BIOL 1104 - Practice Tests

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Unit 1 1. Which of the following best summarizes the process of evolution by natural selection? a. Most mutations have harmful effects and therefore increase in frequency over time. b. Mutations that do not affect the fitness of individuals are selected to decrease in frequency over time. c. Natural selection results in mutations that disrupt finely tuned processes. d. Genetic variants that improve the fitness of individuals will tend to increase in frequency over time. The next five question refer to this scenario: Guppies are small colorful fish found in streams in Venezuela. Male guppies are brightly colored, with black, red, blue and iridescent spots. Females guppies prefer brightly colored males, but bright coloration also attract the guppies’ predators. In a stream without predators, the proportion of brightly colored males in a stream is high. If a few aggressive predators are added to the same stream, the proportion of bright-colored males decreases within about five months (3-4 generations). 2. A typical natural population of guppies consists of hundreds of guppies. Which statement correctly describes what can be expected from a typical populations of guppies? a. The guppies share all of the same characteristics and are identical to each other. b. The guppies share all of the essential characteristics of the species; the minor variations they display don’t affect survival. c. The guppies are all identical on the inside but have many differences in appearance. d. The guppies share many essential characteristics, but also vary in many features. 3. Which mode of selection affect the coloration of male guppies a. Directional selection b. Balancing selection c. Disruptive selection d. Stabilizing selection 4. Which feature is the most important in determining which male guppies are the “most fit” in an evolutionary sense? a. large body size and ability to swim quickly away from predators b. excellent ability to compete for food c. high number of offspring that survived to reproductive age d. high number of mating with many different females 5. How does a population of guppies change over time in response to changes in the environment? a. Individual guppy within the population gradually changes over time. b. The proportions of guppies having different traits within a population change. c. Successful behaviors learned by certain guppies are thought to their offspring.

d. Mutations occur to meet the needs of the guppies as the environment changes. 6. The figures below show the distribution of body length in four populations of fish. The scale on the x and y axes are the same on all four graphs. Which population shows the least variation in body length? a. … b. … c. … d. … 7. You are maintaining a small population of fruit flies in the laboratory by transferring the flies to a new culture bottle after each generation. After several generations, you notice that the viability of the flies has decreased greatly. Recognizing that small population size is likely to be linked to decreased viability, the best way to reverse this trend is to a. cross your flies with flies from another lab. b. reduce the number of flies that you transfer at each generation. c. transfer only the largest flies. d. change the temperature at which you rear the flies. e. shock the flies with a brief treatment of heat or cold to make them more hardy. 8. Which of these conditions should completely prevent the occurrence of natural selection in a population over time? a. All the variation among individuals is due the environment. b. The environment is changing at a relatively slow rate. c. The population size is large. d. The population lives in a habitat where there are no competing species present. e. The population is a common source of emigrants for adjacent populations 9. Which of the following best summarizes the process of evolution by natural selection? a. Most mutations have harmful effects and therefore increase in frequency over time. b. Mutations that do not affect the fitness of individuals are selected to decrease in frequency over time. c. Natural selection results in mutations that disrupt finely tuned processes. d. Genetic variants that improve the fitness of individuals will tend to increase in frequency over time. 10. Freshwater turtles build nests on the shore of lakes and rivers. Once a female has laid

