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1 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What percentage of the surface of the earth is covered by seawater? a. 46% b. 55% c. 64% d. 71% e. 83% ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 1
2. Oceans are important in all but the following ways: a. solar-powered engines that drive weather patterns. b. provide a substantial amount of the world's food supply. c. marine organisms are important for scientific research. d. a direct source of fresh water for arid lands. e. a source of industrial and medicinal materials. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 1-2
3. Oceanography is the study of: a. the living organisms that inhabit the sea. b. the oceans and their phenomena. c. the oceans and living organisms. d. the chemical makeup of the oceans. e. the interactions of marine organisms with their environment. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 2
4. Marine biology is the study of: a. the living organisms that inhabit the sea. b. the oceans and their phenomena. c. the oceans and living organisms. d. the chemical makeup of the oceans. e. biogeochemical processes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 2
5. The most complete scientific picture of the oceans comes from: a. thorough oceanographic studies. b. thorough marine biology studies. c. combining oceanography and marine biology information. d. having ocean usage policies. e. the popular media. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 3
2 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 6. Knowledge of the ocean can come from all except: a. robotics. b. ocean law. c. deep submersibles. d. SCUBA studies. e. computers and new technologies. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 3
7. The earliest recorded direct studies of marine biology are attributed to: a. the Greeks. b. the Catholic Church. c. Arabian philosophers. d. Micronesian mariners. e. the Chinese. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 3
8. The following marine biologist was aboard the HMS Beagle
in 1831: a. Edward Forbes. b. Charles Wyville Thomson. c. Alexander Agassiz. d. Charles Darwin. e. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 4
9. Charles Darwin's observations while aboard the HMS Beagle
led eventually to the: a. idea that life started on land. b. theory that life's origin was in fresh water. c. theory for the process that causes evolution. d. re-birth of marine biology. e. idea that life could not survive in the deep sea. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 4
10. Charles Darwin proposed the theory of evolution based on data he collected during: a. the Beagle
expedition. b. the Challenger expedition. c. the observations of Agassiz. d. Alvin's dives. e. his time spent on the rocky coastline of England. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 4
11. Darwin produced a well respected monograph on: a. mussels. b. sea lizards. c. Galapagos turtles. d. barnacles. e. marine fossils. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 5
3 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 12. To Edward Forbes is attributed the idea that: a. life could not survive in the deep ocean. b. life occurs throughout the ocean depths. c. continents drift upon the earth's mantle. d. the mid-Atlantic rift ridge is a result of continental drift. e. “dead zones” occur in oxygen
-depleted coastal waters. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 5
13. That the deep sea could not support life was proven wrong when: a. Alvin was able to explore the ocean depths. b. the observations from the Challenger
expedition were reported. c. organisms were discovered while repairing the transatlantic telegraph cable. d. the development and use of robotic submersibles began. e. living organisms were found in the Gulf of Mexico dead zone. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 5
14. Modern oceanography and marine biology were attributed to: a. the voyage of the Beagle
. b. the discoveries of Alvin
. c. the laying of the transatlantic telegraph cable. d. expeditions of Alexander Agassiz. e. the Challenger
expedition. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 5
15. The chief scientist on the HMS Challenger
expedition was: a. Charles Darwin. b. Victor Hensen. c. Alexander Aggasiz. d. Charles Wyville Thomas. e. Edward Forbes. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 6
16. The preeminent American naturalist of the late 1800s was a. Charles Darwin. b. Charles Wyville Thomson. c. Victor Hensen. d. Alexander Agassiz. e. Edward Forbes. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 6
17. To Alexander Agassiz are attributed the following theories except: a. colors of organisms were related to the absorption of different wavelengths of light at different depths. b. that the Caribbean and Pacific Oceans were once connected. c. that atolls form atop sinking mountains. d. none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 6
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7
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4 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 18. The phrase "Study nature, not books" is attributed to: a. Louis Agassiz. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Charles Darwin. d. Charles Wyville Thomson. e. Aristotle. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
19. The first marine biology laboratory was: a. the Scripps Institute of Oceanography. b. the Marine Biological Laboratory at Woods Hole. c. the Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Research. d. the Friday Harbor Laboratories. e. the Duke University Marine Laboratory. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
20. The first United States Marine Biological Laboratory was started by: a. Charles Wyville Thomson. b. Sir Alistair Hardy. c. Charles Darwin. d. Louis Agassiz. e. Alexander Agassiz. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
21. Which United States marine science center is not on the Pacific Coast? a. Scripps Institute of Oceanography. b. Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Science. c. Duke University Marine Laboratory. d. Harbor Branch Oceanographic Institute. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
22. Important United States marine laboratories on the Atlantic Coast include all except: a. Woods Hole Marine Biology Laboratory. b. Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Science. c. Duke University Marine Laboratory. d. Friday Harbor Laboratory. e. Harbor Branch Oceanographic Institute. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 7
23. The classic book The Open Sea: Its Natural History
was written by: a. Fridtjof Nanson. b. Sir Alistair Hardy. c. Alexander Agassiz. d. Charles Wyville Thomson. e. Jacques-Yves Cousteau. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
5 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 24. An early marine biology expedition to the North Pole was led by: a. Sir Alistair Hardy. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Fridtjof Nanson. d. Charles Wyville Thomson. e. Robert Peary. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
25. An early marine biology expedition to study Antarctic whales was led by: a. Sir Alistair Hardy. b. Alexander Agassiz. c. Fridtjof Nanson. d. Charles Wyville Thomson. e. Louis Agassiz. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 7
26. El Niño/Southern Oscillation refers to changes in weather patterns in the: a. Pacific Ocean. b. Atlantic Ocean. c. Indian Ocean. d. Southern Ocean. e. Antarctic Ocean. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 1
27. The scientific method can be best described as: a. implementing an experiment. b. inductive and deductive reasoning. c. collecting data from the laboratory. d. an orderly set of procedures for learning about and interpreting the world. e. a rigid set of procedures that cannot be deviated from. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 9
28. A marine biologist observes that Mako sharks, flying fish, and salmon leap out of the water. An example of induction from these observations is: a. only some fishes can leap out of the water. b. all fishes leap out of the water. c. fishes leap out of the water to escape from predators. d. leaping out of water is often used in feeding. e. these fish must be closely related. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 8
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9
29. The first step in the scientific process is: a. setting up a laboratory. b. conducting experiments. c. making observations. d. inducing a testable hypothesis. e. using deductive reasoning. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 9
6 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 30. For a scientific theory to enjoy broad acceptance by the scientific community it must: a. be based on numerous observations. b. have one or more hypotheses that have been tested and accepted. c. be supported by an important scientist. d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 10
31. A scientific investigation follows an orderly progression of steps-select the correct path. a. Test hypothesis, collect and interpret data, determine conclusions. b. Make observations, formulate hypothesis, test hypothesis. c. Make observations, formulate hypothesis, test hypothesis, collect and interpret data, draw conclusion. d. Consult literature, test hypothesis, collect data, interpret data, draw conclusion. e. Make observations, consult literature, interpret data, formulate and test hypothesis. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 9
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10
32. The thinking process of proposing a general explanation from individual observations is called: a. scientific method. b. deductive reasoning. c. logical reasoning. d. inductive reasoning. e. logical-positivist reasoning. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 8
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9
33. The thinking process of drawing specific statements from a general principle or idea is called: a. scientific method. b. deductive reasoning. c. inductive reasoning. d. logical reasoning. e. logical-positivist reasoning. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 9
34. The orderly pattern of gathering and analyzing information to understand how the natural world works is called: a. scientific method. b. logical reasoning. c. deductive reasoning. d. inductive reasoning. e. theory formation. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 9
35. J. H. Connell proposed that competition occurred between barnacle species; he based that on: a. the observed distribution of the species and environmental measurements. b. laboratory test he had concluded. c. a conversation with other scientists. d. the observation that they were in the rocky intertidal. e. laboratory observations of their fighting behavior. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 9
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7 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 36. Ivan Valiela's hypothesis that the growth of salt marsh grass is limited by nitrogen availability was: a. disproved by the growth of larger and taller grass in his control (nitrogen-fertilized) plots. b. disproved by the growth of larger and taller grass in his experimental (nitrogen-fertilized) plots. c. supported by the growth of larger and taller grass in his experimental (nitrogen-fertilized) plots. d. supported by the growth of larger and taller grass in his control (nitrogen-fertilized) plots. e. unsupported by a poor experimental design. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 10
37. Which of these hypotheses cannot be tested by an experiment? a. Biological interactions between barnacle species are responsible for their distribution patterns. b. Night-feeding fishes rely on their sense of smell to locate prey. c. The growth of salt marsh grass is limited by nitrogen availability. d. Certain humpback whale behaviors are important for attracting a mate. e. Goldfish prefer to eat brightly-colored foods. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 10
TRUE/FALSE
38. The oceans cover less than half of the earth's surface.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 1
39. Ocean productivity is the amount of food produced by marine organisms and the number of organisms this food supports.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 1-2
40. Marine organisms are excellent models for studying basic biology principals.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 2
41. Aristotle developed one of the first taxonomical classification schemes.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 3
42. Among other discoveries, Lamarck was the first to explain the phenomenon of atolls.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 4
43. Today it is generally believed that animals cannot live below the lit regions of the ocean.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 5
44. Fridtjof Nansen contributed greatly to our knowledge of the Arctic regions.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 7
8 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology MATCHING
Match the exploration with the person it is most closely associated with. a. Voyage of the Beagle b. American-led marine biology expeditions c. Challenger
expedition d. expedition to the North Pole 45. Charles Darwin
46. Charles Wyville Thomson
47. Alexander Agassiz
48. Fridtjof Nansen
45. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 5
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7
46. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 5-7
47. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 5-7
48. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 5-7
Match the marine biology institute with the state where it located. a. Scripps Institute of Oceanography b. Friday Harbor Laboratories c. Marine Biological Laboratory at Woods Hole d. Rosenstiel School of Marine and Atmospheric Science 49. Massachusetts
50. California
51. Washington
52. Florida
49. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 7
50. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 7
51. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 7
52. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 7
Match the description with the corresponding term. a. an orderly pattern of gathering and analyzing information b. proposing general explanations from a few observations c. proposing specific explanations from a general principle 53. Inductive reasoning
54. Deductive reasoning
55. Scientific method
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 8
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10
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 8-10
55. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 8-10
9 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology Match the description with the most closely associated term. a. Two species are in competition b. Species interaction causes observed distribution patterns c. Two types of organism are physically separated 56. Observation
57. Inductive reasoning
58. Deductive reasoning
56. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 8
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9
57. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 8
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9
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 9
Match the description with its most closely associated experimental component. a. a trial without the experimental variable b. variable being altered c. a trial that contains the experimental variable 59. Experimental variable
60. Experimental set
61. Control set
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 9
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 9
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 9
Match the description with its most closely associated term. a. using observation to test hypothesis b. non-observable or testable hypothesis. c. using controlled experiments to test hypothesis d. an explanation for a particular observed event e. an explanation for a body of observations over time 62. Experimental science
63. Observational science
64. Not science
65. Theory
66. Hypothesis
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 9-10
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 9-10
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 9-10
65. ANS: E PTS: 1 REF: 9-10
66. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 9-10
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10 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology ESSAY
67. Describe at least three direct and indirect ways in which the oceans influence the lives of humans.
ANS: The oceans influence and give rise to the earth's weather patterns; change the shape of coastlines; provide humans with food, medicines, and recreation; and are an important field of study within the basic sciences.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 1-2
68. Define the following terms: •
Oceanography •
Marine Biology •
Ocean Productivity •
Plankton ANS: Oceanography is the study of the oceans and their phenomena. Marine biology is the study of living marine organisms and their interactions with other marine organisms and the physical environment. Ocean productivity is the amount of food marine organisms can produce and the number and the number of organisms the oceans can support. Plankton are organisms that float in the ocean, form the base of the oceanic food web, and are not capable of substantial horizontal movement.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 1-2 | 6
69. State at least two factors which contributed to increased exploration of the oceans in the 18
th
and 19
th
centuries?
ANS: The development of better sailing ships, navigational instruments, and charts.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 4
70. Describe the first obtained evidence for the existence of life in the deeper reaches of the ocean.
ANS: The recovery of transatlantic telegraph cables from the seafloor, which showed evidence of encrusting and fouling organisms.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 5
71. Describe the modern techniques for studying marine biology and the dissemination of information about marine biology.
ANS: Various technologies such as ROVs, submersibles, SCUBA diving that allow access to the underwater world. Satellites can now study the oceans remotely as can deep-sea submersibles and underwater stations. Information can now be circulated about new findings via the Internet.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 8
11 Chapter 1
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Science and Marine Biology 72. People often use the term "theory" in a variety of ways, but to a scientist, a theory has a specific meaning. Briefly describe the important features of a scientifically based theory.
ANS: A scientific theory proposes an understanding of phenomena that has developed based on the results from numerous observations and hypotheses that have been tested independently many times, and a majority of scientists believe it to have significant explanatory power because the best available science supports it. A theory is subject to rejection if enough evidence accumulates against it.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 10
73. Describe how inductive and deductive reasoning can be used in marine biology, using J.H. Connell’s experiment with intertidal barnacles as an example.
ANS: When J. H. Connell observed that two types of barnacles were in groups forming definite zones, he used induction to hypothesize that biological interactions between species caused the distribution patterns. He then deduced that two species of barnacles were restricted to their particular zones by biological interactions if removal of one species led to the expansion of the other into the newly-
vacated zone.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 9
12 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Ecology is: a. a type of life style. b. the study of the interaction of organisms and their environment. c. a place where organisms live. d. what happens when a predator consumes a prey item. e. the study of the physical environment in an ecosystem. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 15
2. The biosphere a. is located in the Northern Hemisphere. b. contains organisms with similar needs. c. has environmental conditions of similar temperature, pressure, and salinity. d. supports all of life on earth. e. is restricted to the continents. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 15
3. Organisms that live under similar environmental conditions and location, and interact directly or indirectly are part of the same: a. ecosystem. b. biosystem. c. abiotic habitat. d. biotic habitat. e. population. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 15
4. An example of abiotic factors influencing marine organisms is: a. predation. b. competition for food. c. parasitism. d. salinity. e. bacterial disease. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
5. Habitat refers to where an organism: a. lives. b. feeds. c. reproduces. d. forages. e. All of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 16
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13 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 6. The habitat of a species has a. both abiotic and biotic factors. b. neither biotic or abiotic factors. c. biotic factors. d. abiotic factors. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
7. Habitat complexity can support a. complex life histories. b. increased biodiversity. c. higher productivity. d. more different species in an area. e. All of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
8. An environment would be considered harsh to an organism if: a. it would be difficult for the individual to maintain homeostasis. b. the temperatures are extreme. c. salinity varies. d. pressure gradients are large. e. light levels are low. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
9. Regions above or below the optimal range of an environmental variable are called: a. zones of stress. b. tolerance zones. c. optimal range areas. d. None of the above. e. b and c only. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 17
10. A population growth pattern that reaches a certain level is described with a(n) a. logarithmic equation. b. exponential equation. c. logistic equation. d. J -shaped curve. e. quadratic equation. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 24
11. You start to culture a petri dish of marine bacteria. Each day, the number of visible colonies growing on the agar surface increases in this fashion: 2, 4, 16, 32, 64, 128. This growth pattern is best described as a. logarithmic. b. logistic. c. exponential. d. quadratic. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 24
14 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 12. The largest group and most important marine photosynthetic organisms are: a. kelp. b. seagrasses. c. macroalgae. d. phytoplankton. e. giant kelps. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 17
13. Animals that obtain their body heat from internal metabolism are called: a. ectotherms. b. poikilotherms. c. endotherms. d. osmoconformers. e. osmoregulators. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
14. An organism that maintains a constant body temperature is termed: a. an endotherm. b. an ectotherm. c. a poikiotherm. d. cold blooded. e. an osmoconformer. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
15. An organism whose temperature is similar to its surroundings is called a(n) a. endotherm. b. poikiotherm. c. ectotherm. d. warm blooded organism. e. osmoregulator. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
16. A particular sea bird has a Type 1 survival curve, and older female birds produce more eggs than younger birds. What is an evolutionary strategy of these birds? a. young birds reach maturity rapidly b. reproduction is delayed c. birds reach maturity slowly d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 22
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23
17. The amount of dissolved salts in water determines the: a. temperature. b. luminosity. c. salinity. d. clarity. e. turbidity. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
15 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 18. The movement of water across a membrane in response to a gradient of solute concentration is called: a. salinity. b. osmosis. c. solubility. d. diffusion. e. pressure. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
19. An atmosphere of pressure at sea level,, in psi (pounds per square inch), equals: a. 15. b. 14.7. c. 15.7 d. 16.5. e. 16.7 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 19
20. The pressure of the oceans increases by one atmosphere for every ____ meter increase in depth. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 19
21. At what depth would water pressure be 4 times greater than atmospheric pressure at the surface? a. 10 meters b. 20 meters c. 30 meters d. 40 meters e. 50 meters ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 19
22. In the carbon cycle, animals play a fundamental role by: a. decreasing the amount of dissolved carbon dioxide. b. increasing the amount of dissolved carbon dioxide as a result of respiration. c. increasing the amount of dissolved carbon dioxide as a result of photosynthesis. d. decreasing the amount of plant biomass. e. decreasing it as a result of photosynthesis. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 36
23. An important inorganic nutrient needed by marine photosynthetic organisms is: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. lipids. d. nitrates. e. carbohydrates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 36
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16 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 24. Oxygen during the early development of the atmosphere was: a. common. b. rare. c. important for photosynthesis. d. about the same as now. e. created from the cooling of hot lava. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
25. Those organisms that thrive in an environment free of oxygen are called a. phytoplankton. b. zooplankton. c. nekton. d. anaerobes. e. aerobic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
26. Anaerobic organisms thrive: a. in oxygen-free environments. b. where oxygen is abundant. c. where carbon dioxide is abundant. d. in surface waters of the ocean. e. in the middle of the water column. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
27. Metabolic wastes are: a. the byproduct of metabolism. b. unused nutrients during metabolism. c. re-used by the organism. d. unimportant to community metabolism. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
28. Waste products of metabolism tend to accumulate in: a. open ocean areas. b. coastal waters. c. small enclosed bodies of water. d. fast circulating water. e. major ocean currents. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
29. When two different species require the same resources we may observe a. intraspecific competition. b. resource partitioning. c. interspecific competition. d. predation. e. symbiosis/parasitism. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
17 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 30. ____ is when one organism successfully outcompetes another organism and excludes it from a particular area or niche. a. Predation b. Resource partitioning c. Parasitism d. Competitive exclusion e. Commensalism ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 27
31. The niche of the species is best described as: a. the biological relationships of the species in the ecosystem. b. the behavior of a species in the ecosystem. c. the sum of the abiotic factors required or tolerated by the species. d. the occupation (needs and role) of the species in the ecosystem. e. the location where the species resides. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 25
32. The process of subdividing a niche into smaller niches is called: a. resource partitioning. b. interspecific competition. c. commensalism. d. mutualism. e. symbiosis. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 27
33. Members of the same species living in the same area and interacting are: a. a community. b. a population. c. an ecosystem. d. a biosphere. e. a biome. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 21
34. Predators that prevent the population of their prey from exploding and thus outcompeting their prey are called: a. regulators. b. herbivores. c. keystone species. d. omnivores. e. decomposers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 28
35. A species whose effect on biological diversity is disproportionate to their own abundance is termed: a. predator. b. keystone. c. carnivore. d. producer. e. herbivore. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 28
18 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 36. The symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont benefits from the relationship but the host is neither harmed nor benefited is called: a. mutualism. b. parasitism. c. commensalism. d. competition. e. niche interactivity. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 29
37. An example of mutualism is: a. remora fish attached to or following a shark. b. cleaner shrimp removing parasites from a fish. c. tapeworm living in the digestive system of a fish. d. hagfish feeding off a whale killed by an Orca. e. interactions between the barnacle species Semibalanus
and Chthamalus ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 29
38. The following are main points of the example of the Amphipod and Sea Butterfly except: a. Fish are confused by the amphipods. b. A new form of symbiosis was observed. c. A “kidnapping” behavior was observed.
d. An example of chemical defense was seen e. The scientific method was utilized. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 30
39. Communities of organisms are made up of: a. populations of different species. b. different habitats. c. two or more populations of the same species. d. ecosystems. e. interacting niches. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 25
40. Neuston is a term relating to small organisms of the: a. intertidal zone. b. benthic zone. c. ocean surface. d. abyssal zone. e. aphotic zone. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 38
41. The pelagic division of the ocean consists of the: a. ocean bottom. b. lit area of the ocean. c. dark area of the ocean. d. water column. e. intertidal zone. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 38
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19 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 42. Estuaries are an example of: a. niches. b. populations. c. ecosystems. d. the abyssal zone. e. pelagic systems. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 38
43. The primary source of energy for primary production is: a. high temperatures. b. sunlight. c. hydrogen bonds. d. glucose. e. carbohydrates. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 31
44. Chemosynthetic organisms use the energy from ____ to produce organic molecules. a. the sun b. chemical reactions c. the water d. other organisms. e. glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 31
45. The proper order of predator-prey relationships is a. herbivore-producer-carnivore. b. carnivore-producer-herbivore. c. herbivore-carnivore-producer. d. producer-herbivore-carnivore. e. carnivore-herbivore-producer. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 32
46. ____ are good examples of consumers. a. Omnivores b. Detritivores c. Herbivores d. Carnivores. e. All of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 32
47. With each change in trophic level we can expect a ____% transfer of biomass. a. 5 b. 10 c. 25 d. 50 e. 20 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 34
20 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 48. How much biomass of krill (in kg) is needed to produce 1,000 kg of whale? a. 100 b. 2,000 c. 10,000 d. 50,000 e. 100,000 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 34
–
5
49. On average, only about ____ percent of the energy available at one trophic level is passed on to the next trophic level. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 90 e. 50 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 34
–
35
50. When nutrients are limited, they do all the following except: a. reduce metabolism. b. decrease growth rates. c. affect growth form. d. immobilize an organism. e. cause algal blooms. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 20
51. Important nutrients for photosynthesis include: a. nitrogen and phosphate. b. phosphate and oxygen. c. nitrogen and oxygen. d. calcium and oxygen. e. glucose and oxygen. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20 | 36
52. Nutrients are reintroduced into the upper reaches of the oceans from deeper areas by the process of: a. wind and ocean currents. b. respiration of marine animals. c. excretion of wastes by animals. d. sinking of dead organisms. e. their attachment to floating plankton. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 36
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37
53. The process of increasing nutrient levels in coastal water is termed: a. photosynthesis. b. community metabolism. c. eutrophication. d. putrification. e. oligotropism. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
21 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 54. Eutrophication can lead to a. an algal bloom. b. fish congregations. c. decreased water clarity. d. slow plant growth rates. e. a and c only. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 20
55. You are a resource manager of a large eutrophic lake. After stopping the source of nutrients from entering the lake, what further steps could you do to improve the water quality? a. introduce phytoplankton-consuming fish. b. introduce freshwater sponges into the lake. c. introduce aquatic plants into the habitat. d. introduce carnivorous fish into the lake. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 33
TRUE/FALSE
56. An organism's niche can be described in terms of abiotic and biotic factors.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 25-26
57. Homeostasis is the maintenance by organisms of a balanced state of internal conditions.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
58. The only important role of sunlight in the marine environment is to provide energy for photosynthesis.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 17
59. Desiccation is the process of drying out due to the effects of sunlight and wind.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
60. Solutes are the liquid in which solid substances are dissolved.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 18
61. Gases such as oxygen dissolve more readily in cool water than in warm water.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
62. The two main sources of oxygen in the sea are photosynthesis and transfer from the atmosphere.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 20
63. The relationship between a predator and its prey is within the realm of interspecific competition.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 27
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28
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22 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 64. Interspecific competition is competition occurring between individuals of the same species.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 27
65. The relationship between the clownfish and the sea anemone it is associated with is an example of mutualism.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 29
66. Infaunal organisms live in the water column.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 38
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39
67. The abyssal zone is one of the zones of the pelagic division.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 39
68. Producers can be photosynthetic or chemosynthetic.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 31
69. Heterotrophic organisms cannot make their own food.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 32
70. The hydrological cycle involves the biogeochemical cycling of water on the planet.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 35
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36
71. Decomposers play an important role in the biogeochemical cycling of nitrogen.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 36
MATCHING
Match the word with the word it is most closely associated with. a. herbivore b. carnivore c. producer 72. predator
73. plant
74. first-order consumer
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 32
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 32
74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 32
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23 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology Match each term to a similar term. a. herbivore b. carnivore c. autotroph 75. producer
76. first-order consumer
77. second-order consumer
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 32
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 32
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 32
Match the direction of net movement of water to the type of extracellular solution. a. into cells b. out of cells c. no net movement 78. isotonic solution
79. hypotonic solution
80. hypertonic solution
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 19
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 19
80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 19
Match the type of organism to a role. a. primary producer b. first-order consumer c. DOM producer d. detritivores 81. bacteria
82. phytoplankton
83. herbivorous zooplankton
84. worms
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 32-34
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 32-34
83. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 32-34
84. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 32-34
Match the types of competition with a brief description. a. Among members of a single species b. Between members of different species c. Local extirpation of a species 85. Interspecific Competition
86. Intraspecific Competition
87. Competitive Exclusion
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24 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 27
86. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 27
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 27
Match the type of population growth characteristic with the term. a. Logistic b. Exponential growth 88. Algal bloom
89. Carrying Capacity
88. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 20 | 24
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 24
Link the words. a. Limiting nutrient b. Water movement c. Twilight zone d. Solute concentration 90. Osmosis
91. No photosynthesis
92. Nitrogen
93. Salinity
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 18
–
20 | 38
91. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 18
–
20 | 38
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 18
–
20 | 38
93. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 18
–
20 | 38
Link areas of the Ocean with the associated terms. a. Open Ocean b. Near Shore c. Primary Production d. Benthic area exposed during low tide 94. Photic Zone
95. Neritic Zone
96. Oceanic Zone
97. Intertidal Zone
94. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 38-39
95. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 38-39
96. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 38-39
97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 38-39
Match the chemical with the cycle. a. Hydrologic b. Carbon c. Nitrogen 98. CO
2
99. NH
3
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25 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 100. H
2
O
98. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 36
–
37
99. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 36
–
37
100. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 36
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37
Match each phrase with its correct term. a. Populations of species in a area b. Mussels on a rocky shore c. Sum of biotic processes interacting in a large area with similar abiotic factors 101. Community
102. Population
103. Ecosystem
101. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 15 | 21 | 25
102. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 15 | 21 | 25
103. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 15 | 21 | 25
ESSAY
104. The movement of water is critical to life. Discuss how the movements of water (both horizontal and vertical) affects climate and coastal productivity.
ANS: The movement of water through currents and the hydrologic cycles distributes the sun's energy across the globe, facilitates the nutrient cycle by bringing nutrients from terrestrial origin to the ocean, brings food, removes waste, and enables the distribution of planktonic larvae. The sun's energy is not equally distributed across the globe with most heating occurring in the tropics. Large ocean currents warm northern areas. Nutrients build up in deep ocean water layers. With deep nutrient-rich water brought to the sunlit surface though wind and currents, oceanic productivity is increased, leading to more abundant life.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 35
–
36
105. Describe the major biotic and abiotic components of marine ecosystems and how they affect energy and trophic dynamics.
ANS: Marine ecosystems are comprised of abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living) factors that interact as a system. Major abiotic factors include salinity, temperature, pressure, nutrients, and sunlight. Major biotic factors include the autotrophs who are self nourishing through photosynthesis; the heterotrophs who consume autotrophes or other heterotrophes; and the detritivores who are responsible for much of the recycling of inorganic material. The amount of energy and number of trophic levels are determined by the amount of sunlight, nutrients, and energy conversion in the food web.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 16
–
20 | 31-35
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26 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 106. Using the definition of habitat and microhabitat, describe a marine habitat that you are familiar with and describe a microhabitat within that larger habitat.
ANS: The textbook uses the example of a sandy beach habitat and its associated meiofaunal microhabitat. Another example would be an estuarine habitat and the surface of the mud at the bottom of the estuary as one of the estuarine microhabitats, or a coral reef and the crevices between coral as microhabitats.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 16
107. Think of a marine organism that you are familiar with and describe all aspects of its niche, including both biotic and abiotic characteristics of the niche.
ANS: An example could be a coral polyp. Its niche is that of a builder of coral reefs in tropical and subtropical areas. It is a voracious predator of planktonic organisms, but at the same time it is involved in a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae. Polyps are limited in their distribution by the amount of sunlight in the water and the temperature of the water. In addition, they are preyed upon by coral-eating fishes and echinoderms and succumb to various diseases.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 15-19 | 25-30 108. Describe two roles that sunlight plays in the marine environment.
ANS: Sunlight is the primary source of energy that is captured by photosynthetic organisms. These organisms, in turn, become food for other organisms. Solar energy is also important due to the warming effect it has on the planet. Light from the sun is used by animals in the marine environment for visually detecting their surroundings and as a cue for determining which way is up. If very intense, the visible and ultraviolet components of sunlight can cause severe damage to both photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms in the marine environment.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 17 | 31
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32
109. Why do endotherms need to be well insulated from the external environment?
ANS: Endotherms maintain body temperatures that are much higher than the surrounding environment. As a result, heat tends to flow out of these animals in order to establish an equilibrium with the external environment. Having insulation slows down the process of heat loss in these animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 18
110. Describe the difference in temperature range between small bodies of water and open ocean areas. What adaptations do you expect to see in the animals living in either body of water?
ANS: Small bodies of water are subject to extreme ranges of temperature because heat can be gained or lost fairly quickly. In the open ocean temperature ranges are much narrower. As a result, animals living in areas having large temperature ranges will tend to be adapted for these changes. Animals living in the open ocean will be intolerant to significant changes in the ambient temperature.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 18
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27 Chapter 2
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Fundamentals of Ecology 111. Osmoconforming animals, such as the spider crab, that live in the open ocean show little ability to withstand large variations in salinity, while coastal animals, such as the closely related fiddler crab, show great ability to withstand large salinity changes. Explain why this is the case, considering the relevant abiotic features of both habitats.
ANS: In the open ocean where the spider crab lives, salinity does not change drastically. Therefore, these animals do not need adaptations that allow them to withstand salinity changes. In contrast, the fiddler crab lives in muddy coastal estuarine areas where salinity fluctuates greatly. These animals have adaptations that allow them to survive in hyposaline or hypersaline waters.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 18-19
112. Barnacles and mussels compete with each other for space on the rocky intertidal. What type of interaction exists between these two species? If you knew that mussels are capable of occupying all available space in the rocky intertidal then what would happen to the barnacles? What keeps mussels from crowding out barnacles throughout the entire intertidal zone?
