Lecture Exam 4 Practice_S22

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Lecture Exam 3 Practice Questions BIOL 150 Fall 2021 Prof Monzo Lecture Exam 3 Structure Lecture Exam 3 will cover Campbell Chapters 12-15 (only 15.3).  15 Multiple Choice (3 pts each – 45 points total)  Short Answer (25 points)  Thought Questions/Drawing (30 points) Unit 3 Learning Outcomes Chapter 12 – Cell Division 1. Name the stages of cell division. 2. Describe the major cellular structures involved in cell division (DNA, microtubules, actin, etc). 3. Describe the cellular events that occur during each phase of the cell cycle. 4. Draw a cell with a specific number of chromosomes through all phases of the cell cycle. Label sister chromatids, centromeres, nuclear envelope, centrosomes, mitotic spindle. 5. Compare and contrast animal, plant, and bacterial cell division. 6. Compare and contrast the processes of mitosis and meiosis. 7. Predict the phase of cell cycle based on DNA amount, DNA replication, and DNA condensation state. 8. Give an example of what the cell cycle checkpoints are assessing. 9. Predict how a specific drug might affect the cell cycle. Chapter 13 – Meiosis 1. Name the stages of meiosis and describe the major cellular events that occur at each stage. 2. Describe what a karyotype is and give examples of what it could be used for. 3. Describe the difference between haploid and diploid cells and autosomes and sex chromosomes. 4. Explain why chromosome number for any given species remains stable over time. 5. Describe the process of crossing over and explain why it is important for genetic variation in sexually reproducing species. 6. Predict and draw the chromosomal content of a given cell type. Chapter 14 - Mendelian Genetics 1. Describe Mendel's experiments in which he first crossed true-breeding parental generation plants to produce F1 offspring. 2. Define allele, genotype, phenotype, recessive gene, dominant gene, 3. Explain Mendel's Law of Segregation and Law of Independent Assortment. 4. Predict the types of gametes an individual can produce. 5. Predict the genotypic and phenotypic ratios offspring using a Punnett Square. 6. Predict how a sex-linked gene is inherited. 7. Explain some more complex patterns of inheritance (incomplete dominance, codominance, polygenic inheritance, and epistasis). Practice Multiple Choice Questions – Note that these are just examples. Other concepts will also be covered on the exam.

1. What is the final result of mitosis in a human? A) nearly genetically identical 2n somatic cells B) genetically different 2n somatic cells C) nearly genetically identical 1n somatic cells D) genetically identical 2n gamete cells 2. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A) A single, replicated chromosome with sister chromatids has two centromeres. B) A single, unreplicated chromosome has two DNA molecules. C) Sister chromatids from a single chromosome are connected at the centromere. D) Homologous chromosomes are connected at the centromere. 3. The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____. A) normal growth and cell function B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated C) the beginning of mitosis D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase 4. In a diploid cell from a specific species has 5 chromosome pairs, how many sister chromatids will be found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis? (Draw it!) A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 40 5. Consider a cell from the species above. What are the diploid and haploid numbers for this species? 6. If there are 40 centromeres in a cell at metaphse of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 80 7. How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? A) The contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile proteins. B) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow. C) The structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells. D) Plant cells divide after metaphase but before anaphase; animal cells divide after anaphase. 8. Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol prevents the mitotic spindle from pulling the sister chromatids apart. Thus, Taxol stops mitosis by interfering with which of the following processes? A) cytokinesis B) anaphase C) telophase D) chromosome condensation

9. The unlettered circle at the top of the figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A to E show various combinations of these chromosomes. A) Which drawing represents prophase of mitosis? B) Which drawing represents one daughter nucleus at the end of telophase of mitosis? 10. Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently? A) They no longer have active nuclei. B) They have entered into G0. C) They only have one set of chromosomes. 11. One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells A) are unable to synthesize DNA. B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle. C) continue to divide regardless if they have the appropriate signals. D) cannot function properly because they can only divide when there is space. 12. The spindle checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________. A) telophase B) anaphase C) G2 D) metaphase 13. In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in A) cells with more than one nucleus. B) cells that are unusually small. C) cells lacking nuclei. D) cell cycles lacking an S phase. 14. Which of the following statements is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2 n = 16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell. B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C) Each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes. D) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.

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15. Which of the following characteristics do homologous chromosomes exhibit? A) They carry information for different traits. B) They carry information for the same traits. C) They carry the same alleles. D) They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II. 16. Which of the following statements describes a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism? A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I. B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis II. C) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I. D) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information. 17. Which of the following events happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. B) The chromosome number per cell remains the same. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed. 18. Refer to the drawings in the figure below of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following question. Which diagram represents anaphase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) IV D) V 19. Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of which of the following processes? A) the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I B) the random combinations of eggs and sperm during fertilization C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II D) the diverse combination of alleles that may be found within any given chromosome 20. Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross ? A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents. B) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two traits that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one trait being studied.

C) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations. D) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio. 21. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape ( H ) and one for tail length ( T ). Its genotype is HhTt . Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? A) Hh B) HhTt C) T D) HT 22. Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I? A) separation of alleles during anaphase I B) crossing over of homologous pairs of chromosomes C) alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I D) the division of cells at telophase 23. What is the probability that the progeny of a cross between two individuals that are AaBbCCDD will have the same genotype as the parents? A) 1/256 B) 1/16 C) 1/4 D) 1 24. Which of the following inheritance patterns describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects? A) incomplete dominance B) multiple alleles C) pleiotropy D) epistasis 25. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele. If two individuals are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will be a carrier for PKU? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/16 D) 3/8 26. Which of the following individuals will inherit an X-linked allele from a male who carries it? A) all of his female children B) half of his female children C) all of his male children D) all of his children Short Answer/Thought Question Examples 1. Imagine a species that has a diploid number 2 n = 10. Draw this cell as you would expect it to appear during anaphase, anaphase I, and anaphase II. Label the centromeres, mitotic spindle, and plasma membrane for the cell.

2. The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Imagine a bulldog ant cell is heterozygous for the A gene (Aa ). Draw the cell during metaphase of mitosis. Label the important structures found in the cell at this phase we discussed in class. Chose a location for the A gene and indicate where you would see the A and a alleles. 3. When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow- seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants , what genotypic ratio was expected? What is the name of this type of cross? 4. Albinism is a recessive trait. Two individuals who both have normal pigmentation have one child out of three who has albinism (without melanin pigmentation). What are the genotypes of this child's parents? 5. In humans, ABO blood types refer to glycoproteins in the membranes of red blood cells. There are three alleles for this autosomal gene: I A , I B , and i . The I A allele codes for the A sugar, The I B allele codes for the B sugar, and the i allele doesn't code for any sugar. I A and I B are codominant, and i is recessive to both I A and I B . If an individual with type AB blood has a child with an individual with type O blood, what blood types could their children possibly have? 6. Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder. Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant trait characterized by a shortened stature. An XX individual is a carrier for Fragile X disorder and is unaffected by achondroplasia. An XY individual is not affected by Fragile X disorder and has achondroplasia. A. What is the XX individual’s genotype? B. What is the XY individual’s genotype? C. If the two individuals where to have children, what are the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their children? Use a Punnett square. D. What is the probability of them having a child with Fragile X and achondroplasia?

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Lecture Exam 4 Practice_S22

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