1 tumor suppressor gene
A.
Praveena has a deactivating mutation in the proto-oncogene HER2
Q: ADP-ribosylation (ADPR) of eEF2 by diptheria toxin inhibits its translocation of the ribosome. Given
this information infer the toxicity of this protein:
A.
Harmful to humans
A.
Harmful to bacteria
A.
Harmful to both humans and bacteria
Q: Pulvomycin inhibits protein synthesis by preventing the formation of the complex between EF-Tu and
aa-tRNAs, they therefore block translation at the stage of:
A.
initiation
A.
elongation
A.
termination
Q: Ribosomes translocate along the mRNA strand using the:
A.
GTPase activity of the ribosome to motor along the mRNA
A.
GTPase activity of elongation factor G
A.
GTPase activity of the peptidyl-transferase
Q: Api137, a derivative of the insect-produced antimicrobial peptide apidaecin, arrests terminating
ribosomes using a unique mechanism of action that depletes the cellular pool of free release factors. The
impact of this will be to cause:
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall with a tRNA stuck in the exit site
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall at the Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall at stop codons
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall in the middle of transcripts
Q: Release factors specifically recognize and bind to the stop codon, what type of molecule are they?
A.
DNA
A.
rRNA
A.
tRNA
A.
Protein
Q: The sequence of DNA that codes for amino acids is found in
A.
Exons
A.
Introns
A.
Intragenic regions
A.
A and B
A.
All of the above
Q: Introns disrupt coding sequences, to allow for in-frame reading of the genetic code they are:
A.
Transcribed
A.
Not transcribed
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A.
Added by splicing
A.
Removed by splicing
A.
Skipped by the ribosome
Q: Sea turtle sex is determined by alternative splicing that result in intron retention. How does inclusion
of an intron in a transcript by alternate splicing result in a truncated protein product?
A.
Generating a hairpin structure that causes termination of transcription
A.
Creation of a frame-shift and premature stop codon
A.
Creation of a non-stop mutation
Active genes are found in heterochromatin, which of the following statement is generally true of this type
of chromatin:
A.
Histones are methylated, resulting in loosely packed chromatin
A.
Histones are methylated, resulting in tightly packed chromatin
A.
Histones are acetylated, resulting in loosely packed chromatin
A.
Histones are acetylated, resulting in tightly packed chromatin
A.
Histones are neither acetylated or methylated, forming chromatin fibers
Q: Ras is an example of a proto-oncogene, this means that:
A.
It functions to promote cell division
A.
It functions to restrict cell division
A.
It functions to promote unrestricted cell division
A.
It functions to promote apoptosis
A.
It functions to restrict apoptosis
Q: Retinoblastoma protein is a tumor suppressor gene, this means that
A.
It functions to promote cell division
A.
It functions to restrict cell division
A.
It functions to promote unrestricted cell division
A.
It functions to promote apoptosis
A.
It functions to restrict apoptosis
Q: A mutated version of HER2 is an oncogene, this means that
A.
It functions to promote cell division
A.
It functions to restrict cell division
A.
It functions to promote unrestricted cell division
A.
It functions to promote apoptosis
A.
It functions to restrict apoptosis
Q: In which of the following organisms can introns can be found?
A.
Bacteria
A.
Viruses
A.
Eukaryotes
A.
Archaea
A.
All of the above
Q: The start codon signals to the cellular machinery to begin:
A.
Translation
A.
Transcription
A.
Replication
Q: Which strand of DNA is transcribed?
A.
The coding strand
A.
The template strand
Q:
INK4 proteins bind to cyclin dependent kinase 4 (CDK4), preventing formation of CDK-cyclin
complexes that activate cell cycle progression. INK4 is therefore an example of
A.
A tumor suppressor gene
A.
Proto-oncogene
A.
Oncogene
A.
None of the above
Q: Ribavirin is a nucleoside analog, and potential anti-cancer drug due to its ability to inhibit initiation of
eukaryotic translation. Using your knowledge of the process, infer its mechanism of action:
A.
Prevents binding of eIF4E to m7G
A.
Prevents attachment of the ribosome to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
A.
Prevents binding of Eu-TF to aa-tRNAs
A.