her eggs, she returns to the water and leaves the nest unattended. A few months later, the eggs hatch and the hatchling turtles move rapidly to the water. The probability a hatchling turtle will be eaten by a predator before reaching the water increases with the distance between the nest and the water. However, the probability of a flood drowning all the eggs in a nest before they hatch increases as the distance between the nest and the water decreases. Assuming the choice of a nesting site is a heritable trait in female turtles, what kind of selection is acting on this trait? a. diversifying selection b. sexual selection c. stabilizing selection d. frequency dependent selection e. disruptive selection 11. Which of the following statements about natural selection is a misconception? a. Natural selection acts on heritable variations in a population. b. In natural selection, traits that are favored depend on current environmental conditions. c. Natural selection involves differential reproductive success. d. Natural selection occurs when individuals evolve. e. Natural selection may occur as a result of competition among individuals in a population. 12. The adult size of the Atlantic Cod (Gadus morhua) has been declining over the last 100 years. Fisheries scientists hypothesized that selection by fishing led the cods to evolve a smaller adult size. What do scientists need to know to confidently conclude that selection by fishing has indeed caused the evolution of smaller adult size in the Atlantic Cod? Select all that apply a. Adult size is variable among individuals b. Under fishing pressure, smaller individuals have greater fitness than larger ones c. Adult size is at least partly heritable d. Genetic drift is not affecting the population e. The population is at Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium 13. Old field mice come in two coat color: dark and light. Light color mice are more common on pale substrates like beaches and dark color ones are more common in fields with dark soil. In a classic experiment, a researcher tested the success of owls at capturing mice of the two coat colors on three different backgrounds (bare and dark, bare and light, and grassy). The figure below summarizes the percentage of mice of each coat color captured on each background. On which substrate did the light mice experienced positive directional selection? a. A b. B c. C d. A & B e. A & C f. B & C g. A, B & C

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14. The figures below show the results of four selection experiments on cell size in the bacterium E. coli. The scientists measured cell size in a random sample of individuals (each dot) at the beginning of the experiment (gen 1) and after 100 generations under selection (gen 100). The red lines show the average values. In which experiment (which graph) did the scientists perform directional selection on cell size? a. … b. … c. … d. … 15. The Founder Effect… a. occurs when population size increases because the population finds a new environment b. occurs when a large portion of the population dies, leaving few individuals behind to restart the population c. occurs when population size decreases because of a catastrophe d. is a common source of rare genetic diseases in some human populations 16. Which of the following conditions indicates that a population going through an extinction vortex? a. The population is experiencing genetic drift. b. The population is experiencing purifying selection. c. The population size of the species is below 500 individuals. d. Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time. e. The population has a high observed heterozygosity. 17. The figure shows the relationship between island size and the average number of alleles found at several neutral loci in several lizard populations. Each dot represents the average number of alleles per locus for several individuals in one population. Assuming that island size is correlated with population size, which statement is consistent with the data? a. Directional selection is stronger on larger islands b. Populations on smaller islands experience more natural selection. c. Genetic drift is stronger in smaller populations. d. The number of mutations per individual per generation is higher on larger islands e. Large islands are the source of individuals for small islands

18. Population bottlenecks can be cause by? Select all that apply a. Natural disasters b. Habitat disruption c. Disease d. Excess hunting and harvesting 19. The four figures below show the expression of a trait by three genotypes (the three lines) in two environments (A & B). Which graphs show phenotypic plasticity? Select all that apply. a. … b. … c. … d. … 20. An island population of iguanas vary in tail length which is a trait that is genetically determined. Sixty percent of iguanas have long tails and 40% have short tails. One day, four short-tailed, and two long-tailed iguanas float away on a raft of woody debris and reach another island uncolonized by the species. One hundred generations later, the island is populated exclusively by short-tailed iguanas. This is an example of: a. Gene flow b. Balancing selection c. Balancing selection d. The Founder Effect e. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle 21. How could conservation scientists mitigate the effects of inbreeding depression in a population of an endangered species of flying squirrels? a. Create a population bottleneck to change allele frequency within the inbred population b. Introduce individuals from adjacent populations c. Reproductively isolate the non-inbred individuals and have them mate with only each other d. Let natural selection correct this issue itself e. Make sure gene flow from other populations does occur 22. The graph below shows the frequency of the A1 allele in five simulated populations of 100 individuals over 300 generations. The population only has two alleles at that locus. The combination of fitness of the three genotypes were the same between simulations.

