midterm-2-deferred-bio-1140-2022

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Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Midterm 2 deferred - Bio 1140 2022 Introduction to Cell Biology (University of Ottawa) Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Midterm 2 deferred - Bio 1140 2022 Introduction to Cell Biology (University of Ottawa) Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
Deferred Midterm 2 (22pts = 15% of final grade) 10 MCQ (11 pts) and 5 SA (11 pts) Multiple choice questions: 1. A protein activates another protein by adding phosphate group using an ATP molecule. This protein is: A. An adenylyl cyclase B. A phosphodiesterase C. A phosphorylase D. A kinase E. A phosphatase Answer: D Explanation: The adenylyl cyclase does not add any phosphate group but instead converts ATP into cAMP. A phosphodiesterase converts cAMP into AMP. A phosphorylase activates a protein by adding an inorganic phosphate (not an ATP molecule, unlike kinases). A phosphatase removes a phosphate group from a molecule. 2. What is RTK dimerization? A. The activation of the RTK receptor by the hydrolysis of 2 ADP molecules B. The separation of an RTK receptor into 2 active monomers C. The activation of a downstream G protein by the RTK receptor D. The joining of two RTK monomers to form an RTK dimer, activating their tyrosine kinase regions E. The phosphorylation by the RTK receptor of 2 ADP molecules simultaneously Answer: D Explanation: RTK receptors are activated by the joining of two monomers, following their binding to one ligand molecule each. 6 ATP molecules are hydrolyzed to fully activate the RTK receptor dimer. RTK receptors do not bind to G protein directly. 3. Match question: Classify the following processes into either activation processes or deactivation processes (0.5 mark for each correct match; total mark 2 marks). Processes Activation or Deactivation The phosphorylation of tyrosine on an RTK receptor Activation The opening of an ion channel by addition of a phosphate group Activation The dephosphorylation of a protein by a phosphatase Deactivation A G protein hydrolyzing the GTP it is bound to Deactivation Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
4. Which of the following corresponds to the lowest level of organisation of the genetic material? A. A replicated chromosome B. A nucleosome C. A chromatid D. A scaffolded chromatin E. A set of 46 chromosomes Answer: B Explanation: The levels of organisation are as follow (from lowest to highest): 1. Nucleosome 2. Scaffolded chromatin 3. Chromatid 4. Replicated chromosome 5. Set of 46 chromosomes 5. Consider meiotic division. In which phase can homologous chromosomes separate into different combinations? A. Metaphase II B. Interphase C. Anaphase II D. Anaphase I E. Prophase Answer: D Explanation: Inter‐chromosomal recombination occurs during anaphase I, in which homologous chromosomes are split equally between the two poles of the cell. This gives different possible combinations (assortments) of homologous chromosomes to form a complete set. 6. A cell has a very low cytosolic concentration of glucose. Which checkpoint will ensure that the cell cycle is stopped until the glucose concentration is high enough? A. The G 0 checkpoint B. The G 1 checkpoint C. The G 2 checkpoint D. The M checkpoint E. The interphase checkpoint Answer: B Explanation: The G 1 checkpoint ensures that there is enough resource for the cell to proceed with the rest of the cell cycle. This includes glucose, used to produce ATP (necessary to provide energy for cell division). Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
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7. Which of the following does not occur during apoptosis? A. The activation of proteases B. The activation of nucleases C. The release of the cellular content into the extracellular environment D. The removal of cells that are not needed in a particular organ E. Phagocytosis by macrophages Answer: C Explanation: The release of the cellular content into the extracellular environment occurs only during necrosis (uncontrolled cell death). All of the other processes do occur during apoptosis to ensure that proteins and nucleic acids are digested into smaller molecules before they are packaged into vesicles. This can occur when cells that are not needed are phagocytosed by macrophages. 8. Which of the following proteins are cleaved by separase proteins during the anaphase of mitosis? A. Cohesins that hold sister chromatids together B. Motor proteins that bind to the kinetochore C. Short aster microtubules that radiate from the centrosomes D. Nucleases that digest nucleic acids E. DNA polymerases that synthesize DNA Answer: A Explanation: During the anaphase of mitosis, cohesins are proteins that hold sister chromatids together by their centromeres. They are cleaved by separase proteins to allow the two sister chromatids to separate. 9. A cell has the following characteristics: It has 23 chromosomes All its chromosomes are linear Its chromosome 2 derives from the fusion between two ancestral chromosomes It possesses an organelle with its own circular genome This cell is most likely… A. A plant cell B. A bacteria C. A human gamete D. A diploid fungus E. A chimpanzee cell Answer: C Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
Explanation: With 23 chromosomes, the cell is likely the gamete of a eukaryotic organism: odd number of chromosomes (assuming no chromosomal instability, which are rare) are possible after meiosis. Eukaryotic organisms have linear chromosomes. Humans (diploids) have 2 sets 23 chromosomes. Finally, chromosome 2 in human derives from the fusion between two ancestral chromosomes (which are not fused in chimpanzee). 10. In the adrenaline (epinephrine) signaling pathway, protein kinase A is... A. The extracellular ligand B. Part of the cellular response C. A membrane receptor D. An intracellular receptor E. Part of the signal transduction Answer: E Explanation: Protein kinase A is part of the signal transduction part of the signaling pathway. It is a relay protein that activates other proteins inside the cytoplasm. It is not a receptor (or a ligand) and intervenes before the cellular response (glycogenolysis). Short answer questions: 1. Explain the role of the cell cycle control system. Provide two explanations. The first two explanations will be marked. ( 2 marks ) Answer: Two of the following, each worth 1 mark, maximum 2 marks : The cell cycle control system ensures/controls that the cell is ready to proceed with the rest of the cell cycle. The cell cycle control system uses both internal (cellular) and external (extracellular) signals to stop the cell cycle if the stages are not complete. The cell cycle control system uses checkpoints to control that the cell is ready to proceed with the rest of the cell cycle. If the concentration of a maturation factor (MPF) (accepted: cdk‐cyclin complex or just cyclin) increases, it can trigger the passage through the specific checkpoint it corresponds to. One example is given: G 1 checkpoint (e.g. enough organelles, growth factor activation, enough ATP, enough resource), G 2 /S checkpoint (e.g. no DNA damage, large cell volume, completely replicated genome), M checkpoint (proper assembly/alignment/attachment of chromosomes on the mitotic spindle). Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
2. A bacteria parental cell containing the following sequence has divided into two daughter cells. Briefly explain what happened in the parental cell. Name one mechanism that has failed and briefly explain its consequence. ( 2 marks ) Answer: A base pair mismatch has occurred during replication ( 0.5 mark ), with a T being replaced by a C ( 0.5 mark ). The mismatch/DNA repair mechanism/proofreading/nucleotide excision/nuclease activity has failed ( 0.5 mark ) and this led to a permanent mutation in daughter cell 2 (since bacteria are unicellular organisms) ( 0.5 mark ). 3. Thermophilic bacteria have a genome with high GC content (i.e. high percentage of guanine and cytosine) Explain the effect of high GC content on the DNA molecule and what consequence this has on these bacteria. ( 2 marks ) Answer: Effect: in double stranded DNA molecules, guanine and cytosine are paired with 3 hydrogen bonds (Concept 1 ‐ 1 mark ). Consequence: More hydrogen bonds makes the genome of thermophilic bacteria (that live in high temperature) more stable (at high temperature) (accepted: the two strands do not separate or are not denatured as much at high temperature) (Concept 2 ‐ 1 mark ). Mentioning that the genome of bacteria that live at high temperature is more adapted to those conditions without mentioning the idea of stability is worth 0.5 mark. 4. Name a DNA dependent‐RNA polymerase that intervenes in replication. What would happen if such polymerase was not functional? ( 2 marks ) Answer: The primase is a DNA dependent‐RNA polymerase that intervenes in replication (Concept 1 ‐ 1 mark ). If the primase was not functional, primers would not be placed on either the leading or lagging strand, which would result in the inability of the DNA polymerase III to synthesize either strand. (Concept 2 ‐ 1 mark ). Mentioning that replication would not occur, without referring to a specific mechanism is worth 0.5 mark. Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034
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5. Consider the original sequence: 5’‐CGCATTAGCT‐3’ a) What is its reverse sequence? ( 1 mark ) b) What is its complement sequence? ( 1 mark ) c) What is its reverse complement sequence? ( 1 mark ) You have to write these sequences from the 5’ end to the 3’ end and indicate those ends as shown in the original sequence in order to get the full mark. Answer: a) Reverse sequence: 5’‐TCGATTACGC‐3’ ( 1 mark ). b) Complement sequence: 5’‐GCGTAATCGA‐3’ ( 1 mark ). c) Reverse complement sequence: 5’‐AGCTAATGCG‐3’ ( 1 mark ). Half mark if the orientation 5’ and 3’ are missing. Half mark if the order is correct but the orientation is reversed. No penalty if it is in RNA. Downloaded by Zackary Mulligan (zackmulligan99@gmail.com) lOMoARcPSD|28339034