Causes mismatch between base pairs
Q: What is the role of the 5’ cap added to pre-mRNAs during processing? Select all that apply:
A.
To protect the mRNA from degradation
A.
To facilitate translation by ribosomes
A.
To enable alternate splicing
A.
To allow RNA polymerase to attach to the transcript
B.
A and B
Q: Tetracycline antibiotics (e.g. Doxycycline) target both gram positive and gram negative bacteria by
inhibiting initiation of translation. Using your knowledge of the process, infer which of the following is
the mode of action used by tetracycline:
A.
Attaching to the m7G cap preventing binding of the pre-initiation complex
A.
Attaching to the 30S subunit and preventing aa-tRNA binding at the A site
A.
Attaching to the P-site, preventing peptide bond formation
A.
Attaching to the Eu-TF molecule preventing binding of aa-tRNA
A.
Attaching to the polyA tail, preventing binding of the polyadenylation complex
Q: In eukaryotes, which of these steps occurs first in translation:
A.
Binding of the ribosome to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
A.
Binding of the pre-initiation complex to the m7G cap
A.
Binding to the ribosome to the start codon
A.
Binding of eEF2 to a charged tRNA molecule
A.
Scanning of the mRNA sequence to identify the start codon
Q: Scanning of the mRNA sequence by the pre-initiation complex to locate the start codon occurs in:
A.
Prokaryotes
A.
Eukaryotes
A.
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
A.
Neither prokaryotes or eukaryotes
Q: Formation of the peptide bond formation between the A and P sites of the ribosome is catalyzed by
A.
Ribosomal proteins
A.
Ribosomal RNA
A.
Ribosomal DNA
A.
tRNAs
A.
Elongation factors
Q: Ribosomes are made up of RNA and protein, the function of rRNA is to:
A.
Stabilize the ribosome complex
A.
Catalyze peptide bond formation
A.
Provide a physical link between the genetic code and amino acids
A.
Bind to a specific amino acid
A.
Encode for a peptide sequence
Q: Specificity of amino acids for their cognate tRNAs is provided by
A.
The “CCA” site
A.
The anticodon sequence
A.
amino-acyl tRNA synthetase
A.
Specific nucleotides in tRNA structure
A.
The codon sequence
Q. At which location in the ribosome is the growing polypeptide chain immediately before addition of a
new amino acid?
A.
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B.
5’ cap
C.
A site
D.
P site
E.
E site
Q. Api137, a derivative of the insect-produced antimicrobial peptide apidaecin, arrests terminating
ribosomes using a unique mechanism of action that depletes the cellular pool of free release factors. The
impact of this will be to cause:
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall with a tRNA stuck in the exit site
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall at the Shine-Dalgarno Sequence
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall at stop codons
A.
the majority of ribosomes to stall in the middle of transcripts
Q. When cells receive the appropriate signals, cyclin D1 (CCND1) binds to cyclin dependent kinase 4
(CDK4), forming a complex that inactivates cell cycle checkpoints, promoting cell cycle
progression. Cyclin D1 is therefore an example of a:
A.
Proto-oncogene
B.
Tumor suppressor gene
C.
Oncogene
D.
Structural gene
E.
Transcription factor
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Q.
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism by which prokaryotic genes with
related function are co-regulated? (1 point)
A.
Binding of transcription factor to consensus sequences in the core promoter
B.
Binding of a transcription factor to consensus sequences in the regulatory promoter region
C.
DNA looping allowing for interaction of enhancer elements with promoters of all genes in an
pathway
D.
Binding of a repressor to a consensus sequence in the regulatory promoter region
E.
Creation of a single transcript from which related genes are translated
Q. The human genome encodes for ~20,000 genes, however, a much larger number of distinct proteins
can be produced through regulation of pre-mRNA splicing. What type of mechanism could create the
following two spliceforms? The transcripts originate from the same gene and e
ach exon is given its own
color.
(1 point)
A.
Exon skipping
B.
Alternate 5’ donor sites
C.
Alternate 3’ donor sites
D.
Intron retention
E.
Mutually exclusive exons
Q.
Defects in maternal imprinting of the IGF2 gene in humans can lead to
Beckwith-Wiedemann
Syndrome (BWS) and an increased risk of cancer, especially during childhood.