ANS: Mussels and barnacles show interspecific competition for space in the rocky intertidal. If mussels were unhampered, they would eliminate the barnacles from the intertidal in what is called competitive exclusion. Mussels don't completely eliminate barnacles because predators keep mussel populations within narrow limits, and because mussels are relatively intolerant to exposure, so barnacles can occupy the upper reaches of the intertidal.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 28
113. What is the difference between the rocky intertidal community and the rocky intertidal ecosystem?
ANS: A community is an assemblage of populations of different species, whereas an ecosystem is the community and the physical environment in which they live.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 15
–
25
114. Explain why the number of trophic levels in a given ecosystem is limited.
ANS: This is because energy is transferred from one level to the next with very low efficiency. As a result, energy loss prevents significant energy transfer at the highest trophic levels. The loss of energy with each transfer also explains why the collective biomass of successively higher trophic levels decreases.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 34-35
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28 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The solar system formed ____ billion years ago. a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 43
2. Gaseous oxygen formed in the earth's atmosphere as a result of: a. outgassing from the interior of the planet. b. respiration of bacteria. c. input from outer space. d. photosynthesis. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 44
3. It has been proposed that the first living organisms were: a. heterotrophs. b. autotrophs. c. chemosynthetic. d. photosynthetic. e. multicellular. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 44
4. The first heterotrophs obtained their energy from a. autotrophs. b. chemosynthetic organisms. c. organic material in the ocean. d. photosynthetic organisms. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 44
5. The ocean is frequently referred to as: a. circumpolar ocean. b. seven seas. c. world ocean. d. Indo-Pacific Ocean. e. the cradle of civilization. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 44
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29 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 6. A small area more or less landlocked is called: a. the seven seas. b. a world ocean. c. an ocean. d. a sea. e. a marine province. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 45
7. The thickest of earth's physical layers is the: a. crust. b. mantle. c. inner core. d. outer core. e. asthenosphere. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 45
8. The region of the mantle below the crust is called: a. the asthenosphere. b. the mantle. c. the lithosphere. d. the outer core. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 45
9. The solid region of crust and upper mantle is called: a. the asthenosphere. b. the mantle. c. the lithosphere. d. the outer core. e. the inner core. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
10. The continental crust is primarily comprised of all the following except: a. granite-type rock. b. basalt-type rock. c. quarts-type rock. d. silicon-type rock. e. sedimentary rock. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 45
–
46
11. The forces of the mantle acting on the crust give way to: a. ocean basins. b. continental drift. c. magma. d. continental rise. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
–
48
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30 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 12. Pangea, the name given to the supercontinent that existed before continental drift, was coined by: a. Sir Francis Bacon. b. Alfred Wegener. c. Harry Hess. d. Edward Suess. e. Sir Alistair Hardy. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 49
13. When Pangea first broke up it formed a. North and South America. b. Africa and South America. c. Antarctic and Godwanaland. d. East and West Hemisphere. e. Laurasia and Godwanaland. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 49
14. The two continents that suggested continental drift are called: a. North and South America. b. North America and Europe. c. South America and Africa. d. Europe and Asia. e. Australia and India. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 49
15. The first person to describe the mechanism of seafloor spreading by which continents drifted apart from one another was: a. Sir Francis Bacon. b. Alfred Wegener. c. Harry Hess. d. Edward Suess. e. Charles Darwin. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
16. Where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging we find: a. ridge systems. b. atolls. c. archipelagos. d. trenches. e. guyots. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
17. Seafloor spreading is the result of: a. vertical movement along the lithosphere. b. lateral movement of the crust. c. growth of the midocean ridge. d. subduction. e. horizontal uplift of the continents. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
–
49
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31 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 18. A region where old oceanic crust is being destroyed is called: a. a spreading center. b. a midocean ridge. c. a seamount. d. a subduction zone. e. an atoll. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
19. All of the following are evidence of continental drift except: a. distribution of earthquakes. b. age of rocks from the sea floor. c. reefs. d. analysis of core samples. e. paleomagnetism. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 48
–
50
20. Lithosphere plates move in opposite directions past each other at regions known as: a. divergent plate boundaries. b. convergent plate boundaries. c. escarpments. d. transform faults. e. hydrothermal vents. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 47
21. The special kind of fault along where different ocean plates are moving laterally away from each other is called: a. trench. b. midocean. c. transform. d. arc. e. convergent. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 47
22. Midocean ridges form: a. anywhere in the middle of the ocean. b. in subduction zones. c. where oceanic crust is cracked and magma is emerging. d. in deep ocean trenches. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 46
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47
23. In 1977 Dr. Robert Ballard and J.F. Grassle discovered a. underwater seamounts. b. the midocean ridge. c. the Titanic. d. rift communities. e. the Andrea Doria. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 51
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32 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 24. A core sample is taken 100 km west of and parallel to a ridge system. Magnetic readings of the rock show a reversal of the Earth’s magnetic field. How many km east of the ridge system must scientists travel to collect a core sample with the same magnetic properties? a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 0 km; collect the sample directly at the ridge ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 50
25. The area directly below the neritic zone is called: a. abyssal plain. b. ocean basin. c. trench. d. continental margin. e. hadal zone. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 51
26. The area beyond the neritic zone is called a. abyssal plain. b. ocean basin. c. trench. d. continental margin. e. the hadal zone. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 51
27. The transition between the continental shelf and the deep floor is called a. midocean. b. continental slope. c. shelf break. d. continental margin. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 51
28. The continental rise is composed of sediments deposited from: a. biological activity. b. underwater landslides. c. midocean ridges. d. windblown sources. e. cosmogenous sources. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
29. Island arcs are associated with: a. midocean ridges. b. continental shelves. c. continental slopes. d. deep sea trenches. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 55
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33 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 30. The deepest underwater trench in the world is: a. Mariana Trench. b. Peru-Chile Trench. c. Java Trench. d. South Sandwich Trench. e. Aleutian Trench. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 55
31. Drowned rivers help create: a. shelf breaks. b. continental margins. c. submarine canyons. d. turbidity currents. e. continental trenches. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
32. As sand moves rapidly down the continental slope it can lead to: a. convergence. b. earthquakes. c. turbidity currents. d. shelf breaks. e. midocean ridges. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
33. Turbidity currents are thought to have contributed to the formation of the: a. Hudson River Canyon. b. Chesapeake Bay. c. Galveston Bay Canyon. d. San Francisco Bay. e. Scripps Submarine Canyon. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
34. The following are all main points of the article Animal Sculptors of the Seafloor
except: a. Gray whales feed in a way that preserves habitat of their prey b. Biological activities can alter large expanses of seafloor. c. The previous ideas about the feeding biology of large marine mammals were refined. d. Feeding activities enhance the area’s productivity.
e. Walruses overgrazed clam beds, causing environmental collapse. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 58
35. At the base of a steep continental slope a gentle slope is called: a. a bajada. b. a delta. c. an inverse plane. d. the continental rise. e. an abyssal hill. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
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34 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 36. All of the following are considered a main ocean basin except: a. Pacific. b. Atlantic. c. Mediterranean. d. Arctic. e. Indian. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 55
37. A flat expanse of an ocean basin is called: a. a seamount. b. an abyssal plain. c. an abyssal hills. d. an abyssal prairie. e. an underwater delta. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 55
38. Dotting the abyssal plain are abyssal hills that rise up to: a. 100 meters. b. 500 meters. c. 1000 meters. d. 1500 meters. e. 4000 meters. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 55
39. Seamounts are formed from: a. the rift zone. b. underwater volcanoes. c. uplifting of crust. d. earthquakes. e. underwater landslides. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 55
40. Sediments that are composed of the remains of once living organisms are called: a. cosmogenous. b. hydrogenous. c. inorganic.. d. biogenous. e. terrigenous. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 57
41. Sediments that are formed from seawater as a result of a variety of chemical processes are called: a. cosmogenous. b. hydrogenous. c. organic.. d. biogenous. e. terrigenous. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 57
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35 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 42. An example of a hydrogenous sediment is: a. diatomaceous ooze. b. siliceous ooze. c. manganese nodules. d. calcareous ooze. e. coccolithophore ooze. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 57
43. You have a sediment sample taken from the Tropical Indo-Pacific shallows. When acid is added to the sample, it bubbles and fizzes. What do you conclude? a. bubbles are due to mangnesium nodules. b. the sample is cosmogenous. c. the sample is terrigenous. d. the sample is biogenous. ANS: A Carbon dioxide bubbles are formed due to the reaction of acid with calcium carbonate materials (formed by organisms).composing the sediments.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 57
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58
44. An ooze is called an ooze if it is composed of ____% or more of biogenous sediments. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 58
45. The skeletons of radiolarians contribute to biogenous sediment that is called: a. diatomaceous ooze. b. calcareous ooze. c. manganese ooze. d. siliceous ooze. e. hydrogenous ooze. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 57
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58
46. Mud is composed of: a. dirt and water. b. iron and diatoms. c. clay and silt. d. calcareous and siliceous ooze. e. sand and clay. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 58
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36 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 47. The reference or primary line of longitude is: a. the Tropic of Cancer. b. the Tropic of Capricorn. c. the Greenwich meridian. d. the equator. e. the International Date Line. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 61
48. A chronometer is used for: a. measuring depth. b. measuring speed. c. measuring time. d. measuring latitude. e. measuring longitude. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 62
49. You are planning to set sail on your catamaran from Los Angeles to Tahiti. What piece of navigating equipment would you wish to use? a. sextant. b. GPS unit. c. chronometer. d. physiographic chart. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 62
TRUE/FALSE
50. The source of the water that formed the earth's oceans was water vapor escaping from the interior of the planet.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 43
51. The world ocean covers 70.8% of the earth's surface.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 43
52. Continental crust is composed mostly of iron and magnesium.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
53. Continental crust is older than oceanic crust.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 46
54. Faults are regions where lithospheric plates are moving toward one another.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 46
55. Bathygraphic features are features associated with land.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 51
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37 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 56. Mountainous coastlines tend to be associated with narrow continental shelves.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 54
57. Seamounts are formed from underwater volcanoes.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 55
58. Seamounts and underwater volcanoes tend to be concentrated near midocean ridges and subduction zones.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 55
59. The type and amount of sediment found on a continental shelf is not important to organisms that live there.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 57
60. Radiolarian ooze is produced by multi-cellular organisms.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 57
61. Diatomaceous ooze is material leaking out of diatom cells.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 57
–
58
62. One nautical mile equals one degree of latitude.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 61
63. Latitude lines are referred to as parallels because they parallel one another.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 61
64. Bathymetric charts represent the contour of the ocean bottom with contour lines that connect similar depths.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 60
MATCHING
Match the water body term with its most closely associated description. a. small ocean body more or less landlocked b. all the oceans c. small body of water cut off by land formations 65. World Ocean
66. Gulf
67. Sea
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 44
–
45
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 44
–
45
67. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 44
–
45
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38 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean Match the characteristic with the most closely associated earth layer. a. dense, hot, rich in iron and nickel b. granite or basalt c. magnesium - iron silicates 68. Inner Core
69. Mantle
70. Crust
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
Match the layer with its most closely associated description. a. liquid mantle b. upper mantle and crust c. floats on the mantle 71. Crust
72. Lithosphere
73. Asthenosphere
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 45
–
46
Match the description with its most closely associated term. a. these are lines that extend from the North Pole to the South Pole b. these form progressively smaller circles from the equator to the poles c. also known as Greenwich 74. Latitude
75. Longitude
76. Primary meridian
74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 60
–
61
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 60
–
61
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 60
–
61
Match the words with the most closely associated descriptions. a. where new ocean bottom is formed b. where most earthquakes occur c. where ocean plate goes below terrestrial plate 77. Fracture zone
78. Subduction zone
79. Seafloor spreading
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 46
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 46
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 46
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39 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. layer between crust and mantle b. where plates move toward each other c. where plates move apart d. where plates move laterally beside each other 80. Divergent plate boundary
81. Convergent plate boundary
82. Crust lithosphere
83. Transform boundary
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 46
–
47
81. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 46
–
47
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 46
–
47
83. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 46
–
47
Match the words with those the most closely associated term. a. landscape change between components of the continental margin b. transition to the deep ocean floor c. shallow extensions of the continents d. gentle slope beyond the shelf break 84. Continental shelves
85. Continental slope
86. Shelf break
87. Continental rise
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 51 | 54
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 51 | 54
86. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 51 | 54
87. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 51 | 54
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. rise up from abyssal plain b. once above the seasurface c. flat expanse 88. Abyssal plain
89. Abyssal hill
90. Seamount
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 55
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 55
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 55
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. deep crevices in the ocean floor b. continuous series of large, underwater, volcanic mountains c. associated with trenches 91. Ridges
92. Trenches
93. Island arcs
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40 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 55
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 55
93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 55
Match the type of sediment with its most closely associated source. a. seawater chemical processes b. land erosion processes c. from living organisms d. from outer space 94. Hydrogenous
95. Biogenous
96. Terrigenous
97. Cosmogenous
94. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 57
–
59
95. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 57
–
59
96. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 57
–
59
97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 57
–
59
ESSAY
98. Describe the process that recycles oceanic crust.
ANS: During the processes of subduction, old oceanic crust subducts beneath newer oceanic crust or continental crust. As it sinks it melts and then moves laterally and up to appear again at seafloor spreading centers where it forms new oceanic crust.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 46
–
48
99. What makes rift communities unique?
ANS: Rift communities are unique because they seemingly do not rely on energy from the sun as the primary source of energy powering the synthesis of high energy organic compounds. These communities rely on the chemosynthetic primary production of chemosynthetic bacteria.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 51
100. What two opposing roles do turbidity currents play in shaping the continental shelf?
ANS: Turbidity currents play a major role in carving and deepening submarine canyons that were formed during the last ice age. These currents are also responsible for deposition of massive amounts of sediments on the bottom of the continental slope in the region of the continental rise.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 54
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41 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 101. Why is continental crust much older than oceanic crust? Explain in terms of continental drift.
ANS: Continents do not sink in subduction zones. Rather, when two continents collide, they cause uplifting of the Earth to form mountain ranges. As a result, continents are much older.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 45
–
46
102. What was the source of the water that gave rise to the oceans?
ANS: Water was locked up in the Earth in chemical associations with the minerals of the planet. With gradual heating and cooling, the water vapor escaped, forming clouds, which eventually gave rise to condensation and rain that accumulated in the ocean's basins.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 43
103. Why was Earth's early atmosphere devoid of oxygen?
ANS: Because oxygen is a strong oxidizer of other elements, it tends to form oxides with them, which binds any free oxygen.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 44
104. Describe the processes that account for the drifting of continents away from one another or toward one another.
ANS: Continents are like large floating islands resting on top of the asthenosphere. As molten magma rises within the asthenosphere, some of it strikes the lithosphere and moves laterally. As this molten material moves sideways it drags the overlying lithosphere with it as well as the associated oceanic and continental crusts.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 46
–
49
105. Describe at least 3 lines of evidence that support the theory of seafloor spreading and continental drift.
ANS: The most obvious evidence in support of seafloor spreading and continental drift is the shape of present-day continents, which implies that they once fit together like pieces of a puzzle. In addition, if new seafloor were being created from solidified magma at seafloor spreading centers, then one would expect this new seafloor to have unique characteristics compared to older seafloor away from seafloor spreading centers. Some of these unique characteristics include warmer temperatures than seafloor that is farther away from spreading centers, younger rocks near seafloor spreading centers, and rocks that are covered by less sediment closer to seafloor spreading centers.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 49
–
51
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42 Chapter 3
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Geology of the Ocean 106. Using your knowledge of the age of lithospheric crusts and biogenous sediment accumulation, explain why it would be fruitless, not to mention expensive, to excavate for oil far off the coast, beyond the continental shelf.
ANS: Because biogenous sediments have had less time to accumulate over the much younger oceanic crust found far offshore, it is not likely that the processes that convert deposited organic material to oil have had enough time to operate. Therefore, no oil is likely to be found in regions far away from continental shelves, where sedimentation rate and sediment thickness are both much greater.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 54 | 57
107. Describe the two processes that form and maintain submarine canyons.
ANS: Submarine canyons could have been formed during the last ice age when sea levels were low and most continental shelves and slopes were not covered by seawater. During this time rivers carved canyons in the continental slope. These canyons eventually were covered by rising seawater following glacial melting. Alternatively, turbidity currents on steep continental slopes may carve out submarine canyons.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 54
108. Briefly define a biogenous ooze and describe two types.
ANS: If more than 30% of an area's sediment is made up of biogenous particles, then it is considered an ooze. Siliceous ooze comes primarily from the siliceous deposits from diatoms and radiolarians. Calcareous ooze is from a mixture of foraminiferans, coccolithophores, and molluscs.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 57
–
58
109. Define a nautical mile, the unit of distance used in oceanic navigation.
ANS: A nautical mile is equal to one minute of latitude (1.85 km or 1.15 land miles).
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 61
110. A sailor listening to a shortwave radio heard that the Greenwich mean time (the time at Greenwich, England) was 12:00 p.m. The sailor looked at her watch, which was set according to the time at a nearby location, and found it to be 3:00 p.m. What is the longitude of the sailor?
ANS: If the earth rotates 15
o
every hour, then the sailor would be 15
o
H
3 hr = 45
o
to the west.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 61
–
62
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43 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Marine organisms contain ____ % water by mass. a. 40-50 b. 50-60 c. 60-70 d. 70-80 e. 80-90 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 67
2. Water can mingle with other elements because it is a: a. heating agent. b. solvent. c. solid. d. vapor. e. nonpolar molecule. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 67
3. The charge of a water molecule is considered: a. polar. b. positive. c. negative. d. neutral. e. nonpolar. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 67
4. The polarity of a water molecule is due to: a. the greater number of hydrogen atoms relative to oxygen. b. the uneven attraction of electrons to the oxygen atom. c. the uneven attraction of electrons to the hydrogen atoms. d. the uneven attraction of protons to the oxygen atom. e. the number of neutrons in the nucleus. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 67
5. The unique attractive forces that keep molecules of water together are called: a. strong forces. b. adhesion. c. hydrogen bonds. d. cohesion. e. weak nuclear forces. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
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44 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 6. Hydrogen bonds are the result of attraction between: a. the H of one water molecule and the H of another water molecule. b. the two H atoms of the same water molecule. c. the H and O of the same water molecule. d. the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
7. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to one another is called: a. cohesion. b. polarity. c. dissolving ability. d. adhesion. e. viscosity. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 69
8. The property of water whereby molecules tend to stick to objects is called: a. cohesion. b. surface tension. c. dissolving ability. d. adhesion. e. viscosity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 69
9. Surface tension allows water molecules to do all the following except: a. transmit light energy. b. resist evaporation. c. form a tight surface layer. d. support small organisms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 69-70
10. Hydrogen forces have high attractive forces that allow water to have a high: a. strength. b. solubility. c. freezing point. d. boiling point. e. rate of evaporation. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
11. Water is unique because its solid phase is ____ the liquid phase. a. denser than b. similar to c. less dense than ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
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45 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 12. An ion is: a. a type of gas. b. an individually charged particle. c. heavy water. d. water with an extra hydrogen atom. e. a neutrally-charged atom. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 69
13. The specific heat of water is a. a gram of substance. b. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1
F. c. calories need to heat seawater. d. energy required to raise a gram of substance 1
C. e. energy required to evaporate 1 gram of liquid water. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 69
14. Which low energy light wave length is quickly absorbed by water? a. Red b. Orange c. Yellow d. Green e. a, b, and c above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
15. Which high energy light wave length can penetrate sea water the deepest? a. Blue b. Green c. Violet d. Red e. a, b, and c above ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
16. In most clear waters, 1% of surface light can penetrate to: a. 10 m. b. 20 m. c. 50 m. d. 75 m. e. 100 m. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
17. You are SCUBA diving with a friend, who is wearing a red and purple wetsuit. You both descend and conduct your underwater research at 30 m. What color(s) does her wetsuit appear at this depth? a. black and dark blue. b. dark blue and purple. c. dark green and black. d. dark red and black. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 70
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46 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 18. Light that is absorbed by water is converted to: a. short wave radiation. b. long wave radiation. c. heat. d. mass. e. green light. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
19. Acids are compounds that: a. can bind hydrogen ions. b. can release hydrogen ions. c. are pH 8 or above. d. contain hydrogen and hydroxide ions equal in number. e. raise pH. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
20. Bases are compounds that do all the following except a. they bind hydrogen ions. b. they release hydrogen ions. c. they are pH 7 or above. d. they contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions. e. they raise pH. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 70
21. Water's pH is considered neutral when: a. hydrogen can be bound. b. hydrogen can be released. c. water is slightly alkaline. d. hydrogen and hydroxide ions are equal in number. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
22. The pH scale is a measure of: a. how many degrees a professor has. b. the temperature of water. c. concentration of hydrogen ion in a volume of solution. d. concentration of hydroxide ions in a volume of solution. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 70
23. The pH of seawater is important to living organisms because: a. it can affect the functioning of enzymes. b. it can interfere with metabolism. c. it can affect growth. d. All the above. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 70
–
71
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47 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 24. A trace element's concentration is less than a part per a. thousand. b. million. c. billion. d. trillion. e. hundred. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 71
25. Salinity is expressed in parts per a. hundred. b. thousand. c. ten thousand. d. hundred thousand. e. million. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
26. The average salinity of seawater is ____
0
/
00
. a. 35 b. 37 c. 40 d. 45 e. 50 ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
27. The salinity of seawater at the poles is: a. high due to evaporation. b. low due to precipitation. c. high due to freezing. d. low due to river input. e. similar to the open ocean. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
28. The salinity of seawater at the equator is: a. high due to evaporation. b. low due to precipitation. c. high due to freezing. d. low due to river input. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
29. Salts are removed from the oceans primarily by a. absorption by living organisms. b. removal by sea spray. c. evaporation. d. adsorption onto particles. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
–
73
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48 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 30. When a shallow extension of the sea dries out it leaves salt deposits called: a. participates. b. conglomerates. c. evaporites. d. rock salt. e. sedimentary layers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
31. Gases that are regulated by biological processes include: a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. argon. d. Both a and b. e. Both b and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 73
–
74
32. The oxygen minimum layer is found a. in the ocean trenches. b. mid-ocean. c. just below the sunlit surface. d. at the surface. e. just above the abyssal plain. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 73
33. In terms of gas solubility in sea water, what is the correct relationship? a. Carbon dioxide > oxygen > nitrogen b. Oxygen > carbon dioxide > nitrogen c. Nitrogen > carbon dioxide > oxygen d. Carbon dioxide > nitrogen > oxygen e. Oxygen > nitrogen > carbon dioxide ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 73
–
74
34. To remove carbon dioxide that is dissolved in seawater, you could ________the water sample. a. chill b. increase the pressure of c. increase the salinity of d. heat ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 74
35. Seawater is considered buffered due to the presence of: a. oxygen ions. b. nitrogen ions. c. bicarbonate ions. d. silicon ions. e. calcium ions. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 74
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49 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 36. An imbalance of heat received versus heat leaving the earth can lead to: a. global warming. b. global cooling. c. temperature inversion. d. Both a and b. e. Both b and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 74
–
75
37. The majority of the heat that is transferred from the earth to the atmosphere is transferred by: a. radiation of heat into the atmosphere. b. evaporation of water. c. absorption by the lithosphere. d. reflection of heat into space. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 75
38. The following are considered greenhouse gases except: a. nitrogen. b. carbon dioxide. c. methane. d. chlorofluorocarbons. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 75
39. The mass of a substance divided by its volume is: a. heat capacity. b. surface tension. c. density. d. salinity. e. viscosity. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 83
40. The two main factors controlling the density of water are: a. salinity and temperature. b. salinity and heat capacity. c. salinity and pH. d. pH and heat capacity. e. temperature and pH. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 83
41. The maximum density of pure water occurs at: a. -2° C. b. 0° C. c. 3° C. d. 4° C. e. -4° C. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 83
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50 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 42. A zone of rapid temperature change is called a(n): a. pycnocline. b. thermocline. c. halocline. d. isocline. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 83
43. An isopycnal water column is one in which the density ____ with depth. a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. None of the above. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 84
44. The density of air increases with: a. increasing temperature. b. decreasing pressure. c. increasing moisture. d. decreasing moisture. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 77
45. At 30° north and 30° south, air is: a. cool and rising. b. moist and rising. c. moist and falling. d. dry and falling. e. dry and rising. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 79
46. The Coriolis effect is: a. the downwelling of seawater at the equator. b. the upwelling of seawater at the equator. c. the apparent deflection of the path of air and water. d. the reduction of air speed over the ground as one goes from the equator to the poles. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 78
–
79
47. A Class 4 hurricane is centered over Bermuda (latitude 32.20 N) and is moving eastwards. Which coastal city on the eastern coast of the United States is in the most peril from its approach? a. Savannah, GA (latitude 32.08 N) b. Jacksonville, FL (latitude 30.32 N) c. Wilmington, NC (latitude 34.23 N) d. Boston, MA (latitude 42.36 N) ANS: C Due to Coriolis effect, hurricane will veer to the right as it travels east, making landfall at a higher latitude than where it began.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 78
–
79
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51 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 48. A common generating force for surface waves in the oceans is: a. wind. b. gravity. c. surface tension. d. capillary action. e. undersea tectonic activity. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 87
–
88
49. The designation of winds is referenced from a. the direction from which they are coming. b. the direction towards which they are going. c. folk lore. d. the need to throw horses overboard. e. the direct
ion in relation to the observer’s path of travel
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 79
50. Deep water waves move through water having a depth that is deeper than ____ the wavelength of the wave. a. b. c. d. e. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 88
51. The distance over which wind is blowing is referred to as: a. fetch. b. duration. c. strength. d. depth. e. wind span. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 88
52. Gyres are divided into the following types of currents (named below) except
a. Ekman spiral. b. eastern boundary. c. western boundary. d. transverse. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 79
–
80
53. Tsunamis are usually: a. deep-water waves. b. shallow-water waves. c. wind waves. d. capillary waves. e. the result of winter storms. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 89
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52 Chapter 4
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Water, Waves, and Tides 54. A tidal pattern of two equal high and low tides per day is called a: a. mixed semidiurnal tide. b. semidiurnal tide. c. diurnal tide. d. spring tide. e. neap tide. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 91
55. You are on the beach at Corpus Christi, Texas. High tide falls at noon. When will be the next high tide? a. 6 pm that evening. b. 12 hours later, at midnight. c. 6 am the next morning. d. noon the next day. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 91
–
92
56. A falling tide is called a(n): a. flood tide. b. spring tide. c. neap tide. d. ebb tide. e. mixed tide. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 91
TRUE/FALSE
57. The charges on a water molecule are distributed equally.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 68
58. Frozen water is more dense than liquid water.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 68
59. The capillary action of water is a result of the adhesive properties of water.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 69
60. The thermal capacity of water is due to the strong covalent bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen of a water molecule.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 69
61. The surface tension of water is a result of the cohesive properties of water.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 69
62. On the pH scale, numbers below 7 indicate acidic solutions.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 70
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53 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 63. Trace elements dissolved in seawater are present in concentrations less than one part per thousand.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 71
64. Trace elements are not important elements for living organisms.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 71
65. The salinity of the world's oceans is increasing as more salts dissolve in the water.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 72
66. The concentration of CO
2
in the atmosphere is lower than its concentration in the oceans.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 73
67. Surface temperature is more important than salinity in determining density of surface waters in coastal areas.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 83
–
84
68. Oceanic surface currents are driven by winds.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 79
69. Air in the northern hemisphere is deflected to the left of its direction of movement due to the Coriolis effect.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 78
70. Areas between wind convection cells are characterized by having stable and consistent winds.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 79
71. Capillary waves are small.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 88
72. Plunging waves typically occur on very gently sloping coastlines.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 88
73. Tsunamis are the result of the storm surge of hurricanes.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 89
74. As a wave approaches shallow water, its speed is reduced.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 88
–
89
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54 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides MATCHING
Match the gas with the most closely associated atmospheric percentage. a. 20.99% b. 0.03% c. 78.08% 75. Nitrogen
76. Oxygen
77. Carbon dioxide
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 73
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 73
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 73
Match the Percentage by Volume in the Ocean with the gas. a. 83% b. 11% c. 6% 78. Nitrogen
79. Oxygen
80. Carbon dioxide
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 73
79. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 73
80. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 73
Match the value of water with its property. a. 1.00 g/cm
3 b. 0
C c. 100
C 81. Boiling Point
82. Freezing Point
83. Density (at 4
C)
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 68
82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 68
83. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 68
Match the g/kg of seawater with the proper ion. a. 10.76 b. 2.71 c. 19.35 84. Chloride
85. Sodium
86. Sulfate
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 71
85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 71
86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 71
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55 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides Match the pH value with it is most closely associated term. a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 87. Acidic
88. Basic
89. Neutral
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 70
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 70
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 70
Match the solution with the most closely associated pH. a. 11 b. 3 c. 8 d. 7 90. Vinegar
91. Seawater
92. Liquid soap
93. Human saliva
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 70
91. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 70
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 70
93. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 70
Match the current with the most closely associated flow direction. a. West to East b. North to South c. South to North d. East to West 94. Gulf Stream
95. Transverse current
96. Eastern-boundary current
97. Equatorial Counter Current
94. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 80
95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 80
96. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 80
97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 80
Match the 24 hr tidal cycle with its most closely associated term. a. one low and high b. two different highs and lows c. two equal highs and lows
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56 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 98. Semidiurnal
99. Diurnal
100. Mixed tide
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 91
–
92
99. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 91
–
92
100. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 91
–
92
Match the wave term with the most closely associated description. a. a wave that bends b. water depth < a wave's length c. water depth > a wave's length 101. Deepwater wave
102. Shallowater wave
103. Wave refraction
101. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 88
102. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 88
103. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 88
Match the wave type with the most closely associated description. a. no longer influenced by wind from a storm b. wind generated and restored by gravity c. increasing in size due to winds from a storm 104. Progressive wave
105. Forced wave
106. Free wave
104. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 88
105. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 88
106. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 88
ESSAY
107. Describe four properties of water that make it indispensable for life as we know it on Earth. How do the properties of water arise?
ANS: Water is an excellent solvent of polar molecules. As a result, it is the primary liquid in which all animal tissues are bathed. Water is also characterized by having a high boiling point and a high freezing point, which means that water will remain in its liquid state at average earth surface temperatures. All of the preceding properties are due to hydrogen bonds between water molecules. Finally, water is denser as a cold liquid than as ice, which means that ice will float and act as insulation against the freezing of deeper water layers.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 67
–
69
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57 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 108. What are hydrogen bonds?
ANS: Hydrogen bonds are weak associations between the positive hydrogens of a polar molecule containing hydrogen, such as water, and the negative pole of other such molecules or entirely different molecules.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
109. What property of water allows it to stick to objects and make them wet?
ANS: Water is attracted to the surface of objects that carry an electrical charge. This property is called adhesion and accounts for the ability of water to make things wet.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 71
110. What is capillary action of water and how does it occur?
ANS: When water rises into narrow spaces, it does so through capillary action. Water is attracted to electrically charged molecules lining the narrow spaces.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 69
111. Large bodies of water maintain relatively constant temperatures compared to terrestrial locations. Why is this so, and how is this feature of water important for life?
ANS: Water is said to have a very high thermal capacity, which means that it takes the addition or the removal of enormous amounts of heat in order to change significantly the temperature of the body of water. This property of water is a direct result of the hydrogen bonding that occurs between water molecules. For example, when heat is added, much of that energy is absorbed by the hydrogen bonds, which vibrate with the added heat before they break resulting in a temperature rise of the water. Large bodies of water can absorb much more heat before there is a change in water temperature; therefore, large bodies of water create a stable environment where evolution can proceed.
PTS: 1 REF: 69
112. Define the term "evaporite".
ANS: Evaporites are the salt deposits that remain on land after the evaporation of a small marginal sea or body of water.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 72
113. List the most abundant ions in seawater, from most to least abundant.
ANS: The most abundant ions in seawater are (in order of most abundant to least abundant): chloride, sodium, sulfate, magnesium, calcium, potassium, and bicarbonate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 71
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58 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 114. Which of the two gases, oxygen or carbon dioxide, is present in the oceans in much greater proportions than in air? Why might this be the case?
ANS: Carbon dioxide is present in the oceans in much greater proportions than in air. This is because carbon dioxide selectively reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which, in turn, forms bicarbonate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall / Synthesis REF: 73
–
74
115. Describe the physical factors involved in the layering of the oceans.
ANS: Ocean layers are formed as a result of differences in temperature, salinity, and hence density between various layers as a result of heating, evaporation, precipitation, or freezing. This results in a stratified ocean in which the upper layers are the least dense and the lower layers increase gradually in density.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 83
–
85
116. What are atmospheric low pressure zones? Where are they found, and why are these zones significant for traditional marine navigation?
ANS: In zones of low atmospheric pressure, located at 0 degrees and 60 degrees N and S, low-density air rises. These zones are significant for sailors because the wind movement is unsteady and unreliable. The zone of low atmospheric pressure at the equator is known as the doldrums, and is infamous for stranding sailing ships for extended periods without winds to move them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 79
117. Explain what happens at the molecular level when a salt such as NaCl dissolves in water.
ANS: Ionic molecules, such as NaCl, dissolve in water because the positive and negative ions of the salt are separated from each other. They are separated because the slightly positive side of a water molecule (the hydrogen atoms) surround the negative chloride ion and isolate it from the positive sodium ion. At the same time, the negative side of a water molecule (the oxygen atom) surrounds the positive sodium ion, thereby isolating it from any free chlorides.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 68
–
69
118. Even though seawater continues to dissolve minerals from rocks and new minerals are added from the interior of the earth, the salinity of the oceans is not increasing over time. Explain 3 reasons that cause this.
ANS: The ocean's salinity is in equilibrium. Salts that are added to the oceans are removed by processes such as adsorption and other sedimentation processes, removal by sea spray, and removal by incorporation into living organisms.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 72
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59 Chapter 4
—
Water, Waves, and Tides 119. Tropical areas absorb more heat than they lose and polar areas lose more heat than they gain. How is it that the tropics do not continue to get warmer and the poles don't get colder with time?
ANS: Excess heat that is gained in the tropics is transferred to the poles by winds and ocean currents, which act as giant heat conveyors on the planet.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 74
–
81
120. The oceans are thought to regulate temperatures of the whole planet. Explain this process in terms of the heat capacity of water.
ANS: Water has a high heat capacity. It can absorb or gain high quantities of heat without significant changes in its temperature. This is because any heat added to the water is absorbed first by the hydrogen bonds of water before these can be broken. As a result, oceans absorb heat without substantially increasing temperature. If the atmospheric temperatures are cool, the ocean will release heat into the atmosphere, thereby ameliorating temperatures.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 69 | 74
–
76
121. What 2 factors can cause a stratified water column to become unstable and to mix?
ANS: Anything that increases the density of surface water above that of deeper water will lead to an unstable water column. Cooling or freezing of surface water or the evaporation of surface water can all lead to an increase in the density of surface water.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 84
–
87
122. Explain why thermohaline circulation (the vertical mixing of the water column due to density differences) is important for living organisms.
ANS: Water that is sinking is usually oxygen-rich. Therefore, this water can replenish the oxygen levels of deeper areas. Rising water tends to be rich in dissolved nutrients that are important for the process of photosynthesis at the surface. Therefore, rising water, as a result of thermohaline circulation, replenishes depleted nutrient levels in the surface areas of the oceans, which ensures continued production.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 85
123. Describe the astronomical conditions that give rise to the extreme spring tides during certain periods of the month.