For reference, the expected frequency of the A1 allele under the same conditions but in an infinitely large population is shown. Which statements are correct based on these results? Select all that apply? a. Allele fixation occurred in 4 out of 5 simulations b. The frequency of the A1 allele is mainly affected by drift c. Purifying selection is occurring in 3 out of 5 simulations d. Allele A1 has the highest fitness in population 1 e. Allele A1 is deleterious in population 3 and 4 The next 3 questions pertain to this scenario: In a population of lab-bred flies, a locus affecting eye color has 2 alleles. The R allele produces regular colored eye pigment, while the r allele produces red pigment. Heterozygote individuals (Rr) have pink eyes. In a population of 150 flies, 15 flies have red eyes, and 45 have pink eyes. 27. What is the frequency of flies with regular colored eye? 0.6 28. What is the frequency of the r allele? 0.25 29. If the locus was at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what should the frequency of the RR genotype be? 0.56 30. In a population, the locus A has two alleles (A and a). The genotype numbers in a sample from this population are AA: 55 / Aa: 33 / aa: 7. What is the frequency of the A allele in this population? 0.75 31. In a population of 164 individuals, a locus has two alleles: A and a. If 76 individuals have the AA genotype, and the locus is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the aa genotype? 0.1

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32. Imagine a population of flowers. Out of 600 individuals in the population, 13% are red, 45% are pink, and the remaining are white. Red coloration is caused by homozygosity of the R allele at a single locus; white coloration is caused by homozygosity of the W allele at that locus; heterozygotes are pink. What is the expected (under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium) number of pink individuals? 274.8 33. Pea aphids are found in two colors, pink and green. Imagine that these colors are determined by two alleles at a single locus, where green is dominant to pink. Consider a population where there are 328 pink aphids out of a total of 750 aphids. If the color locus is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, how many of the green aphids do you expect to be homozygotes? 86 Unit 2 1. A crater lake formed 200 000 years ago has an unusually high diversity of fish species. The different species are very closely related to one another but extremely diverse morphologically. Which evolutionary phenomenon can explain the pattern in fish diversity in this lake? a. Polyploidy b. Polymorphism c. Frequency dependent selection d. Reinforcement e. Adaptive radiation 2. Imagine two very closely related species of wildflowers growing in sympatry. One species has red flowers while the other species has orange flowers. In the lab, viable and fertile offspring can be produced by crossing the two species, but the flower color of the hybrids is always different from either of the parental species. Despite that these two species can successfully hybridize, hybrids are extremely rare in nature. Observations of pollinator behavior show that the red flower species is predominantly pollinated by bumblebees while the orange flowers species is mainly pollinated by butterflies. Hybrid flowers tend to attract fewer bumblebees than red flowers, fewer butterflies than orange flowers and fewer pollinators than either parental species overall. What should be expected to happen over time? a. Reinforcement b. Fusion of the hybrid zone c. Post-zygotic isolation d. Stability of the hybrid e. Hybrid breakdown 3. The origin of a new plant species by hybridization, coupled with accidents during nuclear division, is an example of a. hybrid breakdown b. sympatric speciation

c. autopolyploidy d. habitat selection e. reinforcement 4. Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements to attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent? a. habitat isolation b. temporal isolation c. behavioural isolation d. gametic isolation e. postzygotic barriers 5. While studying a widespread species of plant in the Rocky Mountains, researchers observed that their focal species may actually be three separate species adapted to different altitudes. The low elevation (LE) plants are clearly distinct from the high elevation (HE) ones, but the middle elevation (ME) plants have characteristics of both. After taking seeds from all three populations back to their greenhouse for a reproductive study, the researchers discovered that ME plants could not successfully pollinate HE plants, but ME did produce sterile seeds with the LE plants. Which statement best describes the reproductive isolating mechanisms between these populations? a. ME and HE are isolated through postzygotic mechanisms, while ME and LE are isolated through prezygotic mechanisms. b. ME and HE are isolated through prezygotic mechanisms, while ME and LE are isolated through postzygotic mechanisms. c. All three populations appear to be isolated through postzygotic mechanisms. d. All three populations appear to be isolated through prezygotic mechanisms. 6. Habitat isolation is… a. a prezygotic barrier b. when different species interact despite living in different places c. when one species is split into two because of a change in behaviour d. a postzygotic barrier e. a synonym of allopatric speciation 7. Homologous traits are found in two or more species because a. some evolutionary process (usually natural selection) has independently fashioned similar traits in each species. b. those traits have been inherited from a common ancestor. c. hybridization between the species passes the trait on to both. d. evolution by natural selection requires heritable variation. 8. Most insects have two pairs of wings. Beetles are an exception and possess only one pair of functional flying wings: the hind wings (see figure below). During embryonic development the front wings of beetles developed into hard structures called elytra that protect their body. We know from the fossil record that the most recent ancestor of all winged insects living today,

including beetles, had two pairs of wings. Based on this information, we can say that the elytra of beetles and the front wings of other insects such as butterflies are a. convergent structures. b. analogous structures. c. vestigial structures. d. recessive structures. e. homologous structures. 9. The scales of non-avian reptiles, the feathers of birds, and the hair of mammals all develop from the epidermis and are composed of the same protein (keratin). Knowing that the most recent common ancestor of these animals was a scale bearer, scales, feathers and hairs can be considered a. homologous b. paralogous c. analogous d. orthologous e. heterologous 10. According to this phylogeny, which statement is true? a. Reptiles share a more recent common ancestor with mammals than with amphibians b. Reptiles share no common ancestor with cartilaginous fish c. Bony fish share a more recent common ancestor with birds than with mammals d. Cartilaginous fish share no common ancestor with birds 11. Which of the following would be the sister clade of the clade formed by G & H? a. A/B/C b. F c. D d. D/E/F e. E/F 12. Which taxon is most closely related to the butterfly? a. Fly b. Mantis c. Dragonfly

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d. Beetle e. Ant 13. In the tree below, if taxa D and E were grouped together under the name DE-osaurs, the DE-osaurs would be considered a a. paraphyletic group b. pseudophyletic group c. polyphyletic group d. monophyletic group e. polytomic group 14. In this tree, which group does not form a clade? a. Rabbit, mouse, and rat b. Monkey, and gorilla c. Dog, and Tasmanian Wolf d. Rabbit, mouse, rat, gorilla, and monkey 15. Consider the tree below. If new evidence indicate that species E is the sister taxon of a clade formed by species D and F, how would this change the phylogeny? B 16. Based on the phylogenetic tree, which of the following is most closely related to mammals? a. Turtles b. Amphibians c. Lampreys d. Lobe-finned fish

17. Based on the figure, which of the following statements is true? a. Fish are not a monophyletic group. b. Amphibians are not a monophyletic group. c. Tetrapod vertebrates are not a monophyletic group. d. Lampreys are not a monophyletic group. 18. Pachyderms is a name given to a group that includes elephants, rhinoceroses, and hippopotamuses. According to the molecular phylogeny below, Pachyderms form what kind of group? a. monophyletic b. paraphyletic c. polyphyletic d. sympatric 19. The tree below shows the relationship among several species of shrimps of the genus Synalpheus based on a combination of molecular sequences and morphological data. The type of social behaviour of each species is mapped on the tree (eusocial means truly social). Based on this tree, highly eusocial behaviour in S. regalis, S. paraneptunus small, and S. chacei is a. Analogous b. Homologous c. Paralogous d. Orthologous

20. Which definition best describes protists as a group? a. Unicellular eukaryote. b. Photosynthetic and multicellular organism that is not a plant. c. Unicellular organism that is more closely related to animals than to plants or fungi. d. Unicellular eukaryote organism that is not a bacterium or an archaea e. Eukaryote organism that is not a fungus, a plant or an animal 21. Which statement about endosymbiosis is incorrect? a. Endosymbiotic theory argues that plastids and the mitochondrion evolved from free living prokaryotes b. Endosymbiosis only occurs in unicellular protists c. Mitochondrion most likely evolved before plastids d. Many protists appear to have endosymbiotic origins 22. The figure below shows a tree of the Great Apes based on molecular sequences. The numbers at the top shows the number of substitutions between species. According to this data, when did chimps diverged from Gorillas? a. 6.9 mya b. 8.7 mya c. 5.2 mya d. 7.9 mya 23. Most fish have an organ called a swim bladder which they use to control their buoyancy. The lungs of land vertebrates are homologous to the swim bladder of fish indicating that lungs evolved from this organ. The evolution of lungs is thus an example of a. convergent evolution b. vestigial structure c. transitional evolution d. missing link e. exaptation 24. Which of the following structure is a gametophyte? a. A seed b. A fruit c. A pollen grain d. A spore e. The body of a fern 25. What is a key difference between spores and seeds?

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a. Spores are haploid reproductive structures; seeds are multicellular embryos. b. Spores are multicellular reproductive structures; seeds are unicellular embryos. c. Spores have stored nutrients; seeds do not. d. Spores disperse far distances; seeds are larger and disperse shorter distances. e. Spores are adapted to mild climates; seeds can withstand dry and cold conditions. 26. Which of the following is true of seedless vascular plants? a. They are more closely related to mosses than to angiosperms b. They formed the first forests on land c. They produce spores which are homologous to seeds. d. The gametophyte is the dominant generation. e. Most species are conifers. 27. Which of the following taxon includes all the other taxa in the list? a. Deuterostomia b. Chordata c. Gnathostomata (jawed vertebrates) d. Bilateralia (Bilateral animals) e. Protostomia 28. In protostomes, what happens with the blastopore during development? a. It becomes the mouth b. It becomes the nerve cord c. It becomes the post anal tail d. It becomes the anus e. It becomes the blastula 29. Which sequence correctly orders the evolution of traits from the oldest to the most recent? a. jaw > tetrapod limbs > notochord > amniotic egg > placenta b. notochord > jaw > tetrapod limbs > amniotic egg > placenta c. notochord > tetrapod limbs > jaw > placenta > amniotic egg d. jaw > notochord > tetrapod limbs > amniotic egg > placenta e. notochord > amniotic egg > placenta > jaw > tetrapod limbs 30. Based on the notion of shared derived characters, which trait could be indicated by the letter B? a. Cleavage b. Pharyngeal slits c. Limbs with digits d. Notochord e. An anus derived from the blastopore

Unit 3 1. You are contracted by the National Capital Commission to estimate the size of the population of painted turtles in Mud Lake in Ottawa. Using nets and other capture techniques, you capture, mark, and release 27 painted turtles. You return to Mud Lake two weeks later and use the same techniques to sample more turtles. This time, you capture 18 turtles, 9 of which are marked. What is the estimated size of the population of painted turtles in Mud Lake? 54 Apply the Lincoln Peterson Index 2. Which of the following situations would cause you to underestimate the size of the population of painted turtles in Mud Lake? a. You marked turtles with small dot of paint on their carapace, but some turtles shed and lost their marking between your samplings. b. You baited your traps with sardines and after being caught once, a turtle is more likely to enter a trap because it provides an easy meal. c. The water temperature was 4°C colder on first day of sampling than on your second day of sampling. d. Between your samplings, a flood connected Mud Lake to the Ottawa River and some (regardless of whether they were mark or not) turtles left Mud Lake. e. Between your sampling, a poacher captured turtles (regardless of whether they were mark or not) from Mud Lake to sell on facebook marketplace (which is illegal by the way). 3. Which of the following is most likely to affect the carrying capacity of a population of herbivores? a. Primary productivity b. The density of predators c. The size of the population d. Intraspecific competition e. Diseases 4. In the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection, Darwin stated that, in every population, more offspring are produced than the environment can possibly support. Which ecological concept covered in this course is consistent with this argument? a. eutrophication b. net primary productivity c. keystone species d. density independent population regulation e. Carrying capacity 5. Ten rats are introduced to an island. In the first year, 16 pups are born, and 4 rats died. If the birth and death rates remain constant, how many rats will be present on the island 8 years after their introduction? 5488

At time 0 we have 10 rats. After one year we have (10 – 4) + 16 = 22 rats Lambda for a year is thus 22/10 = 2.2 Using eq 7, population size after 8 years = 2.28 * 10 = 5488 6. In the 60’s Robert Paine performed a classic ecology experiment. He removed all of the sea stars (Pisaster sp.), which are predators of mussels, from some areas of the intertidal zone in California but not others. He then counted the total number of intertidal species present in each treatment over the following 10 years. He obtained the following results: Based on this result, Pisaster can be described as a. a keystone species b. a fundamental niche species c. a carrying capacity species d. a super predator e. an invasive species 8. Resource partitioning is most likely to occur between a. sympatric populations of a predator species and its main prey species. b. sympatric populations of two species with similar ecological niches. c. allopatric populations of the same insectivorous bird species. d. allopatric populations of salamanders with similar diets. 9. In salt marshes on the eastern coast of North America, crabs and terrapins feed on snails which themselves feed on seagrasses. An experiment found that excluding crabs and terrapins from areas of salt marsh resulted in the near complete loss of seagrasses. If crabs and terrapins continue to decline due to overfishing and bycatches, what can be expected to happen in salt marshes? a. A trophic cascade b. An increase in the species richness of snails c. Competitive exclusion of the crabs and terrapins d. An increase in the fundamental niche of snails e. All of the above 10. Species diversity… a. is the same as species richness b. refers to the genetic diversity within a species c. takes into account species relative abundance d. is typically measured by population ecologists 11. In Yellowstone National Park, wolves are considered a keystone predator. Their main prey are Elks which graze on plants including riparian trees and shrubs such as willows

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and cottonwood. These trees and shrubs are essential habitats for many species such as beavers, shorebirds, and other riparian plants. What would be expected to happen if wolves were extirpated from the Park? a. A trophic cascade b. An increase in the carrying capacity of the environment for elks c. An invasive meltdowm d. Competitive exclusion e. Resource partitioning 12. Which conditions promote the occurrence of Lyme disease? Select all that apply. a. Masting by oaks b. High relative abundance of white footed mice in urban and suburban environments c. Increased abundance of coyotes d. Decreased abundance of foxes 13. Gross primary production a. is equal to NPP — respiration of autotrophs. b.is about half of NPP. c. is the total biomass of all photosynthetic autotrophs. d. is the total energy from light converted to chemical energy of organic molecules per unit time. e. is not as important as net primary production. 14. Carbon reaches the atmosphere from many sources. Which of the following carbon fluxes is contributing the most to the steady increase in atmospheric CO2? a. Ocean and land fluxes b. Fossil fuels c. Land use d. Volcanism e. Freshwater outgasing 15. An aquatic biologist studying multiple waterways in the Niagara region of Ontario has noticed that habitats closet to the farms and wineries in the region have seen a decrease in water clarity and oxygen concentration along with what appears to be a decline in fish populations. It was also noted that large algal blooms have been occurring in habitats that experience the most run offs from surrounding farms. What is likely occurring in these ecosystems? a. Eutrophication b. Heavy metal contamination c. Nitrogen saturation d. Acid precipitation e. Climate change

16. Primary productivity in lakes and river is primarily limited by a. nitrogen b. silica c. phosphorous d. light e. carbon 17. In the diagram below, which letter represents the process of fixation? B 18. A biologist studying a grassland ecosystem observes that species richness and the plant productivity has declined in recent years. After investigating the activity in the surrounding area, the biologist sees that farmers have been using larger amounts of fertilizer than usual. What is likely going on in this system? a. Eutrophication b. Heavy metal contamination c. Nitrogen saturation d. Nitrogen fixation e. Climate change 19. Which of the following statements are true about limiting nutrients in an ecosystem? a. Phosphorus is the most common limiting nutrient in lakes and rivers b. Nitrogen often limits primary productivity in coastal waters c. The industrial fixation of phosphorous has dramatically increased terrestrial primary productivity d. Iron limits terrestrial primary productivity 20. Phosphorus is still largely used for agriculture to increase crop productivity, most of which ends up elsewhere after it is applied to crops. Where does most phosphorus end up? a. Humans b. Untreated sewage c. Inland and coastal others d. Rocks

BIOL 1104 - Practice Tests

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