Which of the following
statements best describes the process of maternal imprinting?
(1 point)
A.
The paternal allele is expressed and the maternal allele is silenced
B.
The maternal allele is expressed and the paternal allele is silenced
C.
The maternal allele is expressed and the paternal allele is expressed
D.
The paternal X chromosome is silenced and the maternal X-chromosome is expressed
E.
The maternal X chromosome is silenced and the paternal X-chromosome is expressed
Q. Beronda is in a pediatric ward receiving treatment for pediatric medulloblastoma caused by an
mutation in the HER2 proto-oncogene. Both of her parents are cancer free. She has a fraternal twin Joe.
Apply your knowledge of cancer genetics to determine what Joe’s condition is most likely to be:
A.
Joe will be heterozygous for the HER2 oncogene and have cancer.
A.
Joe will be heterozygous for the HER2 oncogene and be cancer free.
A.
Joe will be homozygous for the HER2 oncogene and have cancer.
A.
Joe will be homozygous for the HER2 proto-oncogene and be cancer free.
Short response practice questions
Q: Describe the mechanism by which the GAL4 transcription factor can regulator >300 genes in yeast [1
point]
Q: Feeding of agouti mice with a diet rich in methyl groups impacted the phenotype of the offspring.
Describe the phenotypic affect [1] and how this occurred [2]. [3 points total]
Q: A researcher generates a strain of
E. coli
in which the CAP binding site is deleted. In this new strain,
what will be the likely impact on expression of lacZYA when the cells are grown in media without lactose
and without glucose [1] and
explain
your reasoning with reference to regulatory proteins interactions [2]?
[3 total]
Q. Fusidic acid binds directly to EF-G and traps it by binding it to the ribosome.
Apply
your knowledge
of translation to explain the most likely impact if you ingest fusidic acid [2 points]? and why [2 points]
with reference to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Q. Describe
the process of Rho independent transcription termination, with reference to the components
involved [2 points] and how these work to end transcription [1 point][3 points]
Q. Describe
the process of Rho dependent transcription termination, with reference to the components
involved [2 points] and how these work to end transcription [1 point][3 points]
Q. Eukaryotic mRNA sequences undergo processing following transcription to add a 5’ 7-
methylguanylate cap via a 5’ to 5’ triphosphate bond. Describe two processes it is important [2 points] and
how it influences those processes [2 points][4 points total]:
Q. The Tobacco etch virus
(
TEV
) belongs to the genus
Potyvirus, and can infect a number of crop species
including
tomato (
Lycopersicon esculentum
), and
tobacco
(
Nicotiana
spp.
)
. TEV has an RNA genome that
acts as a template for transcription. Use your knowledge of small interfering RNAs, to
explain
how the
plant recognizes the presence of TEV genetic material [1], name the process by which siRNAs regulate
gene expression [1], describe how siRNAs are made [1] how they recognize viral RNA [1] and how
siRNAs prevent viral gene expression [1]. (
5 points total
)
Q. A cell contains only 45 tRNA genes.
Explain
why this could be a problem if only Watson-Crick base
pairing applied [1 point]. Name the process that allow the cell to overcome this problem [1 point] and
how this works with reference to the site and base pairing [3 points](
5 points total
).
Q. Cell fate decisions of pluripotent embryonic stem (ES) cells are dictated by activation and repression
of lineage-specific genes. miR-1, a microRNA, promotes formation of muscle cells by regulating Notch
ligand Delta-like 1 which is involved in cell-fate decisions. Using your knowledge of miRNAs, infer how
miR-1 is produced [2], and name and describe the mechanism by which miR-1 regulates expression of
Notch ligand Delta-like 1 [3]. [5 total].
Q. Derive a consensus sequence for the following cis-elements:
GGCCTCCC
GCCCAGCT
GGTCTTCT
GGCCACCT
GGTCTGCC
GCTCAACC
Q. Derive a consensus sequence for the following cis-elements:
CATGTGCTA
CAGGTGCTA
CGCCTGTTA
CGACTGTTA
Q. Derive a consensus sequence for the following cis-elements:
TTGATCCA
TTAATCGA
TTATCCGA
ATGGTCCA
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TTGTCCGA
ATACCCCA
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