ANS: During a full or new moon, the Earth, moon and sun are aligned in a more or less straight line. At this time the gravitational pull of the sun may either complement that of the moon (new moon) or, if the sun is on the opposite side of the earth than the moon, it will draw water toward it and away from the moon, which is also drawing water, resulting in two large bulges on either side of the planet and a spring tide.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 91
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60 Chapter 5
—
Biological Concepts Chapter 5
—
Biological Concepts
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The person who presented a similar theory of evolution to that of Darwin was: a. Charles Lyle. b. Alfred Wallace. c. Thomas Malthus. d. Alfred Wegener. e. Robert Ballard. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 107
–
108
2. The geological evidence that was incorporated by Darwin, which showed that the earth was much older than previously thought, was compiled by a. Charles Lyell. b. Alfred Wallace. c. Thomas Malthus. d. Alfred Wegener. e. Steven Jay Gould. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 107
3. Carbohydrates contain all the following elements except: a. carbon. b. nitrogen. c. hydrogen. d. oxygen. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 97
4. Glucose is a(n): a. octahedral carbon base. b. six carbon sugar. c. heptahedral sugar. d. five carbon sugar. e. strong polar ion. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 67
5. Sucrose is composed of: a. a molecule of glucose and galactose. b. two molecules of glucose. c. a molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose. d. a molecule galactose and fructose. e. two molecules of fructose. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 98
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61 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 6. Lactose is a. a disaccharide. b. an energy source for plants. c. a polysaccharide. d. also known as table sugar. e. a form of starch. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 98
7. An organic molecule comprised of linked similar units is called: a. a sugar. b. a protein. c. a polymer. d. an enzyme. e. a monomer. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 98
8. The following are all biological molecules utilized in the bodies of marine animals, except a. chitin. b. triglycerides. c. glycogen. d. cellulose. e. enzymes. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 98
–
99
9. The hard exterior of crabs and lobsters is: a. chitin. b. triglycerides. c. glycogen. d. cellulose. e. based on wax polymers. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 99
10. Fats, oils, and waxes are called: a. sugars. b. polysaccharides. c. lipids. d. proteins. e. monomers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 99
11. Proteins are polymers whose basic chemical units are called: a. amino acids. b. polysaccharides. c. lipids. d. cellulose. e. nucleosides. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 99
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62 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 12. The number of different amino acids is: a. 10. b. 20. c. 30. d. 40. e. 50. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 99
13. Amino acids are assembled within the cells to form: a. nucleic acids. b. triglycerides. c. phospholipids. d. polypeptides. e. DNA. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 99
14. Genetic information is translated into ____, which direct(s) the chemical activity of an organism. a. DNA b. carbohydrates c. lipids d. proteins e. inorganic material. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
–
101
15. A molecule comprised of a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogen-containing base, and a phosphate group is called: a. a nucleic acid. b. a triglyceride. c. deoxyribonucleic acid. d. a polypeptide. e. a carbohydrate. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
16. The genetic information of an organism is coded within that organism's a. DNA. b. carbohydrates. c. lipids. d. proteins. e. cell membranes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
17. DNA's shape is: a. a helix. b. a pentagon. c. an octahedron. d. a heptahedron. e. a scalene triangle. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
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63 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 18. DNA contains an organism's genetic material, organized into sequences called: a. genes. b. chromosomes. c. gametes. d. nuclei. e. sperm and egg cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
19. Genes are composed of DNA sequences and are condensed into larger structures called: a. DNA. b. proteins. c. chromosomes. d. lipids. e. cell membranes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
20. Messenger RNA is: a. information copied or transcribed from DNA. b. comprised of rRNA. c. comprised of tRNA. d. referenced by DNA. e. used by cells to communicate with each other. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 100
–
101
21. The RNA that brings proteins to the ribosome is called: a. ribosomal RNA. b. transfer RNA. c. messenger RNA. d. RNA. e. helper RNA. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 101
22. All the genes that exist at a given time for a given population are collectively called a. the gametes. b. the gene pool. c. the chromosomes. d. the nuclei. e. the population structure. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 111
23. If a population of short-lived, annually reproducing fish is exposed for several years in a row to a chemical toxin that kills 5% of them each year, what might you expect to happen if the population is re-exposed to the chemical several years later? a. much higher death rate. b. lower death rate. c. about the same death rate. d. no mortality
—
they will be immune to the toxin. ANS: B
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64 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts Fewer fish would die upon re-exposure. The population will have evolved resistance to the toxin. Natural selection (appearing in the form of the toxin) would have selected individuals that are naturally resistant to the toxin, allowing them to persist and reproduce, passing the resistant trait on within the next generation of fish.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 108
–
109
24. A population of organisms that is reproductively isolated from other populations is considered a: a. kingdom. b. phylum. c. genus. d. species. e. class. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 112
25. The occurrence of geographic isolation between two populations will ultimately lead to: a. sexual dimorphism. b. allopatric speciation. c. morphological similarity. d. sympatric speciation. e. sexual selection. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 113
26. The basic living unit of all living organisms is called: a. tissue. b. germ plasma. c. cells. d. organs. e. DNA. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 101
27. All types of cells are capable of all of the following EXCEPT: a. metabolism. b. movement. c. growth. d. reproduction. e. energy conversion. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 103
28. Cytoplasm is comprised of: a. organelles and cytosol. b. gametes and organelles. c. DNA and RNA. d. gametes and DNA. e. gametes and RNA. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 101
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65 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 29. A eukaryote cell has all these features except a. membrane-bound organelles. b. it lacks a nucleus. c. cytosol. d. it is often associated with other cells to form a multi-cellular organism. e. numerous chromosomes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 101
–
103
30. Which is not true of a prokaryote cell? a. it has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. b. it lacks membrane-bound organelles. c. it is always within a cell wall. d. it is always single cellular. e. it lacks chromosomes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 101
31. The organelle responsible for radiant energy conversion to chemical energy is called the: a. nucleus. b. chloroplasts. c. mitochondria. d. flagella. e. cytosol. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 103
–
104
32. The organelles of movement are called: a. nuclei. b. chloroplasts. c. flagella and cilia. d. mitochondria. e. cytosol. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 105
33. Plants and algae contain this organelle not found in heterotrophs: a. nucleus. b. mitochondria. c. chloroplasts. d. flagella. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 103
–
104
34. Cellular respiration occurs in the a. nucleus. b. chloroplasts. c. flagella. d. mitochondria. e. cell membranes. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 104
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66 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 35. Reproduction in prokaryotes is known as: a. binary fission. b. meiosis. c. mitosis. d. sexual reproduction. e. spawning. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 104
–
105
36. In eukaryotes the nucleus is duplicated in a process called: a. binary fusion. b. meiosis. c. mitosis. d. fusion. e. cloning. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 105
37. A single-celled diploid eukaryote with 8 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. How many chromosomes do the resultant offspring possess? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 106
38. Groups of the same cell type that serve a particular purpose are called: a. colonies. b. organs. c. organ systems. d. tissues. e. functional clusters. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 106
39. Which is the proper order of organization? a. Cells, organs, tissues b. Cells, tissues, organs c. Organs, tissues, organs systems d. Organs, cells, tissues e. Tissues, organs, cells. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 106
40. Binomial nomenclature uses the following two words in naming organisms: a. genus and species. b. kingdom and phylum. c. family and genus. d. class and order. e. order and species. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 115
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67 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 41. Organisms that lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles are placed within the domain a. Archaea. b. Eubacteria. c. Prokaryotae. d. a or b e. Eukarya. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 116
42. Multicellular animals belong to the kingdom a. Plantae. b. Animalia. c. Prokaryotae. d. Fungi. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 116
TRUE/FALSE
43. The processes of natural selection are non-random and lead to the incorporation of only favorable traits in succeeding generations.
ANS: F Natural selection acts without purpose, and neutral traits can also be passed along.
PTS: 1 REF: 108
44. The only source of variety and diversity in sexually reproducing organisms is through mutations.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 109
–
110
45. Organisms classified in the same genus share similar characteristics of morphology and are believed to have a common ancestor.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 115
46. The salinity of the environment is a good example of a natural evolutionary selective force.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 108
MATCHING
Match the term on the left with the associated items on the right. a. glucose & fructose b. basic fuel for living cells c. glucose & glucose 47. Lactose
48. Glucose
49. Sucrose
47. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 97
–
98
48. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 97
–
98
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68 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 97
–
98
Match the description with its most closely associated term. a. reduction division b. cell splitting in two c. nuclear duplication 50. Mitosis
51. Meiosis
52. Binary fission
50. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 110
–
111
51. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 110
–
111
52. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 110
–
111
Match the description with its most closely associated term. a. alleles switching chromosomes b. gametes c. increase in genetic variation 53. Sexual reproduction
54. Crossing over
55. Recombination
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 111
54. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 111
55. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 111
Match the description with its most closely associated term. a. divergent courtship methods b. spatially separated c. incompatible copulatory organs 56. Habitat isolation
57. Anatomical isolation
58. Behavioral isolation
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 112
57. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 112
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 112
Match the phrase with the most closely associated name. a. binomial nomenclature b. speciation c. age of the earth 59. Charles Darwin
60. Charles Lyell
61. Carl Linnaeus
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 107 | 113 | 115 60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 107 | 113 | 115 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 107 | 113 | 115
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69 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. Fungi, Plantae, Animalia b. Eukarya c. Archaea, Eubacteria, Eukarya 62. Domain
63. Kingdom
64. Protists
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 116
–
117
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 116
–
117
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 116
–
117
Match the function with the most closely associated cell part. a. protects DNA b. energy powerhouse c. selects what enters the cell d. propels cell through liquids 65. Mitochondrion
66. Plasma membrane
67. Nucleus
68. Flagella
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 102
–
103
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 102
–
103
67. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 102
–
103
68. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 102
–
103
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. muscle b. biological catalysts c. semi-rigid body parts of animals 69. Enzymes
70. Structural proteins
71. Contractile proteins
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 100
70. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 100
71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 100
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. Only populations b. Only individuals c. Individuals and populations 72. Random genetic change
73. Natural selection
74. Evolution
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 109
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 109
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70 Chapter 5
—
Biological Concepts 74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 109
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. acts on organisms with disadvantages under existing environmental conditions b. affects generations that are better adapted to existing environmental conditions c. is unique 75. Random genetic change
76. Natural selection
77. Evolution
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 108-109
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 108-109
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 108-109
ESSAY
78. How did the work of Charles Lyell influence Charles Darwin, as he was forming his theory of evolution by natural selection?
ANS: Darwin knew of recent writings by Charles Lyell in which the latter showed, by analyzing geological features, that the age of the earth must have been much older than previously thought. Lyell also showed that slow gradual changes in the earth's features over time could lead to significant geological change. In addition, Darwin knew of fossil findings that showed extinct species that closely resembled modern species.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 107
79. Briefly describe at least 4 levels of biological organization in organisms.
ANS: Cells, either single or in various levels of organization, make up organisms. Multi-cellular organisms may have groups of the same cell type that serve one particular function which are called tissues. Several tissues operate together to form more complex structures called organs. Groups of organs can combine to form organ systems. Complex organisms can have one or more organ systems.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 106
–
107
80. What is a gene? How are genes involved in the evolutionary process?
ANS: Genes are regions on chromosomes that are composed of double-stranded DNA molecules. A particular gene is determined by the sequence of DNA that composes it. Genes determine the genotypic, and hence phenotypic, characteristics of an individual. These genetically determined characteristics are not the same in all the individuals in a population. It is this variation in a population that is acted upon by natural selection, which brings about evolution.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall / Synthesis REF: 100 | 110
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71 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 81. What processes gave rise to the reproductive isolation between Caribbean and Pacific marine organisms on either side of Central America? Discuss both biotic and abiotic processes in your answer.
ANS: After the formation of Central America by geological processes the Caribbean and the Pacific became isolated from one another. As a result, different selective processes began to operate in the two regions resulting in populations diverged evolutionarily from one another. Different evolutionary paths led to reproductive isolation between groups that once belonged to the same species.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 114
82. How are the processes of artificial selection and natural selection similar and how are they different?
ANS: Both artificial selection and natural selection involve the selection of individuals that have favorable traits for enhanced survival and reproduction. Organisms that have certain traits survive better than others that lack these traits and therefore their reproductive output is greater. Natural selection differs from artificial selection in that it is a completely random process with no predetermined outcome of the selective process.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 108
–
109
83. Describe the four premises of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.
ANS: All organisms produce or have the potential of producing more offspring than can survive to reproduce. This is because resources are limited in the environment, which means that offspring will compete with one another for these limited resources. Since individuals in a population are varied with respect to their traits, the outcome of the competition is dependent on the possession of certain traits that give an individual an edge over other competing individuals. If these traits are heritable, then the successful competitors will pass on these traits to their offspring with the result that more offspring will have the traits of the successful individual over the traits of the unsuccessful individuals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 109
84. In the context of population genetics, what is meant by the term "fitness?"
ANS: Fitness is a measure of the reproductive success of an individual. Individuals that possess certain favored characteristics tend to reproduce more often and produce more often and are said to be biologically successful, or fit.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 112
85. What are the shortcomings of the typological definition of species?
ANS: The typological method is based on morphological similarity between an unknown specimen and a known type specimen. This definition does not take into account diversity within any given population of organisms, nor does it account for sexual dimorphism or differences in appearance between adults and juveniles.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 112
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72 Chapter 5
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Biological Concepts 86. Define and briefly describe Domains.
ANS: Domains are the highest level of modern classification above the kingdoms. Three Domains have been recognized. Archaea and Eubacteria contain single-cell, prokaryotic organisms that differ at the biochemical level. Those organisms with a nucleus were placed in the domain Eukaraya.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 116
87. A marine biologist compares 2 samples of reef-building coral colonies collected from various locations on a coral reef. One colony has thick, stout branches while the other has long, thin branches. Are these different species? Discuss why or why not. How could the biologist solve this question?
ANS: Under the typological definition of a species, these colonies are not members of the same species, since their morphology differs. However, these 2 colonies may not necessarily be different species, since coral is known to show great variability in appearance because of environmental differences (for example, if the species grows in rough or calm water). Under the biological species definition, if individuals are crossed and produce viable offspring, then they are members of the same species. The marine biologist might conduct experiments to determine if the 2 colonies are cross-fertile, or use DNA techniques to compare genes as a first step in answering this question.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 112
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73 Chapter 6
—
Marine Microbes Chapter 6
—
Marine Microbes
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The most abundant microbes in the marine environment are: a. bacteria. b. diatoms. c. foraminiferans. d. viruses. e. dinoflagellates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 123
2. Viruses are not considered "living" by some biologists because they a. have no metabolism. b. do not reproduce. c. cannot move. d. contain protein. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 123
3. Virus replication only occurs a. when conditions stress the virus. b. at regular intervals. c. inside a host cell. d. outside of eukaryote cells. e. when virus particles undergo binary fission. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 123
4. A phage a. can be found in all living organisms. b. is specific to a particular organism. c. is found in mammals. d. is specific for bacteria. e. is specific for vertebrates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
5. Virus size is a. 300 to 400
m. b. 10 to 400 mm. c. 10 to 200 cm. d. 10 to 400 nm. e. 300 to 400 mm. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
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74 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 6. Outside a host cell a virus is called a(n): a. capsid. b. virion. c. nucleocapsid. d. envelope. e. glochidia. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
7. The protein coat covering the nucleic acid core of the virus is called the a. capsid. b. virion. c. nucleocapsid. d. envelope. e. membrane. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
8. The combination of a virus's genetic material and protein is called the a. capsid. b. virion. c. nucleocapsid. d. envelope. e. transfer RNA. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
9. You are a virologist studying a particularly pathogenic virus that infects sea turtles. In the course of your research, you discover that the virus is destroyed by a protein-digesting enzyme. The structure most vulnerable to this enzyme must be the viral a. membrane. b. envelope. c. DNA. d. capsid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 124
10. A virus's nucleocapsid is sometimes covered with a(n): a. capsid. b. virion. c. organic material. d. envelope. e. membrane. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
11. A virus with a capsid with twenty triangular faces is called: a. icosahedral. b. helical. c. binal. d. filamentous. e. dodecahedral. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 124
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75 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 12. A viral lytic cycle is characterized by: a. rapid infection and emergence. b. rapid infection, replication of nucleic acids and proteins, assembly of virions and release by rupture. c. a virus remaining in the host cell then being released. d. a viral nucleic acid being inserted into the host genome and possibly residing through multiple cell divisions prior to lytic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 125
–
126
13. A viral lysogenic cycle is characterized by: a. rapid infection and emergence. b. rapid infection, replication of nucleic acids and proteins, assembly of virions and release by rupture. c. a virus remaining in the host cell then being released. d. a viral nucleic acid being inserted into the host genome and possibly residing through multiple cell divisions prior to lytic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 125
–
126
14. The abundance and diversity of marine viruses are considered a. low abundance with high diversity. b. high abundance and low diversity. c. low abundance and low diversity. d. high abundance and high diversity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 125
15. Some viruses can change geochemical cycles leading to: a. a change in seawater pH. b. reduction in surface oxygen. c. modification of salinity. d. an effect on global warming. e. increased geothermal activity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 126
16. Viruses can control host population a. by reducing their numbers. b. by modifying their growth rate. c. by increasing their capacity to expand. d. by making them more attractable to predators. e. by attaching to the host membrane, causing the host cell to sink. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 126
17. Bacteria belong to the domain a. Eubacteria. b. Eukarya. c. Archaea. d. Animalia. e. Protista. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 127
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76 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 18. Bacteria reproduce by: a. meiosis. b. cell fusion. c. binary fission. d. cloning. e. auxospore formation. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 127
19. The process of producing high-energy foods from inorganic compounds using sunlight energy is called: a. heterotrophy. b. chemosynthesis. c. photosynthesis. d. grazing. e. solar irradiation. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 130 | 132
20. The process of producing food from inorganic compounds using high energy compounds as a source of energy is called: a. photosynthesis. b. chemosynthesis. c. heterotrophy. d. grazing. e. solar irradiation. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
21. Chemosynthetic bacteria are unique: a. in not requiring CO
2
. b. because they use energy derived from chemicals. c. because they can produce food with low light. d. and are very common in the twilight depths. e. because many forms are also bioluminescent. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
22. Facultative anaerobic bacteria a. do not tolerate oxygen. b. respire in low oxygen. c. are chemosynthetic. d. require oxygen to perform photosynthesis. e. are common in open water samples. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
23. Anaerobic organisms live in ____ areas. a. nitrogen-free. b. oxygen-rich. c. oxygen-free. d. hydrogen-free. e. carbon-free. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
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77 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 24. The process where DNA is duplicated and then the cell divides into two cells is called: a. mitosis. b. meiosis. c. binary fusion. d. auxospore. e. fusion. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 127
25. A rod-shaped bacteria is called: a. coccus. b. auxospore. c. bacillus. d. bacteriophage. e. spirillus. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 127
26. A spherical shaped bacteria is called: a. coccus. b. auxospore. c. bacillus. d. bacteria phage. e. spirillus. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 127
27. Which primary producer listed below is considered the most abundant life form in the sea? a. Dunaliella b. Synechoccus c. Methanococcus d. Pryolobus e. Prochlorococcus ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 128
28. The pigment ____ is commonly found in bacteria but not land plants. a. chlorophyll a b. chlorophyll b c. xanthophyll d. phycocyanin e. carotene. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 130
29. Accessory photosynthetic pigments are important because: a. they can capture different light wavelengths. b. they enable chromatic adaptation with depth and seasons. c. they shield the cell against damaging wavelengths. d. all the above. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 130
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78 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 30. A structure formed from the combination of cyanobacterial microbes and sediments is called: a. a coral reef. b. a bacteria reef. c. a stromatolite. d. a stalactite. e. a stalagmite. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 130
31. The absorption of external organic matter by bacteria is called: a. heterotrophy. b. autotrophy. c. tertiary. d. osmotrophy. e. omnivory. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 128
32. Heterotrophic bacteria are able to break down large food items a. by ingesting them with pseudopods. b. with exoenzymes. c. by breaking them up with cilia. d. by crushing with their larger relative size. e. by using their cell membranes to pinch the food into smaller pieces. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
33. An important role of bacteria is: a. primary producers. b. decomposers. c. nitrogen fixation. d. all of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 131
34. Nutrient recycling in the marine environment is performed by: a. cyanobacteria. b. heterotrophic bacteria. c. autotrophic bacteria. d. purple bacteria. e. sulfur bacteria. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 131
35. Nitrogen fixation is carried out by: a. nitrifying bacteria. b. prochlorophytes. c. cyanobacteria. d. all heterotrophic bacteria. e. only spirilli-shaped bacteria. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 132
–
133
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79 Chapter 6
—
Marine Microbes 36. A special structure on certain cyanobacteria for nitrogen fixation is called a(n): a. ammonia cyst. b. homocyst. c. heterocyst. d. nematocyst. e. pneumatocyst. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 129 | 133
37. Nitrogen fixation and nitrification are directly important processes for: a. heterotrophic animals. b. heterotrophic bacteria. c. autotrophic organisms. d. fungi. e. viruses. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 133
38. A bacteria sample is taken from the immediate vicinity of a hydrothermal vent. You would expect for it to most likely contain a. diatoms. b. hyperthermophiles. c. lignicolous fungi. d. cyanobacteria. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 136
39. Zooxanthellae are members of the following group of Eukaryotes: a. diatoms. b. coccolithophores. c. amoebas. d. dinoflagellates. e. ciliates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 145
40. Harmful algal bloom toxins are produced by: a. diatoms. b. coccolithophores. c. amoebas. d. dinoflagellates. e. radiolarians. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 146
41. Diatoms, coccolithophores and silicoflagellates all belong to the domain: a. Eukarya. b. Eubacteria. c. Archaea. d. Anthophyta. e. Protista. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 139
–
143
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80 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 42. All of following marine microbes have hard skeletal parts that sink to the bottom, forming oceanic sediments, except a. radiolarians. b. coccolithophores. c. foraminiferans. d. diatoms. e. fungi. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 136
–
137 | 141 | 143 | 149 | 150
43. The frustule of diatoms is made of: a. cellulose. b. calcium carbonate. c. silica. d. protein. e. starch. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 140
44. The deposits of the following phytoplankton are used commercially in polishes and filtering devices: a. dinoflagellates. b. foraminiferans. c. coccolithophores. d. diatoms. e. radiolarians. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 141
45. Pseudopods are structures that are primarily found in: a. silicoflagellates. b. amoeboid protozoans. c. coccolithophores. d. diatoms. e. dinoflagellates. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 147
46. You add a weak acid solution to a sample of foraminifera shells, and they bubble and fizz. This tells you that the external shells of foraminiferans are composed of: a. silica. b. protein. c. cellulose. d. calcium carbonate. e. starch. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 149
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81 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 47. The following amoeboid protozoans are important sources of silica deposits in some areas of the world: a. diatoms. b. silicoflagellates. c. radiolarians. d. foraminiferans. e. ciliates. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 150
48. Tintinnids are examples of the following protozoans: a. radiolarians. b. ciliates. c. diatoms. d. foraminiferans. e. dinoflagellates. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 146 | 148
49. The ecological role of fungi is that of: a. decomposers. b. producers. c. grazers. d. predators. e. herbivores. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 137
50. A very close association with two species is called: a. adjoining. b. symbiosis. c. predator -prey. d. host-fungus. e. competition. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 133
TRUE/FALSE
51. The only autotrophic bacteria are chemosynthetic bacteria.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 128
52. Deep-sea vent bacteria do not rely on the sun as a source of energy.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 131
53. Since purple and green bacteria do not use water in their autotrophic processes, they are not photosynthetic.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 131
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82 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 54. Nitrifying bacteria are important in the conversion of nitrogen gas to usable forms of nitrogen.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 132
–
133
55. Chemosynthesis is less efficient than photosynthesis.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 131
56. Amoeboid protozoans are autotrophic.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 147
57. The toxins of dinoflagellates are destroyed by cooking or heating.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 146
58. Diatoms reproduce by binary fission.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 140
–
141
59. Ciliates are autotrophic members of the phytoplankton community.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 146
60. Fungi are surrounded by a cell wall made of chitin.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 136
61. Fungi are usually found in pelagic habitats.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 136
MATCHING
Match the description with the most closely associated term. a. icosahedral heads with helical tails b. protein subunit of the capsid spiral around the central core of the nucleic acid c. capsid with twenty triangular faces 62. Icosahedral
63. Helical
64. Binal
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 124
–
125
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 124
–
125
64. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 124
–
125
Match the bacteria-caused process with the most closely associated characteristic. a. alteration of the electrical charge b. settling out of large particles c. alteration of the pH
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83 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 65. Consolidation
66. Lithification
67. Sedimentation
65. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 131
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 131
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 131
Match the words with the most closely associated words. a. NH
4
+
to NO
2
-
and NO
3
- b. can break the bonds in N
2
molecules c. N
2
to NH
3 68. Nitrogenase
69. Nitrogen fixation
70. Nitrification
68. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 132
–
133
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 132
–
133
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 132
–
133
Match the words with the most closely associated phrase. a. conidiospores b. budding c. ascocarp 71. Marine yeast asexual reproduction
72. Filamentous marine fungi asexual reproduction
73. Filamentous sexual reproduction
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 138
72. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 138
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 138
Match the description with the most closely associated word. a. DHA fatty acid b. planktonic decomposer c. wasting disease 74. Labyrinthulids
75. Thraustochytrids
76. Schizochytrium
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 142
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 142
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 142
Match the characteristic with its most closely associated organisms. a. disc-shaped calcareous scales b. membranous sacs c. silicon frustules
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84 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 77. Diatoms
78. Coccoliths
79. Alveolates
77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 139
–
143
78. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 139
–
143
79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 139
–
143
Match the dinoflagellate characteristic with those it is most closely associated with. a. either osmotrophy or phagotrophy b. important symbionts of coral c. paralytic shellfish poisoning 80. Zooxanthellae
81. "Red Tide"
82. Mixotrophic
80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 145
–
146
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 145
–
146
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 145
–
146
Match the description with the most closely associated word. a. have a lorica b. few body cilia c. dense and uniform distribution of cilia 83. Scuticocilates
84. Oligotrichs
85. Tinitinnids
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 146
84. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 146
85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 146
Match the words with the most closely associated group. a. collar of microvilli traps bacteria prey b. siliceous perforated shell c. reticulopods 86. Foraminiferans
87. Radiolarians
88. Choanoflagellates
86. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 146
–
150
87. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 146
–
150
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 146
–
150
Match the description with the most closely associated group. a. prokaryote in some ways similar to eukaryotes b. original inhabitants of the sea c. nucleus and membrane-bound organelle
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85 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 89. Eubacteria
90. Archaea
91. Eukarya
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 127
90. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 135
91. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 136
ESSAY
92. Briefly explain why viruses are not considered living organisms.
ANS: Viruses lack the ability to metabolize. They rely entirely upon host cells for sources of energy, material, and organelles for duplicating themselves, a process called viral replication.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 123
93. Briefly describe 3 ecological roles of viruses.
ANS: Viruses can suppress or cause declines in microbial blooms as they invade and lyses host cells. Viruses can alter biogeochemical cycles by bacterial lyses. This reduces the food available and releases nutrients. The dead bacteria also sink to ocean floor providing a source of food for benthic communities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 126
94. What would happen if organisms that play the role of heterotrophic bacteria did not exist in the marine environment?
ANS: Marine heterotrophic bacteria play an important role in breaking down and decomposing dead organic matter. The processes of decomposition release nutrients that were locked into tissues back into the marine environment where they can be taken up by marine primary producers. Without these bacteria life would cease in the seas due to a lack of nutrients.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 131
95. Given that oxygen is toxic to anaerobic bacteria, describe how they must have adapted to survive in the present environmental conditions on Earth.
ANS: These bacteria must have evolved at a time when oxygen was scarce or non-existent in the atmosphere and in the oceans. Rather than evolving mechanisms of tolerating oxygen toxicity, they have remained anaerobic by living in anaerobic environments.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 131
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86 Chapter 6
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Marine Microbes 96. Compare and contrast aerobic and aerobic bacterial photosynthesis in terms of a) the source of electrons used by each; b) the final products of both reactions.
ANS: The processes are similar in that both create carbohydrates, but differ in whether oxygen or some other molecule is the final product released. In aerobic photosynthesis, water is used as the electron and hydrogen source to make carbohydrates and oxygen. In contrast, anaerobic photosynthesis often utilizes hydrogen sulfide as an energy source to make carbohydrates, and sulfate, not oxygen, is released.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 131
97. What is meant by the term "paralytic shellfish poisoning"? What are the symptoms, and what organisms are responsible for this disease?
ANS: Paralytic shellfish poisoning is a disease characterized by neurological damage (numbness, nausea, tingling sensations) which may be fatal. It is caused by toxic dinoflagellates that have contaminated filter-feeding shellfish.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 146
98. What is diatomaceous earth? How is it used commercially?
ANS: Diatomaceous earth is the fossilized remains of the siliceous tests of marine diatoms. When these die they sink and form oozes on the bottom. At some point, some of these oozes were uncovered by the sea and formed diatomaceous earth. This material is used today as an abrasive cleaner, as filtration material and in various other industries.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 141
99. Describe the feeding behavior and biology of amoeboid protozoans.
ANS: Amoebas use extensions of their cytoplasm called pseudopodia in their feeding behavior. Pseudopodia first surround food particles, eventually forming a membrane-bound vacuole around the food, which is then internalized and digested by enzymatic secretions.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 147 | 149
100. You are asked to determine whether sulfur bacteria are active in a particular area of an estuary. What observations or tests can you perform to confirm this activity?
ANS: Sulfur bacteria convert H
2
S, which has a characteristic odor and causes blackening of the sediment, into inorganic sulfur. The H
2
S is converted first to sulfur and then to sulfate ion by other bacteria. A test for the presence of sulfate would indicate that these bacteria are present. Furthermore, when sulfate combines with water it forms sulfuric acid and lowers the pH of the water. One could look for reduced pH levels in these areas as a sign of sulfur bacteria activity.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 130
–
131
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87 Chapter 6
—
Marine Microbes 101. What is the importance of nitrogen-fixation to autotrophic organisms?
ANS: Without the process of nitrogen-fixation, no new usable forms of nitrogenous nutrients would be available to autotrophic organisms.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 132
–
133
102. Describe the symbiotic relationship between zooxanthellae and their hosts. How do both benefit from the relationship?
ANS: Zooxanthellae supply their hosts with food from their photosynthetic process. In return, the host provides shelter, nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates, and carbon dioxide, which are all needed by the zooxanthellae for their photosynthesis. In addition, the hosts ensure that the zooxanthellae have access to sunlight by remaining near the surface of the ocean.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 145
–
146 | 149 103. Toxic dinoflagellates can directly harm other organisms during bloom periods by secreting their toxins in the water or by being consumed and concentrated in the tissues of filter-feeding organisms. Can you think of ways in which blooms of non-toxic dinoflagellates may harm other organisms in the water?
ANS: A bloom of non-toxic dinoflagellates can cause a serious reduction in the nutrients available for other autotrophic organisms in the area of the bloom. Once these dinoflagellates deplete the nutrients in the water, they die and are decomposed by microbes. This decomposition can lead to the depletion of oxygen in the water column, which can harm other organisms. Finally, a bloom of non-toxic dinoflagellates can reduce the clarity of the water column, leading to the reduction in the amount of available light to benthic photosynthesizers.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 146
–
147
104. Based on your knowledge of the distribution of CO
2
in the marine environment and the pattern of pressure with depth, explain why calcium carbonate deposits of coccolithophores and foraminiferans are not found below 5000 m.
ANS: Both the concentration of CO
2
and the water pressure increase with increasing depth. Since CO
2
combines with water to form carbonic acid, the pH of the water decreases with depth, which results in the dissolution of calcium carbonate shells. In addition, calcium carbonate is sensitive to increases in pressure.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 149
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88 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Algae are divided taxonomically into different groups based on differences in: a. morphology. b. photosynthetic pigments. c. habitat. d. depth distribution. e. size. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
2. The macroalgae are commonly known as: a. seagrasses. b. seaweeds. c. kelps. d. higher plants. e. phytoplankton. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 157
3. The color of light that penetrates seawater to the greatest depth in coastal waters is: a. blue. b. red. c. green. d. orange. e. yellow ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 159
4. The depth distribution of algae is limited by: a. temperature. b. pressure. c. pH. d. light quality. e. salinity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 159
5. The compensation depth refers to: a. the depth at which seaweed growth compensates for grazers. b. always 3 times the secchi disk depth. c. the depth which provides only enough light for photosynthesis but not growth. d. the depth where competition excludes a species. e. the depth at which phytoplankton dissolve. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 159
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89 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 6. The greatest diversity of algae is found at: a. tropical latitudes. b. polar latitudes. c. subtropical latitudes. d. temperate latitudes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 159
7. In colder regions, some macroalgae die off in winter, but others termed ____ live for at least 2 years. a. perennials b. annuals c. eurythermals d. stenothermals e. biannuals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 159
8. What is the dominant photosynthetic pigment found in all types of algae? a. Chlorophyll b b. Chlorophyll c c. Chlorophyll a d. Phycoerythrin e. Chlorophyll d ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
9. Photosynthetic pigments of algae are found in cells within: a. chloroplasts. b. nuclei. c. cell walls. d. mitochondria. e. vacuoles. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
10. All of the following photosynthetic pigments are found in red algae except: a. chlorophyll a
. b. phycoerythrin. c. fucoxanthin. d. phycocyanin. e. chlorophyll d ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 165 | 168
11. Excess sugars stored by high-latitude algae can a. serve as accessory to cellulose. b. serve as antifreeze in winter. c. keep predators away. d. confuse predators with different colors. e. protect the algae from wave damage. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
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90 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 12. Some algae utilize calcium carbonate to: a. deter herbivores. b. aid in maintaining a proper pH balance. c. assist in photosynthesis. d. replace mucus. e. prevent from freezing. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 163
13. Fragmentation is a type of ____ for drift algae, like Sargassum
. a. mechanism that leads to genetic population structure b. sexual reproduction c. asexual reproduction d. response to high water temperature e. response to herbivory ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
14. When two or more separate mutlicellular algae stages occur in succession during the life cycle, we call this: a. gametangia. b. fragmentation. c. sporangium. d. alternation of generations. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 163
15. Which of these groups of algae could you potentially find in a high mountain lake? a. red b. brown c. green d. cyanobacteria ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 163
16. The phylum of green algae is: a. Rhodophyta. b. Chlorophyta. c. Anthophyta. d. Dinophyta. e. Phaeophyta. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 163
17. Those green algae that have large cells with multiple nuclei are termed: a. multinucleate. b. coenocytic. c. entronucleate. d. diploid. e. haploid. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 163
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91 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 18. The marine macrophyte group with the highest number of species is: a. seagrasses. b. red algae. c. green algae. d. brown algae. e. blue-green algae. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 165
19. The following are all main points of the article Seaweeds and Medicine
, except: a. Seaweeds have been used for thousands of years for therapeutic purposes. b. Vitamin C, iodine, and agar are substances found in seaweeds. c. Phycocolloids are used in the pharmaceutical and biomedical industries. d. It is extremely expensive to extract useful substances from seaweeds. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 161
20. Coralline red algae have an outer covering made of: a. cellulose. b. calcium carbonate. c. silica. d. protein. e. starch ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 165 | 166
21. The haploid stage of the red algae life cycle is called: a. sporophyte. b. zygote. c. gamete. d. gametophyte. e. tetrasporophyte. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 166
22. The diploid stage of the red algae life cycle is called: a. sporophyte. b. zygote. c. gamete. d. gametophyte. e. haptophyte. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 166
23. The carposporphyte ____. a. is a gametophyte b. remains in the female gametoypyte c. contains four sperm cells d. is unique to green algae e. grows into the macroscopic algal form. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 166
–
167
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92 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 24. Red algae are important to biomedical/microbiological laboratories due to the algal production of: a. carageenan. b. algin. c. agar. d. iodine. e. starch. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161 | 167
25. Brown algae belong to the phylum: a. Rhodophyta. b. Chlorophyta. c. Anthophyta. d. Phaeophyta. e. Dinophyta. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168
26. All the following photosynthetic pigments are found in brown algae except: a. chlorophyll a
. b. carotenoids. c. fucoxanthin. d. phycocyanin. e. chlorophyll c. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 168
27. Brown algae can reach up to ____ meters in length. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 e. 200 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168
28. Brown algae are most diverse and abundant along coastlines ____. a. at temperate latitudes b. at the equator c. bordering the Caribbean d. bordering the Indo-Pacific e. in polar regions. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168
29. Most brown algae start life attached to rocks; a notable exception is: a. giant kelp. b. North Atlantic Sargassum. c. feather boa kelp. d. Laminaria
. e. Fucus
. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168
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93 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 30. Rockweed have eliminated the ____ life stage. a. sporophyte b. carpospore c. gametophyte d. zygote e. tetrasporophyte ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 169
31. In the giant kelp the large thallus is the ____ life stage. a. sporophyte b. carpospore c. gametophyte d. zygote e. tetrasporophyte ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 169
32. This structure can grow >50 m long in kelp. a. Blade b. Holdfast c. Stipe d. Gas bladder e. Rhizoid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168
33. Which of the following is false about Sargassum
? a. It is in the division Rhodophyta. b. Some species are pelagic. c. It is common in the Gulf Stream. d. It is buoyed by pnuematocysts. e. It forms a habitat for animals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 168 | 171
34. ____ is an important food additive that is obtained from giant kelp. a. Carageenan b. Alginate c. Agar d. Dulse e. Diatomaceous earth ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 168 | 171
35. All of the following are hydrophytes except: a. turtle grass. b. Zostera
. c. surf grass. d. cordgrass. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 172 | 177
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94 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 36. Marine flowering plants produce ____. a. a sporophyte b. a gametophyte c. tetraspores d. seeds e. carpospores. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 172
37. Seed-producing plants first evolved ____. a. on land b. in freshwater c. in the ocean d. in estuaries e. from red algae ancestors. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 172
38. Flowering plants that are salt tolerant are called a. algae. b. conifers. c. halophytes. d. sporophytes. e. haptophytes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 172
39. An example of a hydrophyte flowering plant that can withstand and thrive under conditions of continued submergence is: a. cordgrass. b. pickle weed. c. salt grass. d. turtle grass. e. blue grass. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 173
40. The horizontal stems of seagrasses are called: a. rhizoids. b. rhizomes. c. stipes. d. blades. e. holdfasts. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 173
41. Most seagrasses add nutrients into the marine food chain via a. DOM. b. detritus. c. herbivory. d. marine geese. e. mucus. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 176
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95 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 42. Which of the following is false about marine plants? a. They are common in protected bays. b. They have xylem and phloem tissues. c. They are found only in tropical areas. d. They produce seeds. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 172-176
43. Springtime vegetative growth in seagrasses is primarily due to metabolism of starch stored in the: a. roots. b. leaves. c. rhizomes. d. turions. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 173
44. The purpose of specialized lacunae are to: a. provide structure to the rhizomes. b. carry oxygen to plant parts. c. provide buoyancy to the blade. d. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 173
–
174
45. In seagrasses the process of water-insoluble fertilization is called a. hydroponic pollination. b. hydrophilous pollination. c. sperm pollination. d. aquatic insemination. e. clonal growth. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 176
46. Salt marsh plants differ from seagrasses in that they: a. are not fully marine plants. b. require freshwater to reproduce. c. are intolerant of full strength seawater. d. are found throughout the world. e. have roots, while seagrasses do not. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 177
47. Salt marsh plants play an important ecological role in a. recycling nutrients. b. stabilizing sediments. c. filtering run-off from coastal areas. d. habitat for small animals. e. all of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 178
–
179
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96 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 48. Saltwort (
Batis
) maintains osmotic balance with a. succulent stems. b. salt glands. c. salt leaves. d. they cannot maintain osmotic balance; they are osmoconformers. e. salt filtration mechanisms in the roots. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 178
49. A mechanism in many salt plants to control osmotic pressure is: a. to remain as osmoconformers. b. to have succulent parts. c. to dry out. d. to go dormant during periods of high salinity. e. to drop leaves. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 178
50. How are giant kelp and sea grass alike? a. both contain chlorophyll a b. both utilize gas-filled spaces for buoyancy c. both lack conductive tissues and rely on diffusion to transport molecules manufactured by photosynthesis d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 168 | 174
51. Mangroves typically occur in/on: a. tropical and subtropical areas. b. temperate areas. c. polar areas. d. open coasts. e. sandy beaches. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 179
52. Mangrove trees have specialized ____ to stabilize the plant in ____. a. roots, mud b. holdfast, rocks c. roots, rocks d. holdfast, mud e. roots, sand ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 179
–
181
53. Pneumatophores are specialized to: a. exchange gas. b. produce nutritive roots. c. stabilize the plant. d. both a and b ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 181
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97 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 54. Which of the following has a role in sediment consolidation similar to that of mangroves? a. red algae. b. seagrasses. c. green algae. d. rockweed. e. giant kelp. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 177 | 181
55. Marine plants may contribute to the prevention of algal blooms by: a. trapping sediments. b. absorbing excess nutrients. c. removing toxic organic pollutants. d. producing detritus. e. blocking sunlight. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 179
56. Organisms that grow on the surface of algae and marine plants are specifically called: a. parasites. b. mutualists. c. anthophytes. d. epiphytes. e. epizooites. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 167
TRUE/FALSE
57. Algae can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 161
58. Algae have no vascular tissue.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 159
59. Red algae can only live in deep waters because their photosynthetic pigments are adapted only for these depths.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 159
60. Bladders on kelp function to anchor the thallus to the substrate.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 168
61. Holdfasts of algae and roots of flowering plants are structurally identical.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 172
62. The sporophyte generation of kelp is dominant and larger than the gametophyte.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 169
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98 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 63. The sporophyte and gametophyte stages of sea lettuce are not identical.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 162
64. Seagrasses are not true grasses.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 173
65. Seagrasses do not produce pollen.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 176
66. The root system of mangroves is extensive and penetrates deep into the sediment.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 179-181
67. The greatest importance of seagrasses and salt marsh plants as a source of food is that they are eaten directly by invertebrates and wildlife.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 176
–
177 | 181
–
183 MATCHING
Match the words with the most closely associated algae type. a. Ulva b. Sargassum c. Porphyra 68. Red algae
69. Brown algae
70. Green algae
68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 165
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 168
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 163
Match the pigment with the most closely associated algae type. a. fucoxanthin b. chlorophylls a and b c. phycoerythrin 71. Red algae
72. Brown algae
73. Green algae
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 165
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 168
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 163
Match the words with the most closely associated algae type. a. gametangia b. tetrasporophyte c. zygote
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99 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 74. Red algae
75. Brown algae
76. Green algae
74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 166
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 170
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 162
Match the words with the most closely associated multicellular producer. a. rhizomes b. coralline c. holdfast 77. Red algae
78. Brown algae
79. Seagrasses
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 166
78. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 168
79. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 173
Match the term with the most closely associated term. a. Tropics b. Temperate; highest diversity in Indo-West Pacific Ocean c. Temperate 80. Seagrasses
81. Marsh plants
82. Mangroves
80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 173
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 177
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 179
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. Culms b. Pneumatophores c. Rhizomes 83. Seagrasses
84. Marsh plants
85. Mangroves
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 179
84. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 173
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 180
–
181
Match the words with the most closely associated multicellular producer. a. Stipe and blade b. Aerenchyme c. Filamentous d. Pelagic
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100 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 86. Seagrasses
87. Red algae
88. Brown algae
89. Sargassum
86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 174
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 165
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 168
89. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 168
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. Matted, with inflated tips b. Flat blade perforated with holes c. Clustered, resembles thin chips 90. Agarum
91. Padina
92. Fucus
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 169
91. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 169
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 170
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. food source for insects b. habitat for nesting birds c. covered with epiphytes 93. Seagrasses
94. Marsh plants
95. Mangrove
93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 174
94. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 179
95. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 183
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. pollinated by the wind b. disperses with floating propagules c. hydrophilous pollination 96. Seagrasses
97. Marsh plants
98. Mangroves
96. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 176
97. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 178
98. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 181
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101 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers ESSAY
99. Explain the basis for how the three groups of macroalgae are divided, and name the main pigment(s) characteristic to each group.
ANS: Algae are divided into three groups based on their color. The color of the different groups of algae derives from the photosynthetic pigments of these algae. Red algae contain the red accessory pigment phycoerythrin; brown algae contain fucoxanthin; and green algae contain chlorophylls a and b, which are not masked by accessory pigments.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 157 | 161
100. How do large kelps transport sugars from the terminal ends of the thallus to the bottom? Is this characteristic of other algae?
ANS: Large kelps need some way of transporting materials from the upper reaches of the thallus to the lower parts that do not receive enough sunlight. In order to facilitate this transport, kelps have tube-like trumpet cells that can carry nutrients down from above. Other algae lack this conductive tissue.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 169
101. Why is it possible for multicellular green and red algae to reproduce asexually by fragmentation but not the brown algae?
ANS: The main reason for this is the simple, unspecialized nature of the tissues of green and red algae. Since one part of the thallus looks essentially the same as another, these cells can simply break off and grow mitotically into a new thallus. Kelps do not generally reproduce via fragmentation because their tissues are too specialized.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 163-167 | 169
–
170 102. If salt marsh plants are facultative halophytes, then why do they live and dominate in salty areas but not elsewhere?
ANS: Salt marsh plants can only compete successfully for space in salty areas where other plants cannot grow well. Because salt marsh plants are adapted to withstand salty conditions they can outgrow other plants that do not have such adaptations. These same salt marsh plants would not be able to compete very well under freshwater conditions because other plants outcompete them.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 178
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102 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 103. Outline at least 3 ecological roles of marine flowering plants.
ANS: Marine flowering plants play a number of ecological roles in their environments. They trap and stabilize sediments, which leads to the building up of coastlines; they filter runoff from land, absorbing harmful chemicals and nutrients, thereby preventing eutrophication of nearby waters; they are an important source for detritus, which supplies food to nearby communities; they are direct sources of food for many grazers; and they are an important shelter for many marine animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 178
–
179
104. What is the importance of accessory photosynthetic pigments to multicellular algae and other photosynthetic organisms?
ANS: Accessory pigments broaden the usable spectrum of available light by absorbing light at wavelengths that are not absorbed by the primary photosynthetic pigment, chlorophyll a.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161
105. What are two functions of mucilage in algae?
ANS: The mucilage helps protect algae from desiccation during periods of low tide. It also may act to remove larvae and sessile organisms that may settle on the surface of the algae, and attach the fertilized egg to a suitable surface.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161 | 171
106. What advantage does phycoerythrin confer upon red algae?
ANS: Phycoerythrin is an accessory pigment that effectively absorbs blue and green light. Since blue and green light penetrate deepest in the oceans but red light does not, the algae would be able to live in deep areas where only blue and green light penetrate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 161 | 165
107. The sporophyte stage of red algae produces spores that are shed into the water. What is the advantage of shedding spores into the water?
ANS: Releasing spores into the water allows them to be carried away by currents, thereby ensuring wide dispersal as a means of colonizing new areas and decreasing competition between new plants and their parents.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 162
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103 Chapter 7
—
Multicellular Primary Producers 108. Describe the life cycle of the giant kelp (
Macrocystis
), including both the gametophyte and sporophyte stages.
ANS: There are two stages in the giant kelp life cycle. The gametophyte, which is greatly reduced in size (microscopic) and the large sporophyte. Here the dominant sporophyte produces spores by meiosis (in the special blades near the base of the thallus called sporophylls), which settle to the bottom to produce a microscopic gametophyte. The gametophyte produces gametes (sperm and eggs). These unite to produce the zygote that matures into a large sporophyte. The spores are negatively phototactic, so they will settle "away" from the surface of the water onto rocks.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 169
–
170
109. Outline at least 3 ecological roles of the giant kelps.
ANS: Giant kelps play a number of ecological roles in their environments. They provide a canopy of high primary productivity. They are an important habitat for numerous species of invertebrates and fish. Many species feed directly on the kelps. They play an important role in protecting bottom communities from strong currents. Dislodged kelps continue to produce, provide protection, and enable juvenile animals to migrate. Beached kelps provide food for an active detritus-based community including amphipods and shore birds.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 171
110. How can seagrasses contribute to the building of the environment in which they live?
ANS: Seagrasses, once they take root in an area, tend to trap suspended particles and cause these to sediment. Accumulated sediments contribute to the sandy/muddy environment in which seagrasses live.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 177
111. The flowers of seagrasses are small and inconspicuous, rather than large, colorful, and scented. Explain why these characteristics are useful in the marine environment.
ANS: Seagrasses are hydrophytes that are usually submerged. In this under-water environment there are no ecological equivalents to insects, which transfer pollen from flower to flower of terrestrial plants. Instead, seagrasses rely on currents for pollination. As a result, there is no need for large conspicuous scented flowers to attract nonexistent insects.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 176
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104 Chapter 7
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Multicellular Primary Producers 112. What are at least 3 adaptations of salt marsh plants for withstanding salty conditions?
ANS: Salt marsh plants have adaptations similar to those of desert plants for reducing water loss or excessive salty conditions. These include having cuticle-covered leaves to prevent water loss, having extensive vascular tissue for efficient water transport, and having thick leaves for water retention. Mangroves also have specific adaptations such as having openings (stoma) only on the underside of leaves and having the ability to concentrate salts in certain leaves that are eventually discarded.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 178
113. Outline at least 3 ecological roles of mangroves.
ANS: Mangroves play a number of ecological roles in their environments. They provide a three-dimensional structure to otherwise muddy intertidal environment. Their root system stabilizes the sediments and aggregate detritus. Their aerial roots provide habitat for epiphytes and crawling organisms. The upper tree portion is home to terrestrial insects, mammals, and birds. They export detritus to other ecosystems and protect shorelines from storm damage.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 181
–
183
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105 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is false about animals? a. they are multicellular. b. they are heterotrophic. c. they are autotrophs. d. they lack cell walls. e. most can actively move. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 189
2. Sponges belong to the phylum: a. Porifera. b. Cnidaria. c. Platyhelminthes. d. Nematoda. e. Tubularia. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 190
3. Sponges live a(n) ____ lifestyle. a. planktonic. b. infaunal. c. nektonic. d. sessile. e. neustonic ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 190
4. The form of the sponge body can best be described as having a. radial symmetry. b. asymmetry. c. bilateral symmetry. d. dorsal-ventral symmetry. e. pentamerous symmetry. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
5. Water exits the sponge spongocoel through the: a. choanocytes. b. spicules. c. ostia. d. osculum. e. pinocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 190
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106 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 6. Water enters the sponge spongocoel through the: a. choanocytes. b. spicules. c. ostia. d. osculum. e. pinocytes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 190
7. A flagellated cell involved in bringing water into the spongocoel of sponges is called a(n): a. spicule. b. choanocyte. c. osculum. d. ostium. e. pinocyte. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 191
8. ____ are cells that move through the sponge's body. a. Collar cells b. Pinococytes c. Archaeocytes d. Spongin e. Spicules ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 191
9. The feeding biology of sponges is referred to as: a. grazing. b. filter feeding. c. carnivory. d. deposit feeding. e. omnivory ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
10. The type of feeding in sponges classifies them as: a. grazers. b. scrapers. c. graspers. d. filter-feeders. e. omnivores. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
11. Sponges are considered: a. animals. b. plants. c. fungi. d. bacteria. e. Archaea. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 190
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107 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 12. A sponge body type consisting of one spongocoel having many folds is called: a. asconoid. b. syconoid. c. leuconoid. d. hexactinellida. e. demospongoid. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 191-192
13. A sponge body type with many chambers lined with collar cells is called: a. asconoid. b. syconoid. c. leuconoid. d. hexactinellida. e. demospongoid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 191
–
192
14. The skeletal elements that give support to a sponge's body are called a. choanocytes. b. spongin. c. spicules. d. collar cells. e. porocytes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 191
15. Sponges can have skeletons made of all these materials except: a. silica. b. calcium carbonate. c. starch. d. spongin. e. protein. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 191
16. Reproduction in sponges includes all except: a. budding. b. sexual. c. fragmentation. d. cloning. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
17. Sponges often compete with other organisms for: a. food. b. space. c. light. d. nutrients. e. mating. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
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108 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 18. Sponges avoid predators by: a. seeking sheltered locations. b. having spicules. c. producing toxins. d. both b and c e. a and b only. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 193
19. Large sponges belonging to the class ____ are harvested for commercial use. a. Hexactinellida b. Sclerospongia c. Spheciospongia d. Demospongia e. Calcarea ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 194
20. Cnidocytes are stinging cells that are characteristic of the phylum: a. Porifera. b. Annelida. c. Echinodermata. d. Cnidaria. e. Ctenophora. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 195
21. Cnidarians that exhibit only the polyp stage in their life cycle are: a. hydrozoans. b. scyphozoans. c. cubozoans. d. anthozoans. e. bryozoans. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 199
22. The Cnidarians possess: a. a water vascular system. b. bi-lateral symmetry. c. stinging cells. d. spicules. e. setae. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 195
23. Cnidarians have ____ symmetry. a. radial. b. asymmetric. c. bilateral. d. dorsal-ventral. e. pentamerous ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 195
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109 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 24. The nematocysts of cnidarians are produced within the: a. cnidocytes. b. cnidocils. c. statocysts. d. mouths. e. pneumatocysts. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 195
–
196
25. Colonial cnidarians that exhibit both the polyp stage and the medusa stage in their life cycles are: a. hydrozoans. b. scyphozoans. c. cubozoans. d. anthozoans. e. bryozoans. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 198
26. Jellyfish and box jellyfish are: a. hydrozoans. b. scyphozoans. c. anthozoans. d. bryozoans. e. protozoans. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 199
27. Common octocorals are the: a. sea pens. b. gorgonians. c. sea anemones. d. fire corals. e. sea nettles. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 201
28. The Portuguese man-o-war is a member of the class: a. Hydrozoa. b. Scyphozoa. c. Cubozoa. d. Anthozoa. e. Bryozoa. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 198
29. An example of a member of the class Anthozoa of the phylum Cnidaria is: a. Portuguese man-o-war. b. jellyfish. c. sea anemone. d. sea wasp. e. hydroid. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 199
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110 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 30. The benthic jellyfish ____ traps plankton to feed on. a. Rhizophysa
sp. b. Cassiopeia
sp. c. Anthopleura
sp. d. Fungia
sp. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 201
31. The cnidarians have an incomplete gut (having only one opening) called the: a. nematocyst. b. coelom. c. gastrovascular cavity. d. pseudointestine. e. spongeocoel. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 198
32. Clown fishes form symbiotic relationships with members of this group of cnidarians: a. siphonophores. b. hydrozoans. c. anthozoans. d. scyphozoans. e. bryozoans. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 203
33. Animals with eight rows of comb plates are called: a. jellyfish. b. seastars. c. ctenophores. d. polycheates. e. octocorals. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 205
34. Ctenophores feed on: a. phytoplankton. b. benthic algae. c. planktonic animals. d. detritus. e. DOM. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 205 | 206
35. Most species of ctenophore are: a. haploid. b. male or female only. c. hermaphroditic. d. asexual. e. none of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 205
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111 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 36. You are walking along the beach and see the remains of an unknown animal washed up on shore. You examine its characteristics and see that it is gelatinous, transparent, bilaterally symmetric, and lacks tentacles. You provisionally identify its phylum according to which choice? a. Gelatinous body rules out Cnidaria. b. Lack of tentacles rules out Cnidaria. c. Bilateral symmetry rules out Platyhelminthes. d. Transparent body rules out Ctenophora. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 195
–
196 | 205 | 207
37. The flatworms have ____ symmetry. a. radial. b. asymmetric. c. bilateral. d. spherical. e. pentamerous. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 207
38. Which of the following is not a member of the phylum Platyhelminthes? a. fluke b. tapeworm c. flatworm d. ribbon worm ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 207
–
208
39. Representatives of free living flatworms are: a. turbellarians. b. cestodes. c. trematodes. d. tapeworms. e. polychaetes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 207
40. Flatworms can reproduce: a. asexually. b. sexually. c. by reciprocal copulation. d. all of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 208
41. Ribbon worms belong to the phylum: a. Nemertea. b. Platyhelminthes. c. Arthropoda. d. Ctenophora. e. Cnidaria. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 208
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112 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 42. How could you tell the difference between a brachiopod and a clam? a. brachiopod is sessile, clam is not b. brachiopod has two valves, clam does not c. brachiopod has a fleshy stalk (pedicel), clam does not d. brachiopod is a filter feeder, clam is not ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 209 | 212
43. Animals that live in the spaces between fine sediment grains are specifically called: a. infauna. b. epiphytic. c. meiofauna. d. epifauna. e. epizoa. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 207
44. All of the following have bilateral symmetry except: a. Nemertea. b. Phoronids. c. Ctenophora. d. Platyhelminthes. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 205
45. Ribbon worms use their ____ for capturing prey. a. epitoke b. proboscis c. pharynx d. lophophore e. choanocytes ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 208
46. Which is not a lophophorate? a. Phoronida b. Ectoprocta c. Brachiopods d. Flukes & tapeworms e. Lamp shells ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 209
47. Colonial animals called moss animals (due to their white encrustations or fuzzy growths) are: a. phoronids. b. bryozoans. c. brachiopods. d. anemones. e. hydroids. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 209
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113 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 48. Which of the following is not bilaterally symmetric? a. turbellarian b. lamp shell c. ribbon worm d. phoronid e. comb jelly ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 205-209
49. The primary feeding type for lophophorates is: a. scavengers. b. attachment predators. c. herbivores. d. filter feeders. e. infaunal detritivores. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 209
TRUE/FALSE
50. Collar cells of sponges function in moving water through the sponge's body.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 191
51. Water enters the spongocoel through the osculum.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 191
52. Sponges feed on attached algae.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 192
53. Asconoid sponges are usually the smallest of all sponges.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 191
54. Sponges can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 192
55. Asexual reproduction in sponges is by binary fission.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 192
56. Sponges are heavily preyed upon by marine fishes.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 193
57. 198 The planktonic form of cnidarians is called a medusa.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 202
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114 Chapter 8
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Lower Invertebrates 58. True jellyfish belong to the class Scyphozoa of the phylum Cnidaria.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 199
59. Both cnidarians and ctenophores manufacture their own nematocysts for capturing prey.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 195 | 205
60. Ctenophores are lined with 10 rows of long tentacles used for locomotion.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 205
61. Turbellarians detect small prey items using chemoreceptors.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 207
62. Cephalization is the evolutionary tendency toward the concentration of sense organs at one end of the body of bilateral animals.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 207
63. Ribbon worms (phylum Nemertea) primarily feed on sediment, as earthworms do.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 208
–
209
MATCHING
Match the characteristic with the most closely associated animal group. a. bilateral symmetry b. many types are asymmetric c. radially symmetric 64. Porifera
65. Ctenophora
66. Platyhelminthes
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 190
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 205
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 207
Match the words with the animals they are most closely associated with. a. comb plates b. filter feeder c. reef forming 67. Porifera
68. Cnidaria
69. Ctenophora
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 190
68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 201
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 205
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115 Chapter 8
—
Lower Invertebrates Match the words with the animals they are most closely associated with. a. Cilia for locomotion b. Collar cells c. Stinging cells 70. Porifera
71. Cnidaria
72. Platyhelminthes
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 191
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 195
72. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 207
Match the ecological role with the animal group it is most closely associated with. a. Carnivores on zooplankton b. Filter feeders c. Carnivores on benthic infauna 73. Porifera
74. Nemertea
75. Ctenophora
73. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 192
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 208
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 205
Match the dominant stage with the class it is most closely associated with. a. polyp b. medusa and polyp c. medusa 76. Hydrozoan
77. Scyphozoan
78. Anthozoan
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 198
–
201
77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 198
–
201
78. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 198
–
201
Match the sponge type with the description of body plan. a. Complex folding b. Vase shape c. Simple folding 79. Asconoid
80. Syconoid
81. Leuconoid
79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 191
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 191
81. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 191
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116 Chapter 8
—
Lower Invertebrates Match the animal group with its most closely associated food gathering tool. a. Proboscis b. Nematocysts c. Collar cells 82. Cnidarians
83. Porifera
84. Nemertea
82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 195
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 191
84. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 208
Match the term with its most closely associated animal group. a. Gastrovascular cavity b. Stylet c. Spongocoel 85. Ribbon worms
86. Cnidarian
87. Porifera
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 208
86. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 195
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 190
Match the life stage with its most closely associated feature. a. Attached form b. Larval form c. Free floating larval and adult form 88. Medusa
89. Polyp
90. Planula
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 195
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 195
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 202
ESSAY
91. What are 4 distinguishing characteristics that separate animals from other organisms?
ANS: Animals are multicellular, eukaryotic, and lack cell walls. They cannot produce their own food and with the exception of adult sponges, can actively move.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 189
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117 Chapter 8
—
Lower Invertebrates 92. What characteristics of sponges allow sexual reproduction by fragmentation?
ANS: Sponges, unlike many other animals, lack specialized tissues that would preclude asexual reproduction by fragmentation. So if a piece of a sponge breaks off, it may grow into a new sponge.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 192
93. What are the three classes of cnidarians and how do they differ from each other?
ANS: Class Hydrozoa includes colonial cnidarians that posses both polyp and medusoid stages during their development. Hydrozoans include both sessile and planktonic representatives. Members of the class Scyphozoa include solitary jellyfish that usually only posses a medusoid stage that is planktonic rather than sessile. Class Anthozoa contains the anemones and coral polyps. Only the polyp stage is present in this group, which contains sessile animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 198
–
201
94. What is meant by the term "cephalization"? Identify at least 4 animal phyla that possess this feature.
ANS: Cephalization refers to the evolutionary tendency toward the formation of a head in which sensory organs are concentrated. This trend can be seen in bilateral animals from any of the phlya above the simple flat worms (except phylum Echinodermata; its members display pentamerous symmetry and lack cephalization).
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 208
95. Describe the three main body types of sponges. Which of the three body types is usually the largest? Why?
ANS: The three body types are the simple asconoid sponges, with one spongocoel and very little surface area; the syconoid sponges, which have a spongocoel surrounded by many layers of tissue and ostia; and the leuconoid body type with many spongocoels surrounded by dense ostia. Of the three, the leuconoid body plan supports the largest sponges because the very large surface area means there is a large volume of water circulating within the sponge that can support this large body.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall / Synthesis REF: 191
–
192
96. What are 2 functions of naturally produced chemical defenses in sponges?
ANS: Sponges have long been known to be relatively immune to bacterial infections. Sponges produce antimicrobial chemicals within their tissues that ward off bacteria. Other sponges use chemicals, which inhibit the settlement of larvae of other sessile animals on the sponges' tissues and may also clear a particular rock surface of encrusting algae and sessile animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 193 | 194
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118 Chapter 8
—
Lower Invertebrates 97. What are the advantages of radial symmetry to a sessile or slow moving organism?
ANS: Since sessile organisms do not move, it would be disadvantageous if all the sensory organs of the animal were located at one end of the animal. This arrangement would leave the opposite end unprotected. Radial symmetry allows the equal distribution of senses around the body in a manner not unlike the distribution of guard towers around a castle. Food can be collected from any direction by feeding structures around the animal. This same argument can be applied to slow moving animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 195
98. What characteristics of flat worms allow them to use diffusion to excrete waste materials and take up oxygen (and for some kinds, to absorb nutrition from their hosts)?
ANS: In order for these biological processes to occur, there must be a large surface area relative to the volume of the animal. Flatworms achieve a relatively large surface area by being small, very thin, and flat, all of which increase their surface area without substantially increasing their body volume.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: enrichment; not in text
99. If all the meiofaunal organisms were eliminated from a sandy beach, how would that affect the habitat and the trophic structure of the beach?
ANS: Meiofaunal organisms are an important link between microscopic bacteria, rotifers and other small infaunal organisms. The meiofauna eat these small organisms and, in turn, are eaten by larger predators. Without meiofauna, the secondary production of these microscopic infauna would be lost to the trophic system of the sandy beac
h, and the beach wouldn’t be able to support many larger consumers.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 208
100. Name the three animal phyla that feed and respire with a lophophore.
ANS: Three phyla that use a lophophore are Phoronida, Ectoprocta, and Brachiopoda.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 209
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119 Chapter 9
—
Higher Invertebrates Chapter 9
—
Higher Invertebrates
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The molluscs: a. do not have a larvae stage. b. lack a digestive system. c. have bodies divided into segments. d. possess a soft body covered with a mantle. e. make a chitinous shell. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 215
2. Chitons, snails, clams and squid all belong to this phylum: a. Mollusca. b. Gastropoda. c. Bivalvia. d. Platyhelminthes. e. Cephalopoda. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 215
3. Which are not correctly paired? a. Gastropodia - snails b. Cephalapodia - squid c. Bivalvia - mussels d. Gastropoda - clams e. Bivalvia - scallops ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 217
–
224
4. The visceral mass of molluscs does not contain the a. circulatory system. b. excretory system. c. nervous system. d. head-foot. e. digestive system. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 215
5. The digestive system of molluscs is found in the: a. head. b. foot. c. mantle. d. visceral mass. e. mantle cavity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 215
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120 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 6. The odontophore of molluscs is part of the: a. digestive system. b. nervous system. c. excretory system. d. defense system. e. reproductive system. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
7. The nephridium of molluscs is part of the: a. reproductive system. b. excretory system. c. nervous system. d. digestive system. e. defense system. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 215 | 217
8. The structure used for secreting the shell of many molluscs is called the: a. foot. b. visceral mass. c. mantle. d. tentacles. e. radula ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 216
9. The radula functions to: a. filter feed. b. assist in reproduction. c. scrape algae off of rocks. d. assist in osmoregulation. e. secrete the shell. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 216
10. The outer layer of the molluscan shell is called the ____ layer. a. foot b. collagen c. nacreous d. prismatic e. periostracum ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 216
11. The molluscan shell does not contain the: a. periostracum. b. prismatic layer. c. narceous layer. d. mantle. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 216
–
217
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121 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 12. Molluscs with a tubular shell and sheath foot are: a. scaphopods. b. gastropods. c. bivalves. d. cephalopods. e. nudibranchs. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
–
218
13. Animals covered by eight overlapping shells on their dorsal surface are a. chitons. b. octopuses. c. shrimp. d. crabs. e. lobsters. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
14. Most intertidal chitons are considered a. grazers. b. predators. c. scavengers. d. filter feeders. e. infauna. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
15. Intertidal chitons and snails use the ____ as a means of attachment to the rocks. a. foot b. mantle c. visceral mass d. head e. radula ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
16. Molluscs that live in a tusk-like shell that is open at both ends belong to the class: a. Polyplacophora. b. Scaphopoda. c. Cephalopoda. d. Gastropoda. e. Bivalvia. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 217
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218
17. Many gastropods have external shells composed of: a. two valves. b. eight overlapping valves. c. a series of internal chambers. d. one valve. e. chitin. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 218
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122 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 18. Which genus of gastropod has been reported to have caused human fatalities? a. Cyphoma b. Cassis c. Conus d. Busycon e. Nassarius ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 220
19. Nudibranchs belong to the class ____ of the phylum Mollusca. a. Gastropoda b. Cephalopoda c. Bivalvia d. Polyplacophora e. Pulmonata ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 220
20. The ____ have cerata on their surface for gas exchange. a. nudibranchs b. limpets c. scaphpods d. chitons e. cephalopods ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 220
21. The opening of the shells of some gastropods is protected by the: a. parapodia. b. setae. c. operculum. d. head. e. cerata ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 218
22. The most common planktonic stage of the majority of marine gastropod species is the: a. trochophore larva. b. veliger larva. c. megalopa larva. d. zoea larva. e. planula larva. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 221
23. Molluscs having two jointed valves or shells belong to the class: a. Gastropoda. b. Cephalopoda. c. Bivalvia. d. Polyplacophora. e. Scaphopoda. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 223
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123 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 24. Most bivalves are: a. predators. b. parasites. c. filter feeders. d. grazers. e. detritivores. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 223
25. The valves of bivalves are closed by the action of: a. siphons. b. adductor muscles. c. longitudinal muscles. d. myomeres. e. mantle contractions. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 223
26. The siphuncle of nautiloids is used for: a. regulating respiration rate. b. providing propulsion. c. regulating water and gas content within the chambers. d. capturing food. e. reproduction ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 224
27. Chromatophores are specialized cells in cephalopods that are responsible for: a. bioluminescence. b. changing colors. c. regulating buoyancy. d. maintaining osmotic balance. e. excreting nitrogenous wastes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 227
28. The following phylum is characterized by having a hydrostatic skeleton: a. Mollusca. b. Annelida. c. Cnidaria. d. Porifera. e. Platyhelminthes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 229
29. Spiny bristles used for locomotion that emanate from the segments of annelids are called: a. pharynx. b. parapodia. c. epitokes. d. setae. e. prostomia. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 229
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124 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 30. The most common marine annelids are: a. polychaetes. b. roundworms. c. earthworms. d. leeches. e. ribbon worms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 229
31. Epitokes of polychaetes are: a. feeding structures. b. respiratory structures. c. reproductive individuals. d. excretory structures. e. feeding individuals. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 232
32. Which is not a typical food item for polychaetes? a. live capture of fish b. live capture of invertebrates c. detritus d. suspension feeding on plankton ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 230
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232
33. A pile of castings outside the burrow of a polychaete indicates it a. has just dug a burrow. b. has completed a meal of other worms. c. is a filter feeder. d. is a selective deposit feeder. e. is a nonselective deposit feeder. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 231
34. Swarming in polychaetes for reproduction appears to be timed by: a. biorhythms of the animals. b. lunar cycle and tides. c. solar cycle and tides. d. temperature. e. current direction. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 232
35. The echiuran Urechis
is also known as: a. the peanut worm. b. the lugworm. c. the innkeeper worm. d. the beardworm. e. the fan worm. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 233
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125 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 36. The sipunculid worms are also called: a. peanut worms. b. lugworms. c. innkeeper worms. d. fanworms. e. beardworms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 233
37. What do shipworms and a peanut worms have in common? a. both can bore through hard substrata. b. both are filter feeders. c. both are in the same phylum. d. both are hermaprodites. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 224 | 233
38. An important role of burrowing animals is: a. reducing detritus in the sediment. b. maintaining the structure of marine sediments. c. nutrient cycling. d. circulating water near the bottom. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 231
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232
39. Marine worms play an important role in the food chain by a. consuming organic matter. b. removing biotoxins from the ecosystem. c. being prey for larger marine organisms. d. both a and b. e. b and c only. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 230
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232
40. Cage exclusion studies have demonstrated that polychaetes are a common prey item of: a. gray whales. b. crabs. c. fish. d. both b and c. e. a and b only. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 230
41. A Tampa Bay study demonstrated species diversity and abundance of polychaetes within a square meter was in excess of: a. 10,000 individuals among 50 species. b. 13,000 individuals among 37 species. c. 50,000 individuals among 50 species. d. 100,000 individuals among 37 species. e. 100,000 individuals among 50 species. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 230
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126 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 42. Which of the following has not contributed to the evolutionary success of arthropods? a. jointed appendages b. water vascular system c. well-developed sense organs d. hard exoskeleton e. compound eyes ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 235
43. The exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of: a. chitin. b. silica. c. cellulose. d. calcium carbonate. e. starch. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 235
44. All of the following apply to the subphylum Chelicerata of the phylum Arthropoda except: a. they have chelicerae. b. males are smaller than females. c. body is composed of three parts. d. they have three pairs of antennae. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 235
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236
45. The function of chelicerae is similar to that of the __________ in crabs and lobsters. a. reproductive organs. b. antenna. c. mouthparts. d. claws. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 235
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236
46. Of the marine arthropods, in which group does the male carry the eggs? a. Mandibulates b. Crustaceans c. Decapoda d. Sea spiders e. Barnacles ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 236
47. Arthropods having two pairs of antennae belong to the subphylum: a. Chelicerata. b. Insecta. c. Crustacea. d. Pycnogonida. e. Cirrepedia. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 236
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127 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 48. The molting process is a means for arthropods to: a. remove winter coat. b. slough off attached anemones. c. grow. d. develop a new color pattern. e. attract mates. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 236
49. The crabs, lobster, and true shrimp are members of the order: a. Stomatopoda. b. Decapoda. c. Euphausiacea. d. Amphipoda. e. Isopoda. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 236
50. Which of the following is not a decapod? a. shrimp b. lobster c. crab d. krill ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 236 | 239
51. What is false about decapods? a. first walking legs are usually modified. b. eyes are compound. c. they have only one pair of antennae. d. mandibles are used to crush food. e. sexes are usually separate. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 236
52. An important food source for baleen whales are: a. shrimp. b. krill. c. lobsters. d. crabs. e. horseshoe crabs. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 239
53. ____ can dominate the zooplankton community of temperate waters. a. Copepods b. Amphipods c. Barnacles d. Shrimp e. Heteropods ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 240
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128 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 54. Barnacles live a(n) ____ lifestyle. a. planktonic b. infaunal c. nektonic d. sessile e. mobile ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 241
55. The beach flea Talitrus is a member of the order: a. Stomatopoda. b. Decapoda. c. Euphausiacea. d. Amphipoda. e. Isopoda. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 240
56. What do cephalopods and crustaceans have in common? a. they both have sharp, tearing beaks. b. both have compound eyes. c. both are nektonic predators. d. in males, both transfer spermatophores into the female. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 228 | 239
57. Spiny skinned organisms that have a water vascular system belong to the phylum: a. Echinodermata. b. Chordata. c. Bryozoa. d. Arthropoda. e. Mollusca. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
58. Echinoderms exhibit modified ____ symmetry. a. asymmetric b. bilateral c. radial d. triradial ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
59. Small structures used for removing debris from the surface of sea stars are: a. madreporites. b. spines. c. tubercles. d. pedicellariae. e. the dermal gills. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
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129 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 60. What is false about sea stars? a. they cannot regenerate. b. broadcast spawning is common. c. asexual reproduction is common. d. tube feet are located on the oral surface. e. stomach is everted to digest its prey. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 243
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244
61. Water enters the water vascular system of echinoderms through the: a. spines. b. mouth. c. madreporite. d. tubercle. e. tube feet. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
62. Brittle stars are members of the class ____ of the phylum Echinodermata. a. Asteroidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Echinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Crinoidea. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 245
63. Those echinoderms with a globular or flattened test are of the class: a. Holothuroidea. b. Asteroidea. c. Ophiuroidea. d. Echinoidea. e. Crinoidea. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 246
64. The class of echinoderms that releases tubules or eviscerates internal organs is called: a. Holothuroidea. b. Asteroidea. c. Ophiuroidea. d. Echinoidea. e. Crinoidea. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 247
65. An ancient class of echinoderms whose members are suspension feeders with long, feathery arms is called: a. Asteroidea. b. Crinoidea. c. Ophiuroidea. d. Echinoidea. e. Holothuroidea. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 247
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248
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130 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 66. ____ are sea stars that have greatly affected coral reefs in the past by their feeding habits. a. Crown of thorns b. Purple sea urchin c. Red sea urchin d. Serpent stars e. Sea lilies ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 249
67. A toothed, biting structure found in the mouths of sea urchins that is used for rasping algae is called: a. a tube foot. b. Aristotle's lantern. c. a pedicellaria. d. an ambulacral groove. e. a dermal denticle. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 246
68. Sea cucumbers and sedentary annelid worms share all but which in common? a. both can be deposit feeders. b. both have oral structures to collect detritus. c. similar body segmentation. d. digestive tract is a straight tube ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 229
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232 | 247
69. Sea cucumbers belong to the class: a. Asteroidea. b. Ophiuroidea. c. Echinoidea. d. Holothuroidea. e. Crinoidea. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 247
70. The process by which sea cucumbers protect themselves from predators by releasing their internal organs is called: a. regeneration. b. cryptic behavior. c. evisceration. d. deposit feeding. e. molting. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 247
71. The tunic of tunicates is composed of: a. a cellulose-like substance. b. chitin. c. silica. d. calcium carbonate. e. starch. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 249
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131 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 72. An example of an invertebrate chordate belongs in the subphylum: a. Vertebrata. b. Urochordata. c. Chelicerata. d. Crustacea. e. Pycnogonida. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 249
73. Larvacean tunicates feed by means of: a. a mucus bubble that surrounds them. b. feathery appendages. c. sharp teeth. d. sucking on benthic deposits. e. collar cells. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 251
74. A sea squirt uses its ____ for food collection and gas exchange. a. siphon b. pharynx c. tunic d. mantle e. radula ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 250
75. What do sea squirts and mussels have in common? a. both are in the same phylum. b. both have incurrent and excurrent siphons. c. both are covered in a tunic. d. both reproduce asexually. e. both attach to the substrate using the same materials. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 223
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224 | 250
76. ____ are important as food in parts of Asia, and fed to chickens in Brazil. a. Sea squirts b. Salps c. Larvaceans d. Cephalochordates e. Nudibranchs ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 251
77. The lancelet looks like a fish but is considered an invertebrate because it: a. lacks lungs. b. lacks a nerve cord. c. lacks a backbone. d. both b and c ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 251
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132 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 78. An arrowworm is a type of planktonic a. herbivore. b. detritivore. c. carnivore. d. omnivore. e. filter feeder. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
79. Arroworms seize their prey with: a. tetrodotoxin. b. stinging cells. c. engulfing with their mouth. d. oral tentacles. e. grasping spines. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
80. Arroworms immobilize their prey with: a. tetrodotoxin. b. stinging cells. c. engulfing with their mouth. d. oral tentacles. e. grasping spines. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
81. The role of arroworms in the pelagic ecosystem is to: a. filter feed on small plankton. b. link primary and higher consumers in the food chain. c. prevent grazers from population explosions. d. scavenge nutrition from dying animals. e. recycle nutrients from detritus. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 243
82. Which of the following is not a characteristic of salps? a. Free-swimming lifestyle b. Incurrent and excurrent siphons c. Radial symmetry d. Bioluminescence e. Filter-feeding ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 251
TRUE/FALSE
83. Every type of mollusc has a radula.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 223
84. Snails, limpets and abalone are all gastropods.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 218
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133 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 85. Most cephalopods are benthic deposit feeders.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 227
86. Crustaceans have paired antennae.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 236
87. Chitons roll up into a ball for protection when removed from a rock.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 217
88. Scaphopods use tentacles on their heads for capturing their prey.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 218
89. All gastropods are grazers.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 219
90. All gastropods are covered by one external shell.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 220
91. The tentacles of squids bear hooks, while those of octopus do not.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 226
92. The invertebrate phylum having the greatest species diversity is Arthropoda.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 235
93. In chelicerates, the abdomen and telson are fused.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 235
94. Sea spiders belong to the subphylum Crustacea.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 236
95. Most large crustaceans exchange gases through their exoskeletons.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 236
96. A common larval form of barnacles is the cyprid larva.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 239
97. Tube feet of sea stars are used for feeding in addition to locomotion.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 243
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244
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134 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 98. Sea cucumbers belong to the class Echinoidea.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 245
99. Sea urchins are mostly carnivores.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 246
MATCHING
Match the phylum with the distinguishing features. a. Exoskelton, jointed legs b. Foot, mantle c. Lancelets 100. Mollusca
101. Arthropoda
102. Cephalochordata
100. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 215
101. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 235
102. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 251
Match the phylum with the distinguishing feature. a. Transparent, torpedo-shaped body b. Water-vascular system c. Post-anal tail 103. Echinodermata
104. Chordata
105. Chaetognatha
103. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 243
104. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 249
105. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 243
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. benthic filter feeders; live as infauna b. all types of feeding represented c. benthic filter feeders; live as epifauna 106. Urochordata (tunicates)
107. Cephalochordata
108. Echinodermata
106. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 250
107. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 251
108. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 243
Match the molluscan class with its most closely associated characteristic. a. eight plates b. head foot c. stomach foot
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135 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates d. gills strain seawater to collect plankton 109. Gastropod
110. Polyplacophora
111. Cephalopod
112. Bivalvia
109. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 218
110. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 217
111. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 224
112. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 223
Match the molluscan shell layer with its relative position. a. inner layer b. outer layer c. middle layer 113. Periostracum
114. Prismatic
115. Nacreous
113. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 216
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217
114. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 216
–
217
115. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 216
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217
Match the characteristic of the coleoid group with the group. a. eight arms b. ten arms in five pairs c. small internal shell d. large external shell 116. Cuttlefish
117. Octopus
118. Squid
119. Nautilus
116. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 224
–
226
117. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 224
–
226
118. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 224
–
226
119. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 224
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226
Match the characteristic with the organism it is most closely associated with. a. Photophore b. Chelicerae c. Mandibles 120. Horseshoe crab
121. Crustaceans
122. Krill
120. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 235
121. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 236
122. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 239
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136 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates Match the class with its most closely associated habitat. a. Sessile on solid substrate b. Sand beaches c. Pelagic 123. Copepods
124. Barnacles
125. Beach fleas
123. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 240
124. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 241
125. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 240
Match the words with the most closely associated organism. a. Bilateral flattened b. Five arms attach to central region c. Radial oval test d. Five arms attach to a round central disk 126. Sea stars
127. Sea urchins
128. Sand dollars
129. Brittle stars
126. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 243
127. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 246
128. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 246
129. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 245
Match the words with the most closely associated organism. a. Eel-like infauna b. Sessile epifauna c. Barrel-shaped, transparent plankton 130. Sea squirts
131. Salps
132. Lancelets
130. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 249
131. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 251
132. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 251
ESSAY
133. Describe how and why some species of nudibranchs use the stinging nematocysts of cnidarians.
ANS: The diet of some nudibranchs consists of anemones that live on the bottom. Rather than digesting the stinging nematocysts of these anemones, the nudibranchs retain these structures in the tips of their gills and use them for their own defense.
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137 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 220
134. Identify the main types of bivalves and describe how they differ in their life habits.
ANS: Included within the class Bivalvia are the mussels, oysters, clams, and scallops. Mussels and oysters tend to be sessile animals that filter feed on suspended phytoplankton. Clams are bivalves that live in sandy or muddy environments and move about using a hatchet-shaped foot. They feed by sucking in water through an incurrent siphon. Scallops are benthic epifauna and some free-living species swim by clapping their shells.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 223
–
224
135. Describe the symbiosis between wood-boring bivalves and the bacteria inhabiting their guts. How do both organisms benefit from the relationship?
ANS: This is a mutualistic relationship. The bivalves have long guts that also contain certain cellulose-
digesting bacteria. These adaptations aid in digesting wood. The bacteria have a protected home in the animal’s intestinal tract, while the bivlaves get an energy source from the action of the bacterial enzymes on the wood.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 224
136. Unlike other decapods, hermit crabs are covered by a very thin and light exoskeleton that does not confer much protection against predators. How is this a selective advantage for the hermit crabs?
ANS: Hermit crabs do not need a very hard exoskeleton since they utilize the shells of dead gastropods for their protection. This means that the hermit crabs can channel their energy into other metabolic processes rather than expending it on hard exoskeletons.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 238
137. Contrast the various functions of the mantle between Cephalopods and Gastropods.
ANS: The mantle is responsible for secreting calcium carbonate into the production of the shell of molluscs. In the cephalopods, the mantle cavity is contracted forcefully to generate a jet of water, providing forward propulsion. In other molluscs, such as some snails, the mantle is used for gas exchange.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 216 | 226
138. What features of cephalopods have allowed some species to grow to large sizes relative to gastropods?
ANS: The lack of a shell in these animals means that they can grow to large sizes without having to carry a proportionally large and heavy shell. These animals rely on their very strong swimming ability to escape potential predators, which may have precluded the need for a large shell.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 224
–
228
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138 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 139. Describe the method by which nautiloids regulate their buoyancy.
ANS: Tissue called the siphuncle extends into the chambers of the nautiloid shell. This tissue first removes salts from the seawater in the chambers by actively pumping these salts against a concentration gradient. Next, the dilute water remaining in the chambers moves into the siphuncle tissue by osmosis and it is replaced by metabolic gases that diffuse out of the siphuncle. The animal can control how much gas diffuses into or out of the siphuncle, thereby regulating buoyancy.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 224
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225
140. What are the 2 main anatomical adaptations that contributed to the evolutionary success of arthropods?
ANS: Arthropods have unique structures and adaptations that have allowed them to evolve into the varied number of species we see today. These structures include the development of a hard exoskeleton, which affords arthropods protection from predators and abrasive agents. In addition, arthropods have jointed appendages that allow flexible and efficient movement, feeding, and sensory ability. Finally, having a well-developed nervous system with one or more brains and a sophisticated ventral nerve cord has allowed arthropods to master the environment in which they live.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 235
141. Discuss 3 reasons why the crustaceans are considered the most important group of arthropods in the marine environment.
ANS: The crustaceans have the most numerous species, highest abundance, and most diverse ecological roles. Many of the smaller species feed directly on primary producers; others are important detritovores, thus providing a link to the higher trophic levels. Many species are predators, thus adding complexity to the marine food web. The largest marine species, including the baleen whales, feed on crustaceans. Some such as crabs, shrimp, and lobster are part of the human diet.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 241
142. Describe 3 anatomical features that distinguish a bivalve from the phylum Mollusca from a brachiopod.
ANS: Even though both bivalves and brachiopods have two shells that enclose the animals, there are a number of differences between the two in the shape of the shell and anatomy of the animals. First, the shells of brachiopods are unequal and are dorsal and ventral compared to the bivalve shells, which are left and right and are equal in size. Second, brachiopods attach to the substrate by means of an elongated pedicle that does not exist in bivalves. Finally, the brachiopods feed by means of a ring of tentacles called a lophophore, which they use for capturing detritus. Bivalves rely on their siphons for bringing water and food into their cavities.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 223
–
224
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139 Chapter 9
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Higher Invertebrates 143. Even though echinoderms are considered advanced invertebrates, they are radially symmetric in a way similar to the simple cnidarians. What advantage does radial symmetry confer upon echinoderms?
ANS: Echinoderms are slow moving animals. As a result, they would be at a disadvantage if all of their sense organs were concentrated at one end of their bodies. For this reason, a better arrangement for their lifestyle would be radial symmetry by which they would be able to sense their environment from all directions.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 243
144. Why is it especially important that some echinoderms, like the sea stars, maintain an aboral surface free of debris and settling larvae?
ANS: Sea stars rely on a water vascular system for their locomotion, feeding, respiration, and excretion. In order to function properly, the water vascular system has to have a constant flow of water entering through the madriporite on the aboral surface. Because of this, sea stars must keep the area around the madriporite free of debris, which they do using pedicellariae.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 243
145. Echinoderms often have an important ecological effect on their environment. Provide at least 2 examples of their effects in particular locations.
ANS: Pacific coral reefs were being damaged by the crown-of-thorns sea star predation on corals. Sea urchin explosions have been attributed to a reduction in kelp forests off California. The sea urchin population became excessive in the Atlantic, preventing lobsters from accessing traps, and leading the fisherpersons to switch from lobsters to sea urchins.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 248
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249
146. What ecological roles do burrowing polychaetes play in the marine environment?
ANS: Many burrowing polychaetes are deposit feeders and actively pass sediments through their bodies during their feeding and digging activities. This leads to oxygenation and regeneration of the sediments.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 234
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235
147. Describe the symbiotic relationships of tube-dwelling and burrowing worms.
ANS: Those species that are not carnivorous provide a protected and ventilated home for many commensal organisms. There are commensal polychaetes that live with other animals, often using color camouflage to hide themselves.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 235
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140 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The earliest fish are represented today by: a. hagfish. b. lamprey. c. sharks. d. both a and b. e. both b and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 257
2. What characteristic does not describe a vertebrate? a. notochord. b. backbone. c. exoskeleton. d. gills or lungs. e. posterior tail. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 257
3. The feeding mode of hagfishes is considered: a. predation. b. scavenging. c. suspension feeding. d. both a and b. e. b and c only. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 259
4. Hagfish are caught commercially for their a. oil. b. mucus. c. meat. d. hide. e. scales. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 259
5. A defense mechanism of hagfish is ____. a. to tie into a knot to prevent them from being swallowed. b. foul odor. c. abundant mucus. d. detection by the semicircular canals followed by avoidance. e. a sharp fin spine. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 259
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141 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 6. The feeding mode of adult lampreys is considered: a. parasitism. b. scavenging. c. predation. d. grazing. e. filter feeding. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
7. Ammocoetes, the larval forms of lampreys, feed: a. on suspended particles. b. on other fishes. c. on benthic deposits. d. by parasitizing other fish. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
8. The largest known fish is: a. the blue whale. b. the whale shark. c. the megamouth shark. d. the great white shark. e. the humpback whale. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
9. The skin of sharks is covered with scales called: a. placoid. b. cycloid. c. ctenoid. d. ganoid. e. circular. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
10. The forward thrust of swimming sharks is created by: a. the pectoral fins. b. the pelvic fins. c. the dorsal fin. d. the caudal fin. e. the anal fin. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
11. A fish in which a sharp spine is associated with the dorsal fins is the: a. spiny dogfish. b. sea bass. c. hagfish. d. sea horse. e. goldfish. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
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142 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 12. The claspers of cartilaginous fishes are used for: a. clasping onto prey. b. clasping onto the sediment. c. reproduction. d. propulsion. e. balance. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
13. Sharks obtain neutral buoyancy by producing an oil called: a. buoyancy. b. squalene. c. Omega-3. d. fish oil. e. ambergris. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 273
14. Squalene is produced by the ____ of sharks. a. kidneys b. heart c. livers d. muscle e. gall bladder ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 273
15. The majority of a shark's brain is devoted to processing signals of: a. touch. b. olfaction. c. taste. d. electricity. e. vision. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 273
16. About 2/3 of a shark's brain is used for: a. control of body movement. b. processing electrical currents from the water. c. olfaction. d. vision. e. processing water pressure differences. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 273
17. The nictitating membrane of sharks is used to: a. protect the gills. b. line the mouth. c. enclose the internal organs. d. detect smells. e. cover the eye. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
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143 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 18. Neuromast cells are associated with the ____ of sharks. a. eyes b. lateral line c. nostrils d. brain e. ampullae ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
19. The neuromast cells are part of the system to a. process light. b. sense electrical currents in the water. c. control balance. d. detect vibrations. e. detect dissolved chemicals. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
20. The ampullae of Lorenzini are specialized organs for detecting ____ that are found in sharks. a. smells b. vibrations of the water c. tastes d. electrical output e. water pressure ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
21. The spiral valve is a specialized structure found within: a. bony fishes. b. sharks. c. sea turtles. d. lampreys. e. sea birds. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 275
22. The rectal gland of sharks is involved in the excretion of: a. urea. b. sodium chloride. c. calcium and magnesium. d. trimethyamine oxide. e. carbon dioxide. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
23. The kidneys of sharks excrete ions of: a. urea. b. salts. c. calcium and magnesium. d. trimethyamine oxide. e. ammonia. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
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144 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 24. A shark reproduction scheme in which the embryos develop within eggs that supply all their nourishment inside the oviduct of the female is called: a. ovoviviparous. b. viviparous. c. spawning. d. oviparous. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 278
25. Which of the following is not a measure to avoid a shark attack? a. Swimming where people, fish and/or blood are in the water b. Swimming at night, dusk or in murky water c. Swim with erratically behaving schools of fish d. Avoid splashing or wearing shiny jewelry ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 262
26. Unique features of skates and rays are their a. gill slits. b. adipose tissues. c. flat bodies. d. spiracles. e. countershaded bodies. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 262
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263
27. The forward thrust of swimming stingrays is created by: a. the pectoral fins. b. the pelvic fins. c. the dorsal fin. d. the caudal fin. e. the anal fin. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 264
28. The spiracle in conjunction with a ventral gill in skates and rays is an adaptation that allows them to: a. be nekton. b. have a bottom existence. c. position their mouth ventrally. d. avoid detection by predators. e. filter feed on plankton. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 263
29. Most skates are: a. ovoviviparous. b. oviparous. c. live bearers. d. viviparous. e. broadcast spawners. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 264 | 278
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145 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 30. The toxins of stingrays are destroyed with hot water, therefore they are a type of: a. protein. b. carbohydrate. c. fat. d. lipid. e. DNA. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 264
31. A first aid for stingray injury is: a. place the injured area in cold water or apply ice packs. b. pour ammonia over the injured area. c. place the injured area in hot water. d. apply MSG to the injured area. e. urinate onto the wound. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 264
32. The subclass of Chondrichthyes with an operculum is called: a. sharks. b. skates. c. rays. d. chimaeras. e. hagfish. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 264
33. A bony fish that lives in the marine environment that was once thought to be extinct is the: a. coelacanth. b. African lung fish. c. sturgeon fish. d. mud skipper. e. puffer fish. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 265
34. The coelacanth gave rise to the ____. a. ray-finned fish b. chimaeras c. tetrapods d. dogfish e. lungfish. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 265
35. The skin of the subclass Chondrosti is covered with scales called: a. placoid. b. cycloid. c. stenoid. d. ganoid. e. rhomboid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 266
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146 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 36. Tails that have equally sized upper and lower lobes are called: a. heterocercal. b. ganoid. c. cycloid. d. homocercal. e. ctenoid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 260
37. Fishes that are very active swimmers have a ____ body. a. fusiform b. laterally compressed c. globular d. flattened e. dorso-ventrally compressed ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 268
38. Fishes that exhibit a sedentary lifestyle have ____ bodies. a. fusiform b. laterally compressed c. globular d. flattened e. streamlined ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 268
39. The following are all main points of the section Adaptations to Extreme Cold
except: a. 90% of fish biomass in Antarctic seas belongs to a single species of fish. b. sugar and protein molecules in fish cells prevent fish from freezing c. some Antarctic fish lack hemoglobin in their blood. d. some Antarctic fish lack red blood cells. e. global warming may place these fish in danger of extinction. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 275
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276
40. Utilizing pigments for camouflage is common in ____ fishes. a. benthic b. tuna c. pelagic d. reef e. angler ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 269
41. Which of the following is not a camouflage device? a. chromatophores b. iridophores c. thigmotaxis d. obliterative countershading ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 269
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147 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 42. Countershading is a common form of camouflage in ____ fishes. a. coral reef b. eel grass bed c. pelagic d. deep sea ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 269
43. Which of the following does not use a swim bladder to regulate buoyancy? a. mackerel b. sea bass c. grouper d. sheepshead e. butterfly fish ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 273
44. Snappers swim by: a. flexing only the area before the caudal fin. b. flexing only the posterior portion of the body. c. using only their fins. d. undulating the entire body. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
45. Which function below is not performed by the gills of bony fishes? a. extract nutrients from the water b. extract oxygen form the water c. eliminate carbon dioxide from their body d. aid in osmoregulation ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 271
46. Most sodium chloride is excreted from marine bony fishes through: a. the kidneys. b. the gills. c. salt glands. d. the feces. e. diffusion. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
47. The mechanism for gas exchange in the gills includes: a. chloride cells. b. rete mirable. c. countercurrent multiplier system. d. swim bladder inflation. e. hormonal controls. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271 | 272
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148 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 48. The following are all main points about toxic fish poisoning except: a. ciguatera poisoning is not usually fatal. b. ciguatera is due to blooms of dinoflagellates. c. puffer fish poisoning can be fatal. d. there are safe and effective antidotes for ciguatera poisoning. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 277
49. The gill rakers of anchovies are modified for: a. respiration. b. excretion of salts. c. filtering plankton. d. crushing their fish prey. e. detecting vibrations in the water column. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 275
50. The sucker of clingfishes is modified from: a. the mouth. b. the pectoral fins. c. a disc on top of the head. d. the pelvic fins. e. the first dorsal fin. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 277
51. Deoxygenated blood is initially collected by the: a. dorsal aorta. b. sinus venosus. c. atrium. d. bulbus arteriosus. e. vena cava. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
52. Bony fish usually do not need to adjust pupil size because: a. their eyelids protect their eyes from bright light. b. the quantity of light is relatively low. c. they can move their lens forward and backward. d. a in conjunction with c ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
53. The nervous system of fish includes: a. olfactory pits. b. taste receptors. c. eyes. d. otoliths. e. all of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 273
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274
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149 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 54. The lateral line is part of the system to a. process light. b. sense electrical currents in the water. c. control balance. d. detect vibrations. e. detect dissolved substances. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 274
55. The majority of bony fishes show the ____ reproductive strategy. a. viviparous b. oviparous c. internal fertilization d. ovoviviparous ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 278
56. Fishes that reproduce in fresh water and migrate out to sea as adults are considered: a. catadromous. b. anadromous. c. polyandrous. d. polygynous. e. demersal. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 281
57. ____ are good examples of catadromous fishes. a. Lampreys b. Salmon c. Freshwater eels d. Hagfish e. Sea horses ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 281
TRUE/FALSE
58. The skeletons of both hagfish and sharks are made of the same cartilaginous material.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 259 | 260
59. The reproductive biology of hagfishes is well understood.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 259
60. Sharks are positively buoyant in seawater.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 273
61. The eyes of sharks are designed for optimal color vision.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 274
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150 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 62. Fertilization is internal in sharks.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 278
63. The annual risk of death from lighting is 47 times the risk of death from shark attack.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 262
64. The discharge of the electric organ of electric rays delivers up to 220 volts.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 263
65. The fins of bony fishes are more maneuverable than those of cartilaginous fishes.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 266
66. Fast moving fishes tend to propel themselves by undulating their entire bodies.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 271
67. Marine bony fishes have blood that is just as salty as seawater.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 271
68. Unlike cartilaginous fishes, bony fishes do not have a keen sense of smell.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 273
69. The eyes of fishes are adapted for black and white vision.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 274
70. Most bony fishes swallow their prey whole rather than chew it.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 275
MATCHING
Match the animal with the swimming method it is most closely associated with. a. moving caudal fin side-to-side b. wave travels along the edge of pectoral fins c. pectoral fins flap up and down d. eel-like undulation of body 71. Skate
72. Ray
73. Shark
74. Lamprey
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 264
72. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 264
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 260
74. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 260
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151 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes Match the body form with its most closely associated species. a. flattened b. snakelike bodies c. fusiform d. globular 75. Tuna
76. Flounder
77. Pufferfish
78. Moray eels
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 268
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 268
77. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 268
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 268
Match the reproductive type of sharks with its characteristic. a. development in mother's uterus without an egg b. egg released outside of body c. egg hatched in mothers uterus 79. Oviviparity
80. Ovoviparity
81. Viviparity
79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 278
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 278
81. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 278
Match the word with the one it is most closely associated with. a. iridophores b. chromataphores c. obliterative 82. Pigments
83. Structural Colors
84. Countershading
82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 268
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269
83. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 268
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269
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 268
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269
Match the words with the terms they are most closely associated with. a. blend with environment b. aposematic c. vertical lines/eyestripes 85. Disruptive coloration
86. Cryptic coloration
87. Bright colors
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152 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 85. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 269
86. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 269
87. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 269
Match the swimming type with the appropriate type of fish. a. only the area before the caudal fin is flexed b. flexing only the posterior portion of the body c. undulating the entire body 88. Eels
89. Swift swimmers
90. Body is encased in a rigid dermal skeleton
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 270
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 271
90. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271
Match the osmoregulatory function with the most closely associated organ. a. Excretion of magnesium sulfate b. Removal of most excess salt c. Magnesium, calcium and sulfate ions eliminated d. Retained in the body fluids of sharks 91. Chloride cell
92. Kidney
93. Gut
94. Urea
91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 271
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271
93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 271
94. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 271
Match the swim bladder filling mechanism with the appropriate term. a. gulping air and "spitting it out" b. gas gland 95. Herrings and eels
96. Gases diffused into blood
95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 273
96. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 273
Match the fish with its feeding type. a. Anchovies b. Grouper c. Surgeonfish d. Hagfish 97. Carnivore
98. Herbivore
99. Filter Feeder
100. Scavenger
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153 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 97. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 275
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 275
99. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 275
100. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 275
Match the hermaphroditism with the appropriate term. a. Changing from females to males b. Having both male and female gonads simultaneously c. Changing from males to females d. Changing from one sex to another 101. Synchronous
102. Protogyny
103. Protandry
104. Sequential
101. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 279
102. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 279
103. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 279
104. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 280
ESSAY
105. Explain how hagfish are still able to consume their dead or dying prey, even though hagfish lack jaws.
ANS: Hagfishes rely on sharp teeth located on their tongues for rasping away at the flesh of their food. They also use knot-tying as a means of providing leverage for tearing off bits of flesh.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 259
106. Even though the caudal fin of sharks tends to direct the fish downward when swimming (due to slight downward force generated by the heterocercal tail) the shark still manages to swim at a fairly consistent depth. Explain how can this be so.
ANS: The pectoral fins of sharks have a cross-section resembling the cross-section of the wing of an aircraft. The shape of the fins provides lift just as a wing would and this offsets the effect of the heterocercal tail.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: enrichment | not in text
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154 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 107. Compare a shark and a bony fish in regard to how they maintain buoyancy.
ANS: Both sharks and bony fish are negatively buoyant. In order to maintain somewhat neutral buoyancy sharks have evolved a very large liver that produces an oily material called squalene. Squalene is less dense than seawater and thus it makes the sharks slightly positively buoyant. In addition, the wing-like pectoral fins of sharks aid in maintaining the buoyancy of the shark when it is swimming. Bony fishes do not produce squalene, although a few produce other oily materials. Many bony fishes rely on a gas-
filled swim bladder as their only means of maintaining buoyancy. As a result, bony fishes with swim bladders, unlike many sharks, do not have to swim in order to maintain a certain level.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 273
108. How are the eyes of sharks well adapted to the environment in which they live?
ANS: In the marine environment colors, especially red and orange, tend to get absorbed within the first few meters of water. As a result, color in the shallow marine environment is composed mostly of grays and shades of blue. The eyes of sharks, with their high rod content, are well adapted for viewing objects in dim environments where gray and black colors prevail.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: enrichment | not in text
109. How can sharks use their ampullae of Lorenzini to discern between healthy and injured prey items?
ANS: All living organisms put out low-level electrical fields. Under conditions of stress or injury, the injured animal increases the strength of the electric field around it and the shark is able to recognize this heightened electrical field as that of an injured animal that would make easy prey.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: enrichment | not in text
110. Compare sharks and bony fishes in regard to how they ingest their food. In your answer, discuss how both the position of the mouth and the presence of a gill cover confers a feeding advantage to bony fish
ANS: When sharks ingest prey items, they must make full contact with the prey before they can begin to bite down on it. This is because sharks lack a gill cover, which could otherwise be used to create negative pressure within the mouth of the shark and which would draw the prey item in without having to actually bite down on the prey. Bony fishes, with their well developed operculum and protrusible jaws, can suck in prey items without having to bite down on them. Furthermore, because of the ventral placement of the mouth in sharks, they lose site of their prey in the last crucial moments before they bite their prey, which could end in an escape by the prey. Most bony fishes, on the other hand, have terminal mouths, which means they have their prey in sight until it enters their mouth. Obviously, the way in which bony fishes feed is more efficient than that of sharks.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: enrichment, not in text | 275
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155 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 111. How does the spiral valve within the shark intestine increase the efficiency of food digestion?
ANS: The spiral valve does two things. It aids in more efficient digestion by increasing the available surface area for uptake of digested materials. The spiral valve also slows the progression of food within the short intestine in order to allow more time for complete digestion of the food.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 275
112. How do marine biologists know that sharks and bony fishes evolved in freshwater but then later migrated to the marine environment?
ANS: Both sharks and bony fishes are hypoosmotic to the seawater around them. As a result, they constantly lose water to the marine environment. These fishes have evolved adaptations against losing water. If these fishes had evolved in a marine environment then one would expect their tissues to be isotonic to their environment.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: enrichment | not in text
113. Outline how bony fish regulate their osmotic balance lower than the salinity of the surrounding seawater.
ANS: Most marine fish have an internal salinity lower than the surrounding seawater resulting in an osmotic imbalance where water flows out of the fish. The fish drinks seawater to avoid dehydration. Absorption of salts in the gut is reduced; absorbed salts are removed in concentrated urine and through the gills.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 271
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272
114. What are 3 adaptations of skates and rays for living on the bottom? Contrast these adaptations to those of the bony flatfishes such as halibut.
ANS: The skates and rays are adapted to their benthic lifestyle by having flattened bodies that may not be very obvious to potential prey or predators. Likewise, bony fishes such as flatfishes are also flat. The skates and rays also have spiracles on their dorsal surfaces, which they use for drawing in water that is passed over the gills. The bony flatfishes do not have such a structure but rely on the opening of their mouths and their operculum for drawing in water through the mouth. Both the skates and rays and the flatfishes show strong countershading, with light underside and a dark dorsal surface that blends in with the environment.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 262
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264
115. What are 2 pieces of anatomical evidence that lead ichthyologists to consider that sturgeons are a fairly old group of fishes?
ANS: The sturgeon fishes share a number of characteristics with sharks, which are considered to be more primitive by many scientists. These shared characters include: heterocercal tail, and a ventral mouth.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 266
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156 Chapter 10
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Marine Fishes 116. Most bony fishes are considered to be much more efficient at maneuvering than cartilaginous fishes. Explain why this is so and how it arose.
ANS: Many bony fishes, such as those that live on coral reefs, are better at maneuvering then a shark because their fins are much more flexible. The evolution of these flexible fins was probably the result of the evolution of the swim bladder of bony fishes, which freed the pectoral fins from their previous role of maintaining buoyancy. With the advent of the swim bladder, the fins of bony fish became less stiff and flexibility was added with the introduction of rays and spines within the fins.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: enrichment | not in text
117. Seasonal migration is common among marine fisheries. Describe the types and indicate the primary causes of migration.
ANS: Spawning, changing temperatures, and following prey items are primary causes of fish migrations. Catadromous fish move from freshwater to the ocean to spawn and anadromous fish move from the ocean to freshwater to spawn.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 281
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282
118. What advantage does bright coloration confer upon venomous fishes?
ANS: Bright colors in venomous fishes advertise the danger that these fishes pose to potential predators. Fishes, like many vertebrates, will learn from trial and error not to harass certain fishes. Perhaps this learned behavior is genetically imprinted, as it would surely be a selective advantage.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 269
119. How does human activity drastically affect the reproductive success of salmon?
ANS: Human construction, such as dams, can interfere with the progress of salmon up rivers that they use for spawning. In addition, humans alter the chemical makeup of streams and rivers on a massive scale and this could lead to the loss of recognition by the salmon of their native streams, and could ultimately have an effect on their reproductive success.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 281
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157 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. All the following are adaptations of reptiles both on land and in the ocean except: a. improved circulatory system over the fishes. b. very efficient kidneys. c. scale-covered skin without glands. d. dark bodies. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 297-298
2. Which of the following is not generally considered to have contributed to the success of reptiles on land and in the sea? a. amniotic egg b. skin covered by scales c. specialized copulatory organs d. ventral nerve cord e. efficient kidneys ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 289
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290
3. The amniotic egg evolved ____ years ago. a. 1 billion b. 650 million c. 340 million d. 240 million e. 25 million ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 289
4. The chorion of amniotic eggs functions in: a. supply of food. b. removal of wastes. c. gas exchange. d. protection of the egg. e. absorbing toxins. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 289
5. Which sea turtle can tolerate cold temperatures? a. Leatherback b. Kemp's ridley c. Green d. Hawksbill e. Loggerhead ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 292
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158 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 6. In marine turtles, excess salts are removed by: a. salt glands in the tongue. b. salt glands above the eyes. c. concentrated urine. d. salt glands on the skin. e. salt glands in the nose. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 293
7. Which turtle has a diet of seagrass? a. Kemp's ridley b. Leatherback c. Hawksbill d. Green sea turtle e. Loggerhead ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 293
8. All of the following are major points of the article Endangered Sea Turtles
except: a. Leatherback population in Pacific may go extinct before 2010. b. TED nets decreased turtle drowning rate. c. Records show declining numbers of turtles returning to nest on Central American beaches. d. All countries now use TEDs to fish for shrimp. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 296
9. Which sea turtle has a diet of jellyfish? a. Hawksbill b. Leatherback c. Green sea turtle d. Flatback sea turtle ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 293
10. Sea turtle social behavior is primarily: a. small family groups. b. formation of hunting groups. c. solitary. d. schooling. e. harems. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 293
11. The crocodile best adapted to a marine lifestyle is: a. the Asian saltwater crocodile. b. the American crocodile. c. the alligator. d. the Nile crocodile. e. the caiman. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 291
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159 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 12. In marine crocodiles excess salts are removed by: a. salt glands in the tongue. b. salt glands above the eyes. c. concentrated urine. d. salt glands on the skin. e. salt glands in the nose. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 291
13. A marine reptile found only on the Galapagos Islands is: a. the sea snake. b. the marine crocodile. c. the marine iguana. d. the flatback sea turtle. e. the Galapagos skink. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 295
14. An adaptation of the marine iguana for cold water is a. rete marible to keep exchange heat. b. blubber to keep heat in. c. dark skin to absorb the sun's heating radiation. d. increased metabolism. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 295
15. Marine iguanas feed mostly on: a. mussels. b. epibenthic invertebrates. c. small fish. d. algae. e. infaunal invertebrates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 297
16. All of the following are adaptations of sea snakes to a marine existence except: a. trachea acting as accessory lung. b. gas exchange across their skin. c. oviparous reproduction. d. lower metabolic rate during submergence. e. flattened paddle tail. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 297
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298
17. Sea snakes usually feed on a. algae. b. jellyfish. c. infaunal invertebrates. d. small fishes. e. epibenthic invertebrates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 298
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160 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 18. Which is not a unique adaptation of sea snakes for marine life? a. nostrils high on the head b. reduced or absent scales c. laterally compressed tail d. loss of limbs ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 297
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298
19. The birds are: a. stenotherms. b. eurytherms. c. homeotherms. d. poikilotherms. e. ectotherms. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 299
20. In marine birds, excess salts are removed by: a. salt glands in the tongue. b. salt glands above the eyes. c. concentrated urine. d. salt glands on the skin. e. salt glands in the mouth. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 299
21. Tubenoses include: a. pelicans. b. gulls. c. terns. d. albatrosses. e. puffins. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 307
22. The oystercatcher is a member of the: a. gulls. b. tubenoses. c. shorebirds. d. pelicans. e. albatrosses. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 300
23. A common short, plump, shore bird with a worldwide distribution is the: a. turnstone. b. pelican. c. avocet. d. plover. e. puffin. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 300
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161 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 24. The heron is a stalking bird with the following characteristics: a. skinny legs, long necks, pincer type bill. b. flightless, plump body, parrot-like beak. c. plump body, pigeon-like beak. d. short neck, upturned bill. e. shovel-shaped bill, plump body, webbed feet. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 301
25. A seabird that has adapted very well to humans is the: a. gull. b. tern. c. frigate bird. d. penguin. e. puffin. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 301
26. The seabirds with an ecological role similar to land-based hawks, falcons, and vultures are the: a. gulls and terns. b. skuas and jaegers. c. avocets and sandpipers. d. curlews and turnstones. e. eiders and puffins. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 302
27. Birds that prey by attracting small fish and shrimp to the surface are called: a. plovers. b. turnstones. c. skimmers. d. curlews. e. sandpipers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 303
28. Birds that are known to eat the chicks of other birds and even their own chicks are: a. avocets. b. terns. c. curlews. d. gulls. e. penguins. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 302
29. Birds that have long narrow bills used for eating bivalves and other invertebrates are: a. gulls. b. pelicans. c. shore birds. d. tubenoses. e. skuas and jaegers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 300
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162 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 30. Gulls feed mostly by a. capturing small fish. b. eating algae. c. probing for small prey in the mud. d. scavenging. e. dive bombing onto schools of fish ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 302
31. Herons and egrets are members of the: a. gulls. b. tubenoses. c. shorebirds. d. pelicans. e. duck family. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 301
32. Terns, skuas and jaegers are all related to the ____ group. a. gull b. pelican c. tubenose d. penguin e. shorebird ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 302
33. The ecological equivalent of penguins in the Northern Hemisphere is: a. the heron. b. the auk. c. the skimmer. d. the black-necked stilt. e. the tern. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 303
34. The alcid species hunted to extinction was the: a. common auk. b. great puffin. c. common murre. d. great auk. e. great skua. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 304
35. The stomach of which one of the following birds contains a gland that produces a foul smelling, yellow colored oil? a. pelicans b. gulls c. terns d. albatrosses e. oystercatcher ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 307
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163 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 36. A structure found within penguins that is used for storing food for feeding the young is called the: a. crop. b. salt gland. c. gular pouch. d. amnion. e. cloaca. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 309
37. Birds that spend most of their time aloft at sea are: a. skuas. b. gulls. c. albatrosses. d. pelicans. e. puffins. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 307
38. Birds in which the lower bill protrudes much farther than the upper bill are a. jaegers. b. skimmers. c. puffins. d. penguins. e. herons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 303
39. Birds that catch their prey by plunge diving into the water from the air are: a. skimmers. b. cormorants. c. terns. d. penguins. e. avocets. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 302
40. Birds that pursue their prey underwater are: a. gulls. b. pelicans. c. penguins. d. stilts. e. plovers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 308
41. Buoyancy in pelicans is achieved by: a. subcutaneous air sacs. b. fatty tissue. c. low density tissues. d. long feathery appendages. e. storing wax and oils. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 305
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164 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 42. In general, birds increase the chance their young will survive by a. providing parental care of the young. b. selecting nesting sites away from predators. c. being oviparous. d. both a and b e. both b and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 308-319
43. Birds that crash into the water and scoop up fish in the gular pouch are called: a. stilts. b. tubenoses. c. pelicans. d. albatross. e. skimmers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 304
44. Birds that dive into the water from a height of 18 to 30 meters are called: a. pelicans. b. albatross. c. tubenoses. d. boobies. e. puffins. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 305
45. A very agile seabird used in Japan to help catch fish is called: a. a stilt. b. a albatross. c. a cormorant. d. a gull. e. an oystercatcher. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 306
46. A bird with no oil to protect its feathers from water, that soars for hours at sea, is called: a. a frigatebird. b. an albatross. c. a gull. d. a petrel. e. a sea duck.. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 306
47. Frigatebirds have been observed to pirate food by: a. perching on feeding pelicans and then stealing fish. b. beating and jostling boobies in flight, forcing them to regurgitate their food - then seizing it. c. preying on other birds. d. both a and b. e. both b and c. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 307
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165 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 48. The bird with the largest wings, also a marine bird, is called the: a. frigate bird. b. pelican. c. albatross. d. gull. e. cormorant. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 307
49. An interesting feeding behavior of the Wilson's storm petrel is a. plunging to great depths into the ocean in search of food. b. using their feet to paddle just below the water's surface so they appear to be walking on the surface. c. catching a clam and then dropping it over rocks to break it up. d. stealing eggs from nesting birds while the parents are sitting on the eggs. e. skimming over the water surface with its beak partially immersed. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 308
50. The birds that are most highly adapted to marine life are the: a. tubenoses. b. gulls. c. penguins. d. pelicans. e. sandpipers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 308
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309
51. Penguins are preyed on by: a. leopard seals and killer whales. b. narwhales. c. sperm whales. d. jaegers. e. frigate birds. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 308
TRUE/FALSE
52. In reptiles, the circulatory system of the lungs is nearly completely separate from the circulatory system of the rest of the body.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 290
53. Reptiles are very efficient in conserving water during excretion.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 290
54. Marine turtles mate at sea but lay their eggs on land.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 293
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294
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166 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 55. Sea snakes are valued for their exotic skins.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 298
56. Birds are considered homeothermic.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 299
57. Seabirds produce concentrated urine to remove salts from their bodies.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 299
58. The tube-nose of tubenoses may be used as a means of enhancing their ability to smell, or to discern strength of air currents.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 307
59. Penguins are only found in the Northern Hemisphere.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 308
60. Most seabirds are ovoviviparous.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 310
61. In emperor penguins, the mother incubates the egg during the Antarctic winter while the father roams in search of food.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 309
MATCHING
Match the words with those they are most closely associated with. a. disposal of waste b. embryo containing sac c. gas exchange 62. Chorion
63. Allantois
64. Amnion
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 291
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 291
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 291
Match the food preference with the species. a. Conches, clams, crabs b. Jellyfish c. Seagrasses d. Sponges
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167 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 65. Leatherback Sea Turtle
66. Green Sea Turtle
67. Loggerhead Sea Turtle
68. Hawksbill Sea Turtle
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 293
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 293
67. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 293
68. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 293
Match the distribution with the type of reptile. a. Worldwide in tropics and subtropics b. Galapagos Islands c. Coastlines in Australia, India, Asia d. Tropical Indo-Pacific 69. Saltwater Crocodile
70. Sea Turtles
71. Marine Iguana
72. Sea Snakes
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 291
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 292
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 295
72. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 297
Match the nesting site characteristic with the most closely associated bird group. a. nest close to shore b. protected areas on land c. nest away from shore 73. Shorebird
74. Gulls
75. Tubenoses
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 300
74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 302
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308
Match the birds with their primary diet. a. fish, jellyfish and squid b. krill and fish c. fish 76. Pelicans
77. Frigatebirds
78. Penguins
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 305
77. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 306
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 308
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168 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds Match the food preference with the species. a. Invertebrates and seaweeds b. Sponges c. Invertebrates and fish d. Jellyfish 79. Hawksbill
80. Kemp's Ridley Sea Turtle
81. Flatback Sea Turtle
82. Leatherback Sea Turtle
79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 293
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 293
81. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 293
82. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 293
Match the feature with the most closely associated animals. a. Four-chambered heart b. Plastron c. Lost limbs d. Gular pouch 83. Turtles
84. Birds
85. Snakes
86. Pelicans
83. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 292
84. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 299
85. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 297
86. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 304
Match the reproductive characteristic with the most closely associated animal group. a. buries eggs in beach sand b. all but three species are viviparous at sea c. nest builder on land 87. Saltwater Crocodile
88. Sea Turtles
89. Sea Snakes
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 291
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 294
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 298
Match the feeding strategy with the seabird. a. Aerial pursuit b. Pursuit diving underwater with feet as propulsion c. Surface plunging d. Pursuit diving underwater with wings as propulsion
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169 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 90. Pelicans
91. Frigate Birds
92. Cormorants
93. Puffins
90. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 304
91. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 307
92. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 305
93. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 303
Match the feeding strategy with the seabird. a. Clam dropping b. Surface plunging c. Pursuit diving with wings d. Aerial pursuit and robbing other birds 94. Boobies
95. Penguins
96. Gulls
97. Jaeger
94. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 305
95. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 308
96. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 302
97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 303
ESSAY
98. What reproductive characteristics allowed the formation of an egg with a leathery shell?
ANS: In order to form such eggs, fertilization must take place before the leathery case of reptilian and avian eggs is laid down. The evolution of copulatory organs that allowed internal fertilization allowed the development of such an egg.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 290
99. Contrast how turtles and crocodiles rid themselves of salts obtained through their diets.
ANS: Marine reptiles are equipped with salt glands which remove excess salts. In turtles, these glands are above the eyes and can secrete a concentrated salt solution which ends up bathing the eyes. This removes excess body salts; the tears cleanse the eyes. The marine crocodile's salt removal glands are on their tongues.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 291 | 293
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170 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 100. What are 3 human activities that negatively affect sea turtle survival?
ANS: Sea turtle populations have been declining around the world due to various activities of humans around the world. In the past and still today turtles are hunted for their meat and their shells. Turtles are indirectly caught by fishing nets intended for other species, and they drown. The most severe human effect on turtles is destruction of their nesting sites by development of coastal areas.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 295
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296
101. Outline at least 3 of the causes that have led to all the sea turtles being listed as endangered species.
ANS: On land at nesting sites, beach erosion and modification of beaches by humans have destroyed nesting sites. Humans and domestic animals in conjunction with natural predators feed on eggs. Lights from development confuse hatchlings, leading them away from the ocean, and thus subjecting them to greater predator mortality. At sea many are caught in fisherpersons' nets and drown. Adult sea turtles remain a human food item. Marine pollution in the form of plastic is confused with jellyfish, consumed, and blocks the digestive system, leading to starvation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 295
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296
102. Many sea snakes have adapted to a completely marine existence. What are 3 adaptations of sea snakes that have allowed this lifestyle?
ANS: Sea snakes are adapted to a marine existence by being ovoviviparous. They no longer have to deposit their eggs in terrestrial environments. Sea snakes are also capable of long-term submergence because they have large lung capacity allowing them to stay under longer. The trachea of sea snakes is also adapted to absorb oxygen, and sea snakes can absorb oxygen across their skin. Finally, sea snakes are capable of lowering their metabolic rates during a dive as a means of conserving oxygen.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 297
–
298
103. What are 3 adaptations of penguins for living in the sea?
ANS: Penguins are unique flightless birds that are more at home in the water than on land. These birds have wings adapted for swimming under water as if in flight. They use their feet as steering devices and they have torpedo-shaped bodies that allow efficient swimming. Penguins are capable of withstanding the cold water around them because of a thick layer of fat under their skin, which acts as insulation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 308
–
309
104. Reptiles and birds differ from amphibians in that they lack a free larval stage. What adaptation allowed the elimination of this stage?
ANS: The development of an amniotic egg made the need for a free living larval form unnecessary. These egg types contain amniotic fluid, which protects developing embryos and keeps them moist. These eggs are also supplied with generous amounts of yolk for nourishing the embryos until they grow and hatch at an advanced stage.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 289
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171 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 105. Describe 2 adaptations of sea turtles that allow them to live in the marine environment. How are these turtles different from land turtles?
ANS: First, sea turtles have modified paddle-shaped limbs that allow these animals to swim efficiently. Sea turtles also have a lighter and smaller shell than terrestrial turtles, which makes them more buoyant and less encumbered. Sea turtles, unlike terrestrial turtles, cannot retract their heads inside their shells.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 292
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293
106. Describe at least 2 ways that marine iguanas differ from the green iguanas of South American forests.
ANS: Marine iguanas differ from terrestrial green iguanas by having adaptations that allow them to survive in the cold waters around the Galapagos Islands. These include having very dark bodies for absorbance of heat energy to raise their internal temperatures, having blunt snouts that are ideally suited for feeding on algae on the rocks, and possessing laterally flattened tails for more efficient swimming.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 295 | 297
107. Compare the worldwide distribution of seabirds to that of marine reptiles. Which is more widely distributed at all latitudes? Why do you think this is so?
ANS: Seabirds are definitely more widely distributed than any of the marine reptiles. Seabirds can be found in arctic and Antarctic regions and everywhere in between. Marine reptiles, on the other hand, are limited to the warm temperatures of tropical and subtropical waters. The main reason for these different distributions is the fact that reptiles are poikilothermic and are limited to warm areas for metabolic reasons. Birds are homeothermic, which means they can regulate their internal body temperatures.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 290
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309
108. Penguins and alcids are ecological equivalents. Describe what is meant by ecological equivalency and explain why you think it may arise.
ANS: Ecological equivalency is when two different species occupy the same ecological niche in two different areas that share similar environmental characteristics. It results when the two species evolve independently to look like each other because of nearly identical evolutionary selective factors. In the case of penguins and alcids, they both live in cold subpolar areas. They share a number of similar features such as awkward movement on land and efficient underwater swimming in pursuit of similar prey.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 303
–
304
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172 Chapter 11
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Reptiles and Birds 109. List 4 of the most common seabird feeding methods and give examples of birds that utilize each method.
ANS: •
Spear fishing for small fishes (herons and egrets) •
Skimming the surface of the water (black skimmers) •
Robbers of other birds' food (jaegers, frigate birds) •
Underwater pursuers (alcids, penguins) •
Plunge divers (brown pelicans, terns) •
Probing and picking for epifaunal or infaunal invertebrates (many shore birds, such as curlews, sandpipers, and plovers) •
Cooperative scoop feeders (American white pelicans)
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall / Synthesis REF: 300
–
309
110. The diversity of birds is reflected in their feeding mechanisms and locations. Shorebirds, for example, include birds with different length and shape of beaks, length of legs, and food and shore location preference. Describe an evolutionary process that could lead to the observed diversity.
ANS: The birds have been able to share the food resources of the shoreline by specialization. This is an example of resource partitioning [described in Chapter 2] that results from competitive pressures. The birds have evolved specialized features, including bill shapes, which enable each bird species to more efficiently (relative to the others) feed on a particular shoreline prey species. Different leg lengths enable some birds to wade deeper in the water to forage for different species, while other birds with shorter legs are restricted to foraging in areas above the water line.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: enrichment | not in text
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173 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. All marine mammals: a. are faster swimmers compared to other marine animals. b. have lungs modified to breathe underwater. c. are aggressive in obtaining food. d. are intelligent compared to other marine animals. e. have baleen. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 315
2. All the following are characteristics of marine mammals except: a. mammary glands. b. gills. c. a placenta. d. being homeothermic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 315
3. Marine mammals, because of the energy demands of being homeothermic, expend about ____ times as much energy as other marine organisms. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 315
4. Sea otters are protected from the cold by having: a. thick blubber. b. thick fur. c. waxy fur. d. fatty tissue. e. thick skin. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 316
5. Sea otters consume nearly ____% of their body weight per day. a. 10 b. 25 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 317
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174 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 6. Sea lions and seals belong to the suborder: a. Carnivora. b. Sirenia. c. Cetacea. d. Pinnipedia. e. Odontoceti. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
7. Pinnipeds molt a. in the ocean. b. on shore. c. in the winter. d. throughout the year. e. They do not molt. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
8. Pinniped means a. clawed footed. b. flipper footed. c. feather footed. d. paddle footed. e. split footed. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
9. In eared seals, the main propulsive force for swimming is produced by the: a. forelimbs. b. hindlimbs. c. undulations of the body. d. tail. e. caudal fin. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
10. True seals' characteristics include a. lack of external ear. b. swimming with forelimbs. c. swimming with hind limbs. d. both a and c e. both a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
11. The Otariidae characteristics include a. external ears. b. swimming with hind limbs. c. swimming with fore limbs. d. both a and c. e. both a and b. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
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175 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 12. Which of the following species is endangered a. California sea lion b. northern fur seal c. Steller's sea lion d. both a and b ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319 | 322
13. All the following are all major points of the article Where Have the Steller’s Sea Lions Gone
except: a. Some biologists thought commercial fishing was culprit. b. Killer whales may play a role in pinniped population regulation. c. Scientific views undergo revision with new data and findings. d. Scientists often come to contradictory conclusions when examining the same phenomenon. e. Steller’s sea lions decimated the salmon population in Alaska.
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 322
14. Which pinniped can use its hind limbs to walk on land? a. Guadalupe fur seal b. Steller's sea lion c. leopard seal d. elephant seal e. harbor seal ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319 | 321
15. The deepest diving pinnipeds are the: a. sea lions. b. harbor seals. c. Weddell seals. d. elephant seals. e. Stellar’s sea lion.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 320
16. Known for the ability to dive deep, the ____ has set a record of 1530 m. a. harbor seal b. Weddel seal c. Steller's sea lion d. leopard seal e. northern elephant seal ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 320
17. Male animals that mate with and control more than one female at a time are called: a. hermaphroditic. b. heterogenous. c. polygynous. d. androgynous. e. monogamous. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 320
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176 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 18. Most pinnipeds mate: a. every two years. b. every four years. c. once in their lifetime. d. annually. e. every three years. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 320
19. The leopard seal's primary predator is called the: a. sperm whale. b. polar bear. c. killer whale. d. salt water crocodile. e. Weddel seal. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 323
20. The ____ feeds on penguins and other seals. a. Guadalupe fur seal b. elephant seal c. Steller's sea lion d. leopard seal e. harbor seal ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 323
21. The structure used to amplify an elephant seal bull's roar is a(n): a. inflated proboscis. b. hallow tusk used as a horn. c. sirenaphores. d. blowhole. e. melon. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 324
22. The entertaining seals of marine attraction parks are: a. sea lions. b. harbor seals. c. elephant seals. d. fur seals. e. harp seals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 321
23. Manatees and dugongs belong to the order: a. Pinnipedia. b. Cetacea. c. Carnivora. d. Sirenia. e. Fissipedia ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 324
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177 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 24. The sirenians a. rest on shore. b. bear young on land. c. are completely aquatic. d. are fish eaters. e. don’t have blubber since they live in tropical water
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 324
25. The following are all differences between manatees and dugongs except: a. fresh and seawater habitat for manatees, dugongs only live in seawater. b. dugongs have a larger head. c. dugongs have a shorter flipper. d. manatees' forelimbs form flippers, dugongs' do not. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 325
26. The following are all similarities between sirenians and whales except: a. streamlined, practically hairless bodies. b. forelimbs modified to form flippers. c. tail flukes. d. diet of macrophytes. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 325
–
327
27. Manatees are mostly found in: a. cold polar waters. b. Antarctica. c. tropical estuaries. d. temperate coastal areas. e. Eastern Pacific Ocean. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 325
28. The greatest threat to the Florida manatees is a. loss of habitat. b. human predation. c. being mauled or killed by boats. d. stranding in thermal plumes of power plants. e. disease from urban runoff. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 325
29. Manatees feed mostly on: a. small fishes. b. benthic invertebrates. c. plankton. d. aquatic plants. e. other marine mammals. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 325
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178 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 30. Whales, dolphins, and porpoises all belong to the order: a. Sirenia. b. Cetacea. c. Carnivora. d. Pinnipedia. e. Fissipedia. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 326
31. Those marine mammals most adapted to a marine existence are the a. pinnipeds. b. sirenians. c. cetaceans. d. sea otters. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 326
–
327
32. It is believed that cetaceans evolved from: a. a terrestrial mammal. b. a pinniped. c. fishes. d. polychaetes. e. dinosaurs. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 326
33. Through evolution, the hindlimbs of cetaceans have been modified, eventually becoming a. flippers. b. tail. c. non-existent. d. flukes. e. enlarged. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 327
34. To reduce drag whales have eliminated a. external ears. b. pectoral fins. c. external appendages. d. mammary glands. e. flukes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 327
35. The absence of sweat glands in cetaceans aids in a. maintaining body heat. b. conserving water. c. increasing internal salinity. d. reducing drag. e. swimming efficiency. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 327
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179 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 36. Adaptations for deep diving in cetaceans include all the following except: a. expelling air from the lungs. b. large lungs with large number of air sacs. c. rib cage that can collapse. d. sonar for detecting the depth. e. high red blood cell count ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 328
37. Adaptations for deep diving in cetaceans include all the following except: a. large amount of hemoglobin. b. large amount of cholesterol. c. lowered sensitivity to lactic acid. d. high levels of myglobin. e. decreased metabolism. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 328
38. Myoglobin is a protein found in the muscles of cetaceans that: a. stores energy. b. stores oxygen. c. maintains buoyancy. d. maintains heat. e. stores ATP. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 328
39. The milk of cetaceans is very rich in: a. fat. b. protein. c. carbohydrates. d. cellulose. e. DNA. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
40. Baleen plates are composed of: a. calcium carbonate. b. cellulose. c. keratin. d. chitin. e. silica. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
41. The food of most baleen whales consists of: a. benthic invertebrates. b. nektonic fishes. c. algae. d. plankton. e. detritus. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
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180 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 42. Bubble nets for confusing and trapping plankton are produced by: a. gray whales. b. humpback whales. c. minke whales. d. sperm whales. e. dolphins. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 333
43. Fin whales feed mostly on: a. benthic invertebrates. b. nektonic fishes. c. algae. d. krill. e. detritus. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
44. The largest of all the whales is the: a. sperm whale. b. sei whale. c. humpback whale. d. blue whale. e. megalodon. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 333
45. Breaching is the name given to the activity of whales when they: a. mate. b. jump out of the water. c. capture their food. d. migrate long distances. e. give birth. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 329
46. Spy hopping is a term given to whales when they: a. jump out of the water. b. partially get their body out of the water. c. capture their food. d. mate. e. play in groups. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 329
47. Spy hopping behavior is thought to be for a. mating. b. observing objects other than whales on the surface. c. capturing their food. d. attracting a mate. e. communicating with podmates. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 329
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181 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 48. Tail cocking behavior in whales is thought to be for a. killing prey. b. attracting mates. c. aggression. d. preparation for a dive. e. dislodging parasites. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 329
49. A group of whales is called a a. harem. b. pod. c. covey. d. herd. e. bevy. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
50. The only population of humpback whales that is showing recovery from the effects of whaling is the: a. North Pacific population. b. North Atlantic population. c. Maui population. d. Southern Hemisphere population. e. Southern Pacific population. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 333
51. Which whale is not a rorqual? a. blue whale b. fin whale c. humpback whale d. right whale e. killer whale ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 331 | 335
52. A whale that floated when harpooned was called a(n) ____. a. orca b. right whale c. blue whale d. fin whale e. sperm whale ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
53. All of the following are members of suborder Odontoceti, except: a. dolphins. b. sperm whales. c. narwhales. d. gray whales. e. orcas. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 331 | 334 | 335
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182 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 54. All of the following are members of suborder Mysticeti, except: a. humpback whales. b. right whales. c. orcas. d. blue whales. e. fin whales. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 331 | 334 | 335
55. The baleen whale which carries the most barnacles is the a. right whale. b. sperm whale. c. gray whale. d. orca. e. blue whale. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 334
56. The melon of dolphins and other toothed whales is used for: a. storage of food. b. protecting the brain. c. focusing sound pulses. d. receiving sound pulses. e. producing sounds. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 339
57. One of the most favored food items of sperm whales is: a. giant squid. b. penguins. c. plankton. d. seals. e. smaller cetaceans. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 335
58. Ambergris comes from the ____. a. right whale b. sperm whale c. gray whale d. orca e. blue whale ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 336
59. The only cetaceans known to feed on warm-blooded animals are the: a. sperm whales. b. bottlenose dolphins. c. killer whales. d. porpoises. e. minke whales. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 338
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183 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals TRUE/FALSE
60. Pinnipeds have to come ashore to give birth.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 320
61. True seals rely on their hindlimbs for forward swimming propulsion.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 319
62. In eared seals, the hindlimbs can rotate at right angles to the body and can be used for walking on land.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 319
63. Sea lions have shorter lactation periods than true seals.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 320
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321
64. Unlike pinnipeds, sirenians are completely free from the terrestrial environment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 324
65. Manatees form pair bonds that last even after mating.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 325
66. The cetacean body is covered with fine hairs.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 327
67. Cetaceans lack sweat glands in their skin.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 327
68. Gray whales spend the winter months in the Bering Sea where they mate and give birth.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 334
69. Vision in toothed whales is very strong.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 338
70. Toothed whales use low frequency clicks to make out the outline of potential prey.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 338
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339
71. The spermaceti of sperm whales is composed of waxy and oily materials.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 335
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184 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 72. Ambergris is produced by dolphins.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 336
73. Dolphins have a beak whereas porpoises have a rounded blunt head.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 336
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337
MATCHING
Match the food with the most closely associated whale. a. squid b. crabs, cuttlefish, flounder and halibut c. krill 74. Beluga Whale
75. Sperm Whale
76. Blue Whale
74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 336
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 335
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 333
Match the food with the closely associated predator. a. crustaceans, molluscs and echinoderms b. fish c. sea urchins d. water plants 77. Sea Otter
78. Eared Seals
79. Walruses
80. Dugong
77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 317
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 319
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 324
80. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 325
Match the food item with the animal that consumes it. a. vegetation b. plankton c. fish, squid 81. Toothed Whales
82. Baleen Whales
83. Sirenians
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 335
82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 331
83. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 325
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185 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals Match the location with the species. a. southeastern United States b. South America c. Africa d. Indo-pacific 84. Trichechus manatus
85. Trichechus senegalensis
86. Trichechus inunguis
87. Dungong dugon
84. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 325
85. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 325
86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 325
87. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 325
Match the population characteristic with the species. a. endangered b. extinct c. population size 1.8 million d. population size 22,000 88. Steller's Sea Cow
89. Northern Manatee
90. Sperm whale
91. Eastern Pacific Gray Whale
88. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 325
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 325
90. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 334
91. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 334
Match the insulation with the closely associated animal. a. Fur b. Fur and fat c. Blubber 92. Whales
93. Sea Otter
94. Sea Lion
92. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 327
93. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 317
94. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 319
Match the prey detection method with the most closely associated animal. a. manipulating with flippers b. echolocation c. eyesight 95. Dolphins
96. Seals
97. Sirenians
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186 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 95. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 338
96. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 319
97. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 325
Match the possible importance of a whale behavior with its most closely associated behavior. a. establishing dominance b. marking position c. looking around 98. Spy Hopping
99. Breaching
100. Slapping
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 329
99. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 329
100. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 329
Match the possible importance of a whale behavior with its most closely associated behavior. a. marking a position b. unknown c. aggressive behavior 101. Tail Slapping
102. Tail Cocking
103. Flipper Flapping
101. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 329
102. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 329
103. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 331
Match the purpose with the mechanism it is most closely associated with. a. locate prey b. trap prey near surface c. filter feed 104. Baleen plates
105. Bubble net
106. Strong sonar pulse
104. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 333
105. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 333
106. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 339
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187 Chapter 12
—
Marine Mammals ESSAY
107. List the three major groups of pinnipeds and outline the anatomical differences between them.
ANS: The pinnipeds families include Otaridae (eared seals), Phocidae (true seals), and Odobenidae (walruses). In the eared seals external ears are present and the hind limbs of these pinnipeds rotate at right angles to the body, which facilitates walking on land. In the true seals and walruses, there are no external ears. True seals are also not capable of rotating their hind limbs forward so these animals are rather clumsy on land. Walruses are the largest of the three pinnipeds and have tusks.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 319
–
324
108. Describe at least 3 physiological adaptations in pinnipeds that enable them to dive deep.
ANS: They exhale before diving, slow their metabolism by 20% and reduce heart rate. Blood is redistributed to vital organs such as the brain and heart to maintain their essential functions. The other organs do not need to fully function on a dive.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 319
–
320
109. You are the aquarium keeper at a large oceanarium. The facility acquires a manatee, and you are charged with its care. Explain what you would feed it.
ANS: Sirens feed exclusively on vegetation growing underwater, such as seagrasses. Fresh green produce such as spinach, lettuce, etc. could supplement its diet.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 325
110. Describe the feeding behavior of humpback whales. Why do they employ this type of food capture method?
ANS: Humpback whales feed on small schools of fishes and invertebrates. They feed by first circling the school from below while blowing a screen of bubbles around their food as a trap. Next they come up through the tube of bubbles they have created with mouths open and consume the food. This method of food capture concentrates the prey.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 333
111. List the 3 major groups of baleen whales and give their major features.
ANS: The three major groups of baleen whales are the right whales, rorquals, and the gray whales. Right whales are characterized by having no dorsal fins and no pleats or grooves on their lower jaw. Rorquals have dorsal fins and grooves on their lower jaw that aid in the expansion of the mouth for feeding purposes. Gray whales lack grooves and a distinct dorsal fin but have a dorsal bump toward the rear third of the body.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 331
–
334
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188 Chapter 12
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Marine Mammals 112. Why must sea otters consume 25% of their body weight in food every day?
ANS: This is most likely the result of the necessity of maintaining a high metabolic rate in these warm-
blooded animals that live in relatively cold waters.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 317
113. What reproductive benefit is obtained by the polygynous sexual habits of many marine mammals, such as elephant seals?
ANS: In nature, reproductive output is usually limited by the availability of eggs produced by the females. Males produce many millions of sperm and can thus fertilize numerous females without effort. Having one dominant male fertilizing numerous females ensures that only the fittest males transfer their genes to the next generation. Those males that successfully obtain and defend a harem of females are thought to be genetically fit.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 320
114. Explain why phocids, especially ones living in polar areas, generally have very short lactation periods compared to eared seals.
ANS: Many phocids live in polar waters, where the ice floes tend to break and crack. As a result the mothers want to ensure that the young develop as quickly as possible in order for them to enter the water as soon as possible. Another reason is that the mothers cannot sustain extended periods of lactation because they could eventually lose too much body fat.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 320
–
321
115. Compare sirenians and cetaceans, describing 4 ways that they are similar.
ANS: Sirenians share many similar characteristics such as reduced body hair, disappearance of hindlimbs, possession of tail flukes, possession of flippers, and a completely aquatic existence.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 325
116. Describe the fossil and embryological evidence for the terrestrial origins of cetaceans.
ANS: Fossil records show massive animals, with four limbs, that resemble modern day whales. Other evidence is observed in modern cetaceans. First, the embryos of whales, like all mammals, have four limbs. The hindlimbs eventually disappear during the development of the embryo and all that remains is an obsolete pelvic girdle. The embryos of whales also show a normal mammalian nostril arrangement, but this does not persist, as the nostrils migrate to the dorsal side of the animals to become the blow holes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 326
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189 Chapter 12
—
Marine Mammals 117. Describe at least 3 adaptations of modern whales adapted for a completely aquatic existence.
ANS: First and foremost is the overall shape of the cetacean body. It is shaped like that of a fish, which implies that this shape is ideally suited for aquatic habitats. The nostrils of whales, which are called blow holes, occupy the dorsal surface of the animals, making it much easier to breathe without having to lift the head completely out of the water. Whales are also covered by a thick layer of blubber in order to minimize heat loss and maximize buoyancy in cold waters. The ears of whales are blocked by wax to minimize possible damage from the marine environment and to eliminate any compressible air passages. These ears are also internal, which could eliminate possible drag effects. Finally, the whale circulatory system is designed to minimize heat loss by incorporating a heat exchange mechanism in the appendages.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 326
–
327
118. Explain the unique purpose of baleen plates. What trophic position do baleen whales occupy, and what advantage is it to the baleen whales to consume the diet they do?
ANS: The baleen replaced teeth and consists of keratin fibers fused together. They function to strain plankton, mainly krill, on which the whales feed from the sea. Krill feed on phytoplankton. As a secondary level consumer the baleen whales have access to ten or more times the energy and organic material available to the toothed whales who may be feeding at the third to sixth tropic level. This enables them to be the largest animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 331 | 333
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190 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities Chapter 13
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Intertidal Communities
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The supralittoral zone is: a. the area below the low tide mark. b. the area above the high tide mark. c. the area between low and high tide marks. d. the area under the rocks. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
2. Most of the animals living in the rocky intertidal are: a. infaunal. b. epifaunal. c. epiphytic. d. meiofaunal. e. pelagic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 346
3. The organisms of the intertidal are subject to daily changes in all except: a. exposure to air. b. desiccation. c. wind and waves. d. low light levels. e. heat. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 346
–
348
4. During winter months in temperate environments organisms can die from: a. high rain fall. b. freezing. c. low sunlight. d. increased predation. e. increased pH level. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 347
5. Lichens of the supralittoral fringe are compound associations between: a. algae and bacteria. b. fungi and bacteria. c. bacteria and cyanobacteria. d. fungi and algae. e. algae and cyanobacteria ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
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191 Chapter 13
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Intertidal Communities 6. A tar-like patch found in the upper North Atlantic supra-intertidal usually is: a. a lichen. b. a cyanobacteria. c. sea hair. d. a sponge. e. a seaweed. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
7. Rough periwinkles that live in the splash zone use ____ for respiration. a. gills b. lungs c. the mantle cavity d. the foot e. the radula ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
8. The rough periwinkles protect exposure of eggs by a. producing planktonic eggs inside jelly coats. b. attaching gelatinous egg masses to large algae. c. retaining the eggs in the mantle cavity. d. providing a protective membrane around the eggs. e. dispersing them into the water column. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
9. Barnacles such as Balanus
are most common in the ____ zone of the rocky intertidal. a. upper midlittoral b. middle midlittoral c. lower midlittoral d. subtidal e. splash ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
10. Sea urchins living in the rocky intertidal zone use the following method to overcome wave shock: a. creating burrows in which they live. b. having a low profile. c. using spines to dissipate the energy of the wave. d. all of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 347
–
348
11. Rockweeds overcome the problems of desiccation by: a. growing only in shaded areas. b. having a gelatinous covering. c. evaporating water from their tissues. d. bending with the waves. e. being covered with a waxy cuticle. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 347
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192 Chapter 13
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Intertidal Communities 12. The upper limit of an organism's distribution in the rocky intertidal is usually determined by: a. grazing effect. b. predation. c. pH. d. desiccation. e. competition. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
13. Supralittoral isopods are a. predators. b. herbivores. c. detritivores. d. scavengers. e. grazers. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
14. Supralittoral isopods a. must have some salt water cover daily. b. would drown if placed in water. c. return to the sea to lay eggs. d. have pseudogills. e. prey on barnacles. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
15. On very wavy rocky shores, mussels will occupy the ____ zone without being affected too much by predation. a. lower intertidal b. upper intertidal c. middle intertidal d. supratidal e. splash ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 357
16. On Pacific coasts, the population of mussels is kept in check by predation from: a. sea otters. b. sea stars. c. sea urchins. d. barnacles. e. supralittoral isopods. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 356
17. The size of sediment particles on sandy beaches will influence the following characteristic of the beach: a. porosity. b. oxygen content. c. food content. d. rate of water drainage. e. all of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 360
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193 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 18. Most of the animals living in the sandy intertidal are: a. infaunal. b. epifaunal. c. epiphytic. d. planktonic. e. nektonic. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 361
19. The area with the highest species diversity among the following is: a. rocky subtidal. b. sandy subtidal. c. sandy intertidal. d. rocky supratidal. e. splash zone. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 351
20. ____ is common in sandy intertidal areas. a. Predation b. Algal grazing c. Deposit feeding d. Parasitism ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 361
–
362
21. An example of a filter feeder is: a. a mussel. b. a sea star. c. a crab. d. a nematode. e. an isopod. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
22. Grain size in the intertidal is primarily determined by: a. wave activity. b. types of animals in the area. c. amount of sunlight. d. feeding types in the sediment. e. burrowing activity of infauna. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 363
23. Intertidal soft bottoms are unstable due to: a. wave action. b. erosion. c. changing tides. d. currents. e. all of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 360
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194 Chapter 13
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Intertidal Communities 24. Ghost crabs predominate in: a. sandy supratidal. b. sandy intertidal. c. sandy subtidal. d. rocky shores. e. splash zones. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 363
25. Which of the following is false
about rocky shores? a. Mangroves are common. b. Silt is removed by waves. c. They retain finer sediments. d. Surf functions to oxygenate the water. e. Sessile organisms are common. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 350
–
354
26. Mussels attach to the rocky shores by: a. byssal threads. b. mucous secretions. c. foot. d. calcareous shells. e. glue. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 348
27. The following is not
a common feeding type in rocky intertidal areas: a. filter feeding. b. scavenger. c. grazer. d. deposit feeding. e. carnivore. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 355
–
357
28. Oysters dominate this rocky shore zone. a. The middle and low midlittoral b. The subtidal zone c. The supralittoral fringe d. The upper midlittoral e. The splash zone. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
29. A tidepool exposes organisms to all the following except: a. desiccation. b. thermal stress. c. salinity changes. d. pH changes. e. dissolved oxygen changes. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 346
–
348
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195 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 30. Tidepool organism adaptations to changing environmental conditions are most similar to those of animals living in the ____. a. supralittoral zone b. salt marsh c. sandy beach d. mangrove forest e. open ocean ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 354
31. ____ factors determine which type of algae species will predominate in tide pools in New England. a. Bottom-up b. Top-up c. Abiotic d. Biological e. Physical ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 358
32. The macroplants of the midlittoral temperate Pacific and Atlantic are characterized by: a. red algae. b. green algae. c. brown algae. d. seagrasses. e. mangals. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
33. The dominant producers of the infralittoral fringe in temperate Pacific and Atlantic are the: a. foliose red algae. b. green algae. c. large brown algae. d. eelgrass. e. calcareous red algae. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
34. The supralittoral fringe of the tropics contains all the following zones except: a. brown. b. white. c. gray. d. black. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
35. The true border between land and sea in the tropics is called the ____ zone. a. brown b. white c. gray d. black e. yellow ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
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196 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 36. The organism in the tropics that replaces limpets in the supralittoral fringe is a. turtle grass. b. nerites. c. the hermit crab. d. knobby periwinkle. e. the coconut crab. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
37. The tropical supralittoral zone immersed only at the highest spring tides is the: a. brown. b. white. c. gray. d. black. e. yellow. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
38. The upper distribution of tropical intertidal nerites can be found in the ____ zone. a. brown. b. white. c. gray. d. black. e. yellow ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
39. The tropical midlittoral fringe has two zones; they are a. brown and yellow. b. brown and pink. c. black and white. d. brown and black. e. pink and yellow. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
40. The yellow zone in the tropical middle intertidal owes its color to: a. sponges. b. boring algae. c. barnacles. d. limpets. e. crabs. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
41. The pink zone of the tropical middle intertdial is characterized by the widespread: a. irregular worm snails. b. coralline algae. c. anemones. d. keyhole limpets. e. barnacles. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 352
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197 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 42. A common organism of the temperate infralittoral fringe (lower intertidal) is called: a. Laminaria
. b. Entermorpha
. c. Ulva
. d. lichen. e. giant kelp. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351
43. Some resident intertidal fish include all the following except. a. rock eels. b. lamprey eels. c. gobies. d. sculpins. e. blennies. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 359
44. The upper sandy beach often ends: a. where sand dunes begin. b. where terrestrial vegetation begins. c. at the high tide line. d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 366
45. Most of the organisms of the supralittoral fringe of sandy beach cope by: a. moving out of the area during low tide. b. closing their shells. c. living in permanent or semi-permanent tubes and burrows. d. tolerating desiccation. e. migrating into upper tidal zones. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 361
46. Which zone does not occur in the sandy beach? a. resurgence b. drying sand c. saturation d. retention e. maintenance ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 367
47. Primary production in the sandy beach is primarily by: a. seagrasses. b. diatoms. c. dinoflagelletes. d. mangals. e. both b and c ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 361 | 364
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198 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 48. The zone that is exposed only during spring tides is called: a. lower intertidal. b. subtidal. c. Laminaria
. d. seagrass. e. splash. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
49. On both the eastern and western coasts of the USA, the subtidal zone contains very productive a. seagrass meadows. b. Laminaria
seaweeds. c. Ulva
flats. d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 351 | 367
TRUE/FALSE
50. Sessile organisms predominate on sandy/muddy subtidal habitats.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 361
51. Sea stars are not sensitive to desiccation and hence are found in the high intertidal.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 351
52. Zonation on a rocky intertidal zone refers to the distribution of different kinds of rocks from one area to the next.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 348
53. Animals living in the supralittoral fringe must be able to deal with the force of wave shock.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 347
54. Mussels outcompete barnacles for space in the middle intertidal zone of the temperate rocky intertidal.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 356
55. Tide pools offer refuge to intertidal animals because they are not subject to wild fluctuations in temperature and salinity.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 354
56. The pH of a tide pool can change dramatically over short time periods.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 354
57. Barnacles are more adept than mussels at withstanding the effect of desiccation.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 346
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199 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 58. Beaches with heavy wave action tend to have finer sand particles and are flat.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 360
59. Unlike rocky beaches, sandy beaches have vertical zonation of organisms that live in the sediment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 365
–
367
60. Coquinas are carried up the beach for filter feeding by the waves.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 363
61. Space is not a limiting factor on a rocky intertidal beach.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 355
–
357
MATCHING
Match the zone with those it is most closely associated with in the Stephensons' classification system. a. intertidal zone b. maritime zone c. splash zone 62. Supralittoral fringe
63. Supralittoral
64. Midlittoral
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 350
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 350
64. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 350
Match the organism with the most closely associated tidal zone. a. acorn barnacles b. mussels c. periwinkles 65. Supralittoral fringe
66. Upper midlittoral
67. Middle zone
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 350
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 351
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 351
Match the plant with the zone it is most closely associated with. a. Laminaria b. Lichens c. Rockweeds 68. Midlittoral
69. Supralittoral fringe
70. Infralittoral fringe
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200 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 351
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 350
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 351
Match the species with the zone it is most closely associated with. a. Fuzzy chiton b. Knobby periwinkle c. Nerites 71. White zone
72. Gray zone
73. Black zone
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 352
72. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 352
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 352
Match the algae with the zone it is most closely associated with. a. coralline algae b. boring algae c. Sargassum 74. Yellow Zone
75. Pink Zone
76. Infralittoral fringe
74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 352
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 352
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 352
Match the sandy beach characteristic with the term. a. surf zone b. lacks a surf zone c. the water flowing back down the beach d. the water running up the beach 77. Swash
78. Backwash
79. Dissipative beach
80. Reflective beach
77. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 360
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 360
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 360
80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 360
Match the wave action with the sandy beach exposure level. a. moderate b. none c. low d. high
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201 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 81. Exposed
82. Semi-exposed
83. Protected
84. Very Protected
81. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 360
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 360
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 360
84. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 360
Match the wave type with the sandy beach exposure level. a. plunging, surging b. none c. spilling 85. Exposed
86. Semi-Exposed
87. Protected
85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 360
86. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 360
87. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 360
Match the moisture source with the vertical sandy beach zone during low tide. a. low tide water retained b. continuous water c. due to capillary action of water 88. Retention
89. Resurgence
90. Saturation
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 367
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 367
90. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 367
Match the food source with the organism. a. bivalves b. plankton c. meiofauna d. detritus 91. Mole crab
92. Moon snail
93. Lugworm
94. Sand dollar
91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 362
92. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 363
93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 362
94. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 361
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202 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities ESSAY
95. List the zones that comprise rocky shores. Which of the zones would you expect to have the highest species diversity and which would have the lowest species diversity? Explain your answer.
ANS: The three zones of rocky shores are the splash zone, the intertidal zone, and the subtidal zone. Species diversity is highest in the subtidal zone as a result of the greater stability of this zone. Animals are nearly always submerged in the subtidal, which means they will always have oxygen and food. Wave action in the subtidal is also reduced. The ultimate result is that more species can occupy this area without suffering as they would in the upper reaches of the intertidal.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 348
–
350
96. List the zones that comprise the sandy shores. Which zone has the highest diversity and which has the lowest? Explain your answer.
ANS: In the supralittoral and midlittoral zones the surface and near surface have the dry zone, and drying zones. Just below this area is the retention zone. Closer to the ocean and deeper is the zone of retention; eventually the saturation zone is reached. The highest diversity occurs in the saturation zone because it remains moist for the organisms. The dry zone conversely has the lowest diversity because of desiccation.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 365
–
367
97. Describe what constitutes a lichen. How do they obtain their nutrition? Where are they usually found in the rocky intertidal?
ANS: Lichens are symbiotic associations between algae and fungi. The algae supply the association with food from photosynthesis, while the fungus supplies nutrients from its decomposition and waste products. Lichens are common in the supralittoral fringe of rocky shores.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 350
98. List at least 3 adaptations of rocky intertidal animals to resist desiccation.
ANS: Animals living in the rocky intertidal show a number of adaptations against desiccation. Among these are choosing special living arrangements within crevices or among other animals of the same species. This reduces water loss by decreasing the exposed surface area. Many animals can also close their shells when exposed in order to conserve water within. In addition, some animals can simply pick up and move out of exposed areas to tidepools or to the water line.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 346
–
347
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203 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 99. How do intertidal brown algae compete with barnacles and mussels for space?
ANS: These macrophytes use the sweeping motion of the blades to prevent settling cyprid larvae of barnacles (called cyprids
, see Ch. 9) and larval mussels (called pediveligers
) from getting a hold onto the rocks nearby.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 357
100. Even though rocky shores are subject to some of the same abiotic factors as sandy beaches, such as changes in temperature and salinity, the species diversity is much higher in the former than the latter. What other variables do you think contribute to this high species diversity in the rocky intertidal?
ANS: The most notable difference between the two habitats is the greater number of diverse microhabitats in the rocky environment. This means that there are more niches that can be exploited by animals living in the rocky intertidal, which results in a greater species diversity.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 350
–
354
101. What are at least 3 adaptations that rocky intertidal organisms have for withstanding wave shock?
ANS: Depending on the species, some organisms, like chitons and limpets, have very low profiles in order to minimize wave contact. These animals can use their foot for adhering to the rock surface, whereas other organisms use tube feet (sea stars), byssal threads (mussels), cementing materials (oysters and barnacles), or a holdfast (algae). Other adaptations include hiding under rocks or between rock crevices, and having strong but flexible bodies (brown algae).
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 347
–
348
102. Compare the sandy intertidal and rocky intertidal with respect to the types of feeding exhibited by the animals living in those areas.
ANS: Since the rocky intertidal is so wave swept, and since the substrate is hard and does not absorb food particles, deposited materials tend to get washed away with the receding tides and waves. As a result, deposit feeding is uncommon in the rocky intertidal, with the possible exception of tide pools. Sandy beaches, on the other hand, have larger accumulations of deposited material that is retained by the soft sediments in these areas. Deposit feeders are more common here than in rocky areas. In both rocky and sandy intertidal areas, filter feeding is prevalent due to the abundance of water-born food particles. Scavenging and predation are also common in these two areas.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 355
–
357 | 361
–
363
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204 Chapter 13
—
Intertidal Communities 103. The base of the food web in sandy intertidal areas exposed to wave action is detritus, not algae. What prevents seaweed from having the role of primary producer in this habitat?
ANS: Attached algae are not common in these areas because there is no permanent hard substrate for holdfast attachment. As a result, animals must rely on detritus produced from offshore kelp beds or benthic algae or detritus formed in nearby estuaries. In contrast, rocky shores are covered with algae, which can be grazed directly by rocky intertidal animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 361
–
367
104. How does the introduction of predators to a habitat decrease the effects of competition between two other species?
ANS: Predators can control the population of one of the species that is in competition with another species. If the species being preyed upon is dominant over the other species, then the effect of the predator will be to give refuge to the less successful competitor and it will be able to withstand the competitive pressures of the dominant competitor.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 355
–
358
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205 Chapter 14
—
Estuaries Chapter 14
—
Estuaries
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Drowned river valley estuaries were formed by: a. tectonic activity. b. the scoring effect of glaciers. c. rising sea levels after glacial periods. d. both a and b. e. none of the above. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
2. Estuaries in which river flow is strong and prevents the flow of seawater upstream are called: a. fjords. b. salt-wedge estuaries. c. well-mixed estuaries. d. tectonic estuaries. e. drowned river valleys. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
3. When retreating glaciers carved deep coastal valleys they created: a. fjords. b. salt-wedge estuaries. c. well-mixed estuaries. d. tectonic estuaries. e. drowned river valleys. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
4. An example of a salt-wedge estuary is: a. the Mississippi Delta. b. Delaware Bay. c. Chesapeake Bay. d. Puget Sound. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
5. San Francisco Bay was created by: a. rising sea levels. b. retreating fjords. c. erosion of the coastline. d. tectonic activity. e. glaciers. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
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206 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 6. Where rivers slow and drop their sediment load they form deltas termed: a. dendritic. b. coastal plain. c. tidal flats. d. sand bar. e. tombolos. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
7. When sediment removal is less than input we often find: a. fjords. b. tectonic estuaries. c. tidal flats. d. bar-built estuaries. e. drowned river valleys. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
8. In a well-mixed estuary, river flow is ____ tidal currents. a. greater than b. less than c. perpendicular to d. equal to ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
9. What causes tidal overmixing in estuaries? a. strong tidal currents. b. strong river flow. c. an unstable water column. d. downwelling. e. animal migrations. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
10. When dense seawater sinks below lighter fresh water we observe a condition called: a. downwelling. b. salt wedge. c. tidal overmixing. d. upwelling. e. convection current. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
11. An estuary where freshwater inflow is greater than evaporation is called a: a. negative estuary. b. positive estuary. c. reversible estuary. d. neutral estuary. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
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207 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 12. An example of a negative estuary is: a. Delaware Bay. b. Puget Sound. c. Laguna Madre. d. San Francisco Bay. e. Chesapeake Bay. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
13. It is common for negative estuaries to be: a. lower in salinity than the ocean. b. nutrient poor. c. nutrient rich. d. lower in temperature than the ocean. e. brackish. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
14. In a salt-wedge estuary the relationship between salinity and depth is that salinity: a. is even from top to bottom. b. increases with depth. c. changes abruptly with depth. d. varies horizontally. e. decreases with depth. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
15. In a partially mixed estuary the salinity a. is extremely variable from place to place. b. is stratified with lower salinity near the bottom. c. is lower than the ocean but relatively homogenous. d. increases with depth. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
16. In estuaries at high latitudes, which of the following factors strongly influences mixing? a. Oxygen concentrations b. Nutrient concentrations c. Carbon dioxide concentrations d. Temperature e. Turbidity ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 374
17. Estuaries tend to be well supplied in the following limiting nutrient(s) of the open ocean: a. phosphorus. b. nitrogen and silica. c. phosphorus and silica. d. nitrogen and phosphorus. e. carbon and oxygen. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 375
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208 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 18. Pseudofeces are: a. semisolid deposits containing un-digested material. b. semisolid deposits of digested material. c. solid deposits containing un-digested material. d. solid deposits containing digested material. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 375
19. The concentration of nutrients in estuaries causes____ productivity. a. extremely low b. low c. average d. medium e. high ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 375
20. The number of resident species in estuaries tend to be ___________ relative to nearby aquatic ecosystems. a. an order of magnitude higher b. greater c. about the same d. fewer ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 375
21. Which factor currently tends to regulate abundance of commercially valuable estuary species such as oysters and crabs? a. Competition b. Predation c. Human activities d. Normal seasonal die off e. Disease ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 375
22. All of the following tend to hold nutrients in estuaries for use by other organisms except: a. adsorption onto silt particles. b. reduced numbers of filter feeders. c. the formation of pseudofeces. d. overturn. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 375
23. An animal that maintains a constant salt concentration in their body is called: a. an osmoconformer. b. an osmoregulator. c. hyperosmotic. d. hypo-osomotic. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 376
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209 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 24. An example of an osmoregulator at low salinities and an osmoconformer at higher salinities is a(n): a. blue crab. b. salmon. c. oyster. d. sea squirt. e. tuna. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 376
25. The animals that remain isosmotic to the surrounding seawater are called: a. osmoconformers. b. osmoregulators. c. hyperosmotic. d. hyposmotic. e. euryhaline. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 376
26. An example of an osmoconformer is: a. a crab. b. a polychaete worm. c. a fish. d. a sea squirt (tunicate). ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 376
27. All of the following are adaptations against excessive water and salt exchange between animals and their surrounding environment except: a. having very permeable tissues. b. covering body with mucus. c. living inside a tube that can be isolated from the external environment. d. covering the body with a hard exoskeleton. e. actively absorbing salt ions with gills. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 376
28. All of the following are adaptations to remain stationary in the ever-shifting soft bottom of estuaries except: a. extensive roots and rhizomes. b. holdfasts. c. sessile lifestyle. d. operculum. e. byssal threads. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 376
29. Estuaries for many transient species are considered: a. a place to spawn. b. nurseries. c. too full of predators for juveniles. d. very stable environments. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
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210 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 30. An example of a species that uses the estuary as a nursery ground is the: a. Atlantic eel. b. seal. c. shad. d. lobster. e. tuna. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
31. A euryhaline species can tolerate: a. a wide range of temperatures. b. a narrow range of temperatures. c. a wide range of salinities. d. a narrow range of salinities. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
32. All are true of oyster reefs except a. they are oriented perpendicular to currents. b. they are concentrated in lower salinity areas. c. they are important habitats for other organisms. d. they are adversely affected by rapid changes in salinity. e. they are increasing in the Chesapeake Bay. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 377
33. Larval oysters attach themselves to: a. They do not have specific requirements. b. any available solid substrate. c. other oyster shells. d. both b and c e. sand. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
34. Oysters generally settle at right angles to tidal currents. These currents: a. carry food away from the oysters. b. clear sediments from the oysters. c. help them avoid oyster drills. d. deposit sediments among the oysters. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
35. Ecologically mud flat areas are a focal area of: a. nutrient recycling. b. primary production. c. tertiary consumers. d. nutrient sink. e. sessile epifauna. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
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211 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 36. The energy base on mud flats is: a. phytoplankton. b. detritus. c. marsh plants. d. algae. e. chemosynthesis. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 378
37. Most of the animals of mud flats are: a. planktonic. b. epifaunal. c. oysters. d. infaunal. e. nektonic. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 378
38. Many of the burrowing animals of the mud flat must actively a. keep digging to exchange gasses. b. circulate water through their burrows. c. live near natural breaks in the sediment for gas exchange. d. maintain an anaerobic environment. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 378
39. Ghost shrimp live: a. in burrows. b. under rocks on the mud flat. c. on the surface of the mud. d. in the water above the mud flat. e. symbiotically with bivalves. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 380
40. Ghost shrimp and mud shrimp play an active role in: a. compacting the sediment. b. reducing species through competition. c. decomposition of seagrass roots. d. oxygenating the sediments. e. consuming marsh plants. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 380
41. Seagrasses can reach high productivity levels with the aid of: a. oxygen brought to their roots via mud shrimp burrows. b. symbiotic, nitrogen-fixing bacteria. c. their leaves, cleared of epiphytes by grazers. d. fertilization by manatees. e. eutrophic water conditions. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 380
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212 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 42. Seagrasses are important in all the following except: a. nutrient recycling. b. providing a habitat for animals. c. stabilizing sediments. d. being consumed by most estuarine herbivores. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 380
–
381
43. A common direct consumer of eelgrass (
Zostera
) is: a. snails. b. waterfowl. c. sea cucumbers. d. manatees. e. sea stars. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 380
44. Caribbean seagrasses are extensively fed on by all except a. manatees. b. green sea turtles. c. some sea urchins. d. sea cucumbers. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 380
–
381
45. The dominant plant species closest to the water line of salt marsh communities is: a. cordgrass. b. pickleweed. c. spike grass. d. salt wort. e. mangroves. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 382
46. Marsh plants are important in all of the following except: a. trapping sediments. b. serving as a refuge for animals. c. being directly consumed food. d. stabilizing sediments. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 382
–
383
47. Pneumatophores of black mangroves are: a. prop roots. b. aerial roots. c. germinated seeds. d. pores on leaves. e. salt-excreting structures. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 388
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213 Chapter 14
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Estuaries TRUE/FALSE
48. All estuaries are diluted by freshwater runoff.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 371
49. Estuaries are immune from larger temperature variations.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 374
50. Seawater and fresh water do not mix very well in fjords.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 373
51. The major source of nitrogenous nutrients in estuaries is incoming seawater.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 375
52. The species diversity in estuaries is high, but the number of individuals is low.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 375
53. Estuaries are important nurseries because of the relatively low numbers of predators in these areas.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 377
54. Mud flats are typically low in organic matter.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 378
55. Most burrowing animals of estuaries exchange gases with their environment through their skin.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 378
56. Seagrasses are usually consumed directly by grazers in estuaries.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 380
57. Salt marsh communities predominate in temperate and subarctic areas.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 382
58. Salt marsh plants play an important role in expanding the terrestrial environment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 387
59. Mangrove forests predominantly occur in temperate regions.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 387
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214 Chapter 14
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Estuaries MATCHING
Match the mangrove ecosystem species with its most closely associated trophic level. a. heterotrophic bacteria b. mangrove c. amphipod 60. Primary producer
61. Detritivore
62. Secondary consumer
60. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 389 REF: 406
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 389 REF: 406
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 389 REF: 406
Match the plant with its most closely associated substrate attachment method. a. algae b. red mangrove c. seagrasses d. black mangrove 63. Prop roots
64. Rhizomes
65. Holdfast
66. Pneumatophores
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 380
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 388
65. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 380
66. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 388
Match the process/epoch with its most closely associated estuary type. a. glacial formed b. land movement c. inter-glacial periods 67. Coastal plain
68. Fjord
69. Tectonic
67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 372
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 372
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 372
Match the process with its most closely associated result. a. sediment based barrier islands b. water-filled, steep-sided valleys c. sediment deposition at the upper river mouth 70. Tidal flats
71. Bar-built
72. Fjord
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215 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 70. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 372
71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 372
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 372
Match the words with those they are most closely associated with. a. Scandinavia estuaries b. Long Island Sound c. Cape Hatteras region 73. Drowned river valley
74. Bar-Built estuaries
75. Fjord
73. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 372
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 372
75. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 372
Match the process with its most closely associated estuarine mixing type. a. Evaporation can exceed freshwater input. b. Fresh water flows over seawater. c. Dense surface seawater mixes into freshwater below. 76. Tidal overmixing
77. Positive estuary
78. Negative estuary
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 373
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 373
78. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 373
Match the area with the type of estuary. a. Puget Sound b. Delaware Bay c. Sacramento River mouth in San Francisco Bay 79. Salt-wedge estuary
80. Well-mixed estuary
81. Partially-mixed estuary
79. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 373
80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 373
81. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 373
Match the species with its most closely associated salinity concentration type. a. Nereis
polychaetes b. tunicates c. hermit crab 82. Osmoconformer
83. Osmoregulator
84. Both osmoconformer and osmoregulator
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216 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 376
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 376
84. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 376
Match the genus with its most closely associated common name. a. Mya b. Urosalpinx c. Ulva 85. Oyster drill
86. Green algae
87. Soft-shelled clam
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 377
86. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 378
87. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 378
Match the primary producer with its most closely associated herbivore. a. soft-shell clam b. waterfowl c. green turtles 88. Thalassia
89. Zostera
90. Diatoms
88. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 381
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 380
90. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 378
ESSAY
91. Outline 3 human uses of estuaries that impact their ecology.
ANS: Humans rely on important estuary-dependent species for food such as oysters, crabs, scallops, shrimp and fish. Human dredging and filling in of estuaries combined with pollution affect the size and quality of estuaries. Up-river dams modify the flow of water, sediment, and woody debris that historically influenced the physical environment of the estuary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 391
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217 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 92. Define the following terms: •
Estuary •
Tidal flat •
Salt-wedge estuary ANS: An estuary is a semi-enclosed body of water where freshwater from a river meets saltwater from the sea. Tidal flats are sediment deposits that accumulate in river mouths and are exposed during low tide. A salt-wedge estuary is one in which river flow into the estuary is strong enough to force back the upper reaches of the lower layer of seawater coming into the estuary. The result of such action is to create a narrow wedge of seawater moving up the estuary.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 371
–
373
93. Define the following terms: •
Coastal plain estuary •
Tectonic estuary •
Fjord ANS: A coastal plain estuary is formed between glacial periods when water from melting glaciers causes the sea level to rise and flood coastal plains and low-lying rivers. A tectonic estuary is created when earthquakes cause the land to sink, allowing seawater to cover it. A fjord is a glacial cut deep valley filled with water.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 372
94. How does temperature-driven vertical turnover occur, and what is its importance?
ANS: Vertical turnover occurs in estuaries in which the upper layer of water is cooled in the winter. This cooling results in denser surface water than water below and causes surface water to sink and deeper water to rise to the top. Turnover has the effect of allowing nutrients to cycle between the water column and the sediments.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 373
–
374
95. What properties of estuaries make them highly productive areas?
ANS: Estuaries are very productive because they act as nutrient sinks. The abundance of nutrients supports the growth of phytoplankton, algae, and emergent plants, all of which support secondary production in estuaries and elsewhere. Nutrients are trapped in estuaries as a result of nutrient input from the sea and from rivers; adsorption of nutrients onto sinking particles; and the ejection of pseudofeces by benthic filter feeders at the bottom of estuaries.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 375
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218 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 96. Describe the difference between an osmoregulator and an osmoconformer.
ANS: Animals in estuaries fall under the categories of euryhaline osmoconformers, which tolerate drastic dilution or concentration of their tissue fluids, and osmoregulators that control the concentration of salts in their tissue very closely.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 376
97. Considering that species diversity in estuaries is limited by constant changes in salinity, temperature, and water movement, where, vertically, in an estuary would one expect to find the greatest species diversity? The least species diversity?
ANS: Looking at the vertical zones of an estuary, one finds the greatest species diversity on and in the sediments of estuaries. The reason for this is that fine sediments of estuaries trap a layer of interstitial seawater that does not change its salinity and temperature as drastically as overlying water. For this reason the sediments of estuaries are more stable environments and support a greater species diversity. Below the aerobic sediments, in the anoxic zone, few species other than methanogenic bacteria are found.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 377
–
380
98. What horizontal part of an estuary would you expect to show the greatest species diversity?
ANS: Since most estuarine animals are either marine or brackish species, the greatest diversity of organisms would occur in areas far from freshwater discharge.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 374
–
375
99. Even though estuaries support large numbers of organisms, there are relatively few numbers of species that live in estuaries. Why is this the case?
ANS: Estuaries are among the most productive marine environments. High levels of nutrients support large numbers of primary producers, which in turn support large numbers of consumers. The low species diversity of estuaries stems from the instability that characterizes this environment. Salinity fluctuates widely between seasons and from day to day. Temperature also fluctuates widely on a daily and seasonal basis. In addition, habitats in estuaries are subjected to strong currents and lowered oxygen levels, which make life a bit difficult in these areas. As a result, only animals that are adapted to a wide range of environmental conditions can survive in these areas and prosper and this has the effect of lowering the species diversity in these areas.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 375
–
376
100. Why are estuarine environments ideal locations for the development of juveniles of many species of marine animals?
ANS: The primary reasons for the suitability of estuaries as nurseries is the low number of potential predators and the plentiful food supply.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 377
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219 Chapter 14
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Estuaries 101. Oyster reefs are usually oriented at right angles to the currents in estuaries. How do you think this could be an advantage to the oysters living in this community?
ANS: The perpendicular arrangement of oyster reefs in estuaries provides the animals that comprise the reef with the greatest amount of exposure to tidal currents and river flow. This ensures that the animals will benefit from better access to food, nutrients, and oxygenated water and will enable the removal of a great amount of debris and silt that settles on the reef.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 377
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220 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities Chapter 15
—
Coral Reef Communities
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Coral reefs are an example of biological organisms that can: a. alter the temperature. b. moderate global warming. c. form the physical structure of the community. d. regulate water run-off. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 395
–
396
2. Cnidarians of the class ____ are responsible for building coral reefs. a. Anthozoa b. Hydrozoa c. Cubozoa d. Scyphozoa e. Palyzoa. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 199
3. The optimum temperature for coral formation occurs where the average annual temperatures are between ____
C and ____
C. a. 18, 20 b. 20, 23 c. 23, 25 d. 25, 27 e. 30, 40 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 405
4. Coral reefs form in areas where seawater temperatures average no less than: a. 10° C. b. 18° C. c. 30° C. d. 40° C. e. 45° C. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 405
5. The west coast of Africa and South America in the tropics do not support corals. Which of the following would likely prevent coral growth in these areas? a. cool northern flowing currents b. cool upwelling water c. depth of 25 meters d. both a and b ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 405
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221 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 6. The lack of corals near the mouths of the Orinoco and Amazon rivers is primarily due to: a. cool northern flowing currents. b. cool upwelling water. c. massive fresh water out-flow. d. clear water. e. both a and b ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 405
7. The Atlantic Ocean supports fewer coral species because most of the Atlantic is a. too warm. b. too stagnant. c. too clear. d. too cold. e. too nutrient-rich. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 402 | 405
8. Zooxanthellae are symbiotic: a. diatoms. b. dinoflagellates. c. radiolarians. d. coccolithophores. e. forameniferans. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 395
9. Coral reefs found very close to the shore of islands and continents are called: a. atolls. b. barrier reefs. c. table reefs. d. fringing reefs. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 401
10. Circular coral reefs that arise out of deep water with a centrally located lagoon are called: a. atolls. b. barrier reefs. c. table reefs. d. fringing reefs. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 402
11. Coral reefs separated from land by a lagoon or deep water channel are called: a. atolls. b. barrier reefs. c. table reefs. d. fringing reefs. e. patch reefs. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 401
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222 Chapter 15
—
Coral Reef Communities 12. Reefs that are separated by a lagoon from the land mass they surround are called: a. atolls. b. fringing reefs. c. barrier reefs. d. patch reefs. e. table reefs. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 401
13. The spur-and-groove formation of coral reefs is used as a means of: a. obtaining more sunlight. b. dissipating the energy of the waves. c. ensuring good circulation. d. capturing more zooplankton. e. directing fish migrations. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 403
14. The highest point on a reef is called the: a. reef crest. b. reef flat. c. reef front. d. back reef. e. leeward edge. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 403
15. The reef building corals are not found below 60 m (200 feet) due to: a. light requirements of the zooxanthellae. b. limited plankton as food. c. cold water. d. competition with non-reef building corals. e. predation by sea stars. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 405
16. Hermatypic refers to: a. reef building corals. b. non-reef building corals. c. gorgonians. d. black corals. e. sea fans and soft corals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 395
17. Ahermatypic refers to: a. reef building corals. b. non-reef building corals. c. plate coral. d. brain coral. e. finger coral. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 395
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223 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 18. Each of the following is an ahermatypic coral except: a. gorgonians. b. black corals. c. plate corals. d. soft corals. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 397
19. Fire coral are a member of the class a. Anthozoa. b. Hydrozoa. c. Scyphozoa. d. Cubozoa. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 398
20. Broadcast spawning refers to a. having multiple reproductive partners. b. releasing sperm into surrounding waters. c. releasing eggs into surrounding waters. d. internal fertilization. e. both b and c ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
21. An important asexual form of coral reproduction is called: a. broadcast spawning. b. brooding. c. synchronized spawning. d. fragmentation. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
22. The planktonic larvae of coral polyps are called: a. trochophore. b. zoea. c. planula. d. megalopa. e. echinopluteus. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
23. The constructive phase of coral reef formation involves: a. consumption of soft corals by crown of thorns sea stars. b. settling of planula larvae. c. Halimeda growth. d. both a and c ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 399
–
400
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224 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 24. The cycle of coral reef formation involves: a. bioerosion. b. budding to form corallites. c. solidification of rubble by encrusting coralline algae. d. a followed by c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 399
–
400
25. The importance of crustose calcareous algae on a coral reef is that they: a. provide food for corals. b. prevent settlement of larvae. c. cement bits of rubble in the process of reef formation. d. are a major source of food for reef dwellers. e. create habitat for juvenile fish. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 399
–
400
26. In the higher parts of reefs, where wave energy is greatest, ____ corals tend to dominate. a. platelike b. brain c. soft d. branching e. encrusting ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 404
27. Zooxanthellae provide some of the nutritional requirements of coral in the form of: a. glucose. b. fats. c. amino acids. d. a and c e. b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
28. Nitrogen supplies to atoll coral reefs are thought to come from all except a. nitrogen fixing bacteria. b. planktonic cyanobacteria wind-driven to the reefs. c. re-cycling by fish fecal material. d. runoff from land. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 407
29. A production/respiration ratio of one indicates: a. the reef is productive and exporting nutrients. b. little biomass is available for export. c. the reef may begin to decline. d. community respiration is too high. e. algae are overgrowing the coral. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 407
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225 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 30. The high productivity of coral reefs is a direct result of: a. the large numbers of phytoplankton and algae living on reefs. b. the tight symbiotic relationship between coral polyps and zooxanthellae. c. the high concentration of nutrients in tropical waters. d. the upwelling of tropical waters. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 407
31. High production of coral reefs relative to the surrounding sea is attributed to: a. the coral's ability to trap nutrients. b. the unique structure of the corals. c. the abundant phytoplankton surrounding the coral animals. d. the symbiotic relationship of coral animals and dinoflagellates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 407
32. The Indo-Pacific coral reefs have about ____ species of true corals to ____ in the Atlantic. a. 100 to 35 b. 500 to 62 c. 350 to 25 d. 62 to 500 e. 1000 to 62 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 406
33. Sessile and sedentary reef dwellers include a. sponges and cnidarians. b. crustaceans. c. many molluscs. d. fish. e. cephalopods. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 408
34. All of the following are filter feeding dwellers of coral reefs except: a. Christmas tree worms. b. sponges. c. giant clam. d. cone snails. e. tunicates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 412
35. An active hunter on the coral reef is a(n) a. sponge. b. cnidarian. c. giant clam. d. octopus. e. crinoid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 413
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226 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 36. The use of venom for paralyzing prey is common in a. cowries. b. Triton's trumpet snail. c. cone snails. d. mantis shrimp. e. sea stars. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 412
37. Coral reef invertebrates mainly feed during a. day time. b. night time. c. early morning. d. early evening. e. spring tides. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 411
38. An organism that can eviscerate its internal organs when stressed is the: a. sea star. b. sea cucumber. c. crinoid. d. sea urchin. e. brittle star. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 411
39. The mucus cocoon of parrotfish is used as a means of: a. masking the fish's scent. b. discouraging parasites from attaching. c. capturing plankton prey. d. maintaining osmotic balance. e. maintaining thermal constancy ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 412
40. Fish that mimic the morphology and behavior of cleaner wrasses are: a. groupers. b. pipefishes. c. stonefish. d. blennies. e. butterfly fish. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 410
41. Clownfishes are involved in a symbiotic relationship with: a. corals. b. anemones. c. pearlfishes. d. sea cucumbers. e. sea fans. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 410
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227 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 42. Corals that compete by growing fast can also use: a. stinging filaments from their digestive cavity. b. sweeper tentacles. c. interference. d. their greater ability to tolerate shade. e. chemicals to paralyze competitors. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 408
43. Massive forms of coral dominate: a. in the upper areas of the reef. b. in all areas of the reef. c. in deeper areas of the reef. d. in areas of the reef which receive the most light. e. on the top of the reef crest. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 404
44. Fast-growing algae are prevented from out competing corals due to: a. low nutrients inhibiting their growth. b. grazing on algae by herbivores. c. sensitivity to pressure increasing with depth. d. damselfish activity. e. b and d ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 408
–
409
45. The ecological model that high reef fish diversity is due to niche diversity is called: a. competition model. b. predation disturbance model. c. lottery model. d. resource limitation model. e. bet hedging model. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 408
46. The ecological model that random recruitment from the larval pool leads to high reef fish diversity is called: a. competition model. b. predation disturbance model. c. lottery model. d. resource limitation model. e. optimal foraging model. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 408
47. A problem with corals associated with warming of the oceans is called: a. white pox disease. b. coral bleaching. c. black band disease. d. yellow-blotch disease. e. green band disease. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 416
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228 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities TRUE/FALSE
48. Hermatypic corals are the principal reef building corals.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 395
49. The water inside the ring of an atoll is isolated from the open ocean and is usually less saline.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 402
50. The largest barrier reef in the world is the Great Barrier Reef of Australia.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 401
51. The reef flat of fringing reefs descends into a lagoon.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 402
52. Coral diversity is greatest in the Caribbean.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 406
53. Coral are capable of both sexual and asexual reproduction.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 396
54. Coral polyps supply their symbionts with their nitrogenous wastes.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 399
55. Coral mucus is used by reef dwellers as a food source.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 409
56. Most predators living around coral reefs are active during the day when they can see their prey.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 411
57. Coral reproduce sexually by spawning.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 396
MATCHING
Match the physical characteristic of a coral reef type with the most closely associated type. a. [shore-reef] b. [reef-lagoon-reef] c. [shore-lagoon-reef] 58. Barrier
59. Atoll
60. Fringing
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229 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 58. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 402
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 402
60. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 402
Match the organism with the reef-building formation process it is most closely associated with. a. Coralline algae b. Halimeda c. Sponges and bryzoans 61. Calcium carbonate source
62. Forms a loose structure
63. Cements coral sand and rubble
61. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 399
–
401
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 399
–
401
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 399
–
401
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. finger-like projections b. highest point c. vertical wall 64. Dropoff
65. Buttress zone
66. Reef crest
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 403
65. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 403
66. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 403
Match the wave energy habitat with the most closely associated coral type. a. reef crest b. calm areas c. reef front d. deep areas 67. Brain coral
68. Elkhorn coral
69. Staghorn coral
70. Lettuce and plate coral
67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 404
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 404
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 404
70. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 404
Match the symbiosis feature with its most closely associated species. a. shelter b. protective covering c. cleaners d. internal commensal
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230 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 71. Wrasses
72. Clown fish
73. Hermit crab
74. Pearlfish
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 410
72. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 410
73. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 410
74. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 410
Match the use of a color pattern of coral fish with the most closely associated fish. a. defending territories b. indicates sex c. warning coloration d. cryptic coloration e. color changes between day and night 75. Lionfish
76. Harlequin tusk wrasse
77. Parrotfishes
78. Stonefish
79. Spanish grunt
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 413
–
414
76. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 413
–
414
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 413
–
414
78. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 413
–
414
79. ANS: E PTS: 1 REF: 413
–
414
Match the protective behavior of coral fish with its most closely associated species. a. buries into sand b. retreat into crevices for the night c. sudsy mucus d. mucus envelope 80. Soapfish
81. Wrasses
82. Pearly razorfish
83. Parrotfish
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 411
81. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 411
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 411
83. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 412
Match the coral disease with its most closely associated term. a. affects only certain species of Montastraea b. combination of bacteria and cyanobacteria c. kills elkhorn corals 84. Black band
85. White pox
86. Caribbean yellow band disease
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231 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 84. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 418
85. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 418
86. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 418
ESSAY
87. What are the three categories of coral reefs and how do they develop?
ANS: Coral reefs that extend from the edges of a coastline out to sea without a lagoon between the reef and the shore are called fringing reefs. Barrier reefs also surround coastlines but are farther off shore and they are separated from the shore by a lagoon. Atolls are circular reefs that exist in deep oceanic waters. Atolls enclose a lagoon and do not surround a land formation. These reefs probably originated on a volcano that either subsided or was submerged by rising sea levels.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 401
–
402
88. Outline the three mechanisms by which corals obtain their nutrition.
ANS: The corals have three known mechanisms to obtain nutrition: filter-feeding, glucose from symbiotic zooxanthella, and harvesting bacteria biomass. Not all the corals utilize all three methods but rely on the modes in various combinations. Filter-feeding supplies only about 5-10% of their nutritional needs; the balance is derived from their symbiotic relationships with the dinoflagellates and bacteria. The bacteria are able to utilize dissolved organic matter (DOM) obtained from the water and coral. The corals also can absorb DOM and suspended organic matter directly across the body surface. Finally, mesenteric filaments can be extruded from the mouth and used to absorb and digest food particles outside the body.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
89. How do some corals reproduce asexually?
ANS: Corals can reproduce asexually by fragmentation. A piece of the coral will break off and can grow on its own into a new coral head.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 396
90. Describe the process of reef formation, including the destructive and constructive phases.
ANS: The process of reef formation involves a destructive phase and a constructive phase. During the destructive phase boring organisms will drill into the base of a coral head where sunlight is weak. Because of the low sunlight, the coral cannot repair the damage and storms can now easily break the coral head off its base. Loose coral is pulverized by wave action and new corals grow on top of the rubble during the constructive phase. Red and green algae play a role in cementing the pieces of coral together with wet calcium carbonate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 417-419
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232 Chapter 15
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Coral Reef Communities 91. Describe at least 3 physical factors that limit coral reef distribution.
ANS: The reef building corals require a minimum average annual temperature above 18
C. Because of their symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae they must remain in well lighted surface waters, generally 25 meters or less. They cannot tolerate low salinities, and thus avoid areas near river mouths. Sediment clogs corals and reduces light, preventing their presence in turbid waters. Lowest tides define their upward growth as air and UV exposure can kill the corals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 405
–
406
92. Cores of coral reefs show a reef base that is well below the photic zone. How are two ways that is this possible, given the light limitations of reef-forming corals?
ANS: The fact that cores of coral reefs are found well below the photic zone is strong evidence for the subsidence of oceanic crusts with time or for rising sea levels after the last glacial period. The base of these reefs were, at one point, within the photic region of the ocean. As sea levels rose, or as the crust beneath the reef sank, the platform of many reefs fell below the coral platform and the upper reaches of the reef continued to grow in order to keep up with increasing water depths.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis
93. Describe two symbiotic relationships between reef dwellers other than the zooxanthellae-coral polyp relationship.
ANS: Cleaner wrasses are fishes that occupy certain areas on reefs where other fishes come to get cleaned. The wrasses remove dead flesh and parasites from the customers, and in return the wrasses get a free meal. Another relationship is that of the anemone fish and anemones of coral reefs. The anemone fish lives within the tentacles of the anemone host and helps rid the host of debris and might supply the anemone with waste products that fuel the photosynthesis of the zooxanthellae within the anemone. In return, the anemone fish is protected by the stinging cells of the anemone from predators. The anemone fish may also lay its eggs beneath the anemone for added protection.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 410
–
411
94. Different areas of coral reefs contain different species of corals. Describe 2 environmental characteristics that can account for the distribution patterns of coral species on a reef.
ANS: Coral species differ from one another in their light requirements and their ability to withstand rough waves. As a result, corals partition their habitat. Corals, such as the branching elkhorn corals, occupy the roughest parts of the reef at the reef front. In calmer areas, delicate coral species thrive and outcompete the elkhorn corals. Likewise, corals that can withstand low light levels tend to dominate in deeper waters where they outcompete other species.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 403
–
404
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Coral Reef Communities 95. What accounts for the higher coral species diversity in the Pacific and Indian Oceans compared to the Atlantic?
ANS: Tropical areas of the Atlantic tend to have cooler waters and more turbid conditions due to runoff from land. As a result, only those corals that are adapted to withstand such conditions will survive in these waters. In addition, the Indo-Pacific region is much older geologically and covers a larger area. This means that species have had more time to evolve in these waters and there are many more niches in which the species can evolve, resulting in a much greater species diversity in the Indo-Pacific regions
PTS: 1 REF: 406
96. What role do zooxanthellae play in the reef-building process?
ANS: Zooxanthellae living within coral polyps play an important role in supplying the polyp with needed energy resources in the form of glycerol. Presumably the polyp uses this energy in its metabolic processes, which result in the secretion of calcium carbonate corallite cups. Additionally, the secretion of solid calcium carbonate is aided by the lower concentrations of CO
2
in the surrounding water as a result of the photosynthetic activity of the zooxanthellae. Reduced CO
2
levels means a higher pH, which favors calcium carbonate deposition.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 396
97. How do calcareous green and red algae contribute to the reef building process?
ANS: Calcareous algae are important in cementing coral reefs and making them stronger structures able to withstand tropical storms. These algae typically grow as encrusting structures that connect isolated pieces of coral rubble. They also fill gaps between adjacent coral structures. In addition, coralline red algae are the dominant structural components of the reef crest, which receives the brunt of wave energy. As a result, these algae act to dissipate the energy of the wave before it washes over corals living below the reef crest.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 399
–
401
98. Explain 2 functions of the bright coloration of some coral reef dwellers.
ANS: First and foremost, bright coloration plays an important role in camouflaging coral reef organisms from their predators or their prey during daylight hours. Since the reef is a very colorful place, it makes sense that animals living in these areas would also be very colorful to blend in. In addition, bright coloration can also be a warning signal to potential predators of the dangerous or toxic nature of the color bearing animal. Rather than wait for predators to take a bite out of these animals to discover their toxicity, they "tell" their would-be predators that they are dangerous beforehand.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 413
–
414
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234 Chapter 16
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The average width of the continental shelves is a. 1 mile. b. 10 miles. c. 40 miles. d. 480 miles. e. 4800 miles. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 423
2. Productivity in coastal waters is high due to a. nutrients from land. b. sediments rich in nutrients. c. upwelling. d. both a and c e. a, b, and c. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 423
3. Food for the continental shelf benthic community primarily comes in the form of a. migratory fish. b. living kelps. c. detritus. d. plankton. e. nutrients from terrestrial runoff. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
4. The benthic areas of continental shelf regions are dependent upon ____ for food. a. phytoplankton b. zooplankton c. sinking detritus d. attached algae e. epifauna ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
5. All the following utilize detritus for food except a. filter-feeders. b. grazers. c. suspension-feeders. d. detritus-feeders. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 425
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 6. Even though coastal areas comprise only 10% of the oceans' area, they make up ____% of the total oceans' fisheries. a. 10 b. 20 c. 60 d. 90 e. 50 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
7. In areas of the continental shelf where bottom currents are weak, the environment is considered to be a. harsh. b. always changing. c. generally stable. d. cyclically fluctuating. e. low in species diversity. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
8. Filter feeders on coastal shelves tend to dominate in areas that have: a. moving currents and coarse sediments. b. no currents and fine sediments. c. silty areas. d. muddy areas. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
9. Coarse sediment bottoms primarily support a. infauna. b. interstitial animals. c. epifauna. d. pelagic organisms. e. seaweeds. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
10. In soft-bottom communities suspension feeders dominate a. where sediments are generally muddy. b. as infauna. c. where sediments are generally sandy. d. as meiofauna. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 432
11. Burrowing deposit feeders favor ____ bottoms. a. muddy b. rocky c. sandy d. cobble e. pebble ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 432
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 12. Fine sediment bottoms with silt support a variety of a. filter feeders. b. suspension feeders. c. epifauna. d. infauna. e. nekton. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425
13. In soft-bottom communities deposit feeders dominate a. where sediments are generally muddy. b. as epifauna on worm tubes. c. as meiofauna. d. where sediments are generally sandy. e. where oxygen levels are low. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 425 | 432
14. The interaction of suspension and deposit feeders in muddy areas a. is an example of mutualism. b. is an example of interference when sediment particles from deposit feeders' activity clogs suspension feeders' ability to feed and exchanges gases. c. demonstrates that deposit feeders can outcompete suspension feeders. d. demonstrates that suspension feeders outcompete deposit feeders. e. is an example of a keystone predator. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 432
15. Communities on hard substrate are often found distributed a. randomly. b. equally spaced out. c. equally spaced along a vertical gradient. d. in patches. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 426
16. Patchiness of the soft-bottom benthos is a result of: a. uneven distribution of food. b. uneven distribution of sediments on the bottom. c. low concentrations of nutrients on the bottom. d. uneven distribution of predators. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 426
–
427
17. Changes in sediment distribution can be attributed to all except: a. currents. b. burrowing animals. c. feeding activity of predators. d. temperature - salinity shifts. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 425 | 432
–
433
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237 Chapter 16
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 18. The pattern of larval settlement depends on all except: a. light levels. b. currents. c. predation. d. type of bottom substrate. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 433
19. Larger baleen whales feed on: a. demersal fish. b. krill. c. suspension feeders. d. sea stars. e. other marine mammals. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 436
20. In the neritic zone, a 10-milliliter sample of surface water can contain ____ of multicellular planktonic organisms. a. hundreds b. thousands c. millions d. billions e. trillions ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
21. Microphytoplankton is: a. 2.0 to 20 microns. b. 20 - 200 microns. c. 0.2 - 20 mm. d. 20 - 200 cm. e. 20 - 200 mm. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
22. Nanophytoplankton is a. 2.0 to 20 microns. b. 20 - 200 microns. c. 2 - 20 mm. d. 20 - 200 cm. e. 20 - 200 mm. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
23. Coccolithophores are abundant in: a. cold marine waters. b. tropical waters. c. subtropical areas. d. open ocean. e. river mouths and estuaries. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
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238 Chapter 16
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 24. Which of these is an often abundant plankton organism in the North Sea? a. Radiolarians b. Shrimp c. Coccolithophores d. Dinoflagellates e. Ocean sunfish (
Mola mola
) ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
25. Diatoms tend to be grazed in temperate coastal waters by: a. amphipods. b. dinoflagellates. c. copepods. d. lobsters. e. radiolarians ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 435
26. In warm and temperate waters, common phytoplankton are the a. diatoms. b. radiolarians. c. coccolithophores. d. dinoflagellates. e. salps. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
27. During high productive periods copepod abundance can be as high as: a. 100 individuals per cubic meter. b. 1,000 individuals per cubic meter. c. 10,000 individuals per cubic meter. d. 100,000 individuals per cubic meter. e. 1,000,000 individuals per cubic meter. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 434
28. The number of trophic levels between primary producers and large consumers in coastal waters is usually: a. one. b. two. c. three. d. four. e. more than four. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 435
29. The high productivity and short food chains of ____ areas support the greatest biomass of any planktonic system. a. stable water column b. turbid c. upwelling d. downwelling e. coral reef. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 436
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239 Chapter 16
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 30. About 50% of the world's commercial fish supply comes from areas of: a. deep submarine canyons. b. atolls. c. benthic outer-edge of the continental shelf. d. upwelling. e. mid-ocean ridges. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 436
31. Many benthic organisms are dependent upon the neritic area to: a. complete their life history cycle with juveniles as part of the plankton. b. provide plankton for food. c. protect them from desiccation and UV radiation. d. both a and b ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 434
–
436
32. Kelps cannot live in water warmer than ____° C. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 426
33. Laminaria
is the genus of kelp that dominates in: a. the Pacific coast. b. the South Atlantic. c. the Tropical Pacific. d. the North Atlantic. e. the Indian Ocean. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 428
34. Macrocystis is the genus of kelp that dominates in: a. the Indian Ocean. b. the North Atlantic. c. the Tropical Pacific. d. the Mediterranean. e. the Pacific Ocean. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 428
35. Macrocystis can grow up to ____ centimeters per day. a. 10 b. 15 c. 35 d. 50 e. 100 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 428
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240 Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 36. Macrocystis
kelp communities have numerous ____ organisms while Laminaria
kelp communities have ____ organisms. a. swimming, crawling b. crawling, swimming c. benthic, pelagic d. pelagic, benthic e. benthic, crawling ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 428
37. An important grazer of kelp plants is the: a. octopus. b. kelp bass. c. sea urchin. d. sea otter. e. sea anemone. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 430
38. Kelps require ____ substrates in order to grow. a. rocky b. muddy c. silty d. sandy e. porous ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 427
39. Kelp beds are considered important because they support large a. fish. b. sea urchins. c. diverse communities. d. sea otters. e. sharks. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 428
–
430
40. One commercially important species that is a resident of kelp forests is the a. abalone. b. mussel. c. cowrie. d. lobster. e. sea anemone. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 429
41. A gribble: a. is the substrate required for kelp to grow on. b. is a snail that crawls along kelp stipes. c. is a group of lobsters. d. is a crustacean that burrows into kelp holdfasts. e. is an echinoderm that consumes kelp. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 430
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241 Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 42. Gribbles play an important role in kelp communities a. by weakening holdfasts enabling kelps to be replaced. b. by strengthening holdfasts enabling kelps to remain attached. c. by randomly disturbing the environment. d. by providing substrate for kelp undercover species. e. by acting as keystone predators. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 430
43. On the west coast of North America, sea urchins were historically kept in check by: a. lobsters. b. surf perches. c. sea otters. d. crabs. e. SCUBA divers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 430
TRUE/FALSE
44. Kelps of the genus Macrocystis
are perennials.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 428
45. Coastal waters are highly productive areas.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 423
46. Filter feeders are common in kelp forests.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 429
47. One square meter of open ocean areas supports more phytoplankton growth than a comparable coastal water area.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 434
48. The type of sediment limits the kinds of organisms that can live in a particular area.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 425
49. Diatoms dominate coastal waters of tropical and subtropical areas.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 434
50. Dinoflagellates tend to dominate in warmer waters.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 434
51. Kelps are a major source of detritus to kelp forest dwellers.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 428
–
429
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242 Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 52. The delicate nature of kelp beds is a result of the slow growth rates of kelps.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 428
53. Sea urchin populations are not affected by the decimation of kelp forests because these animals are generalists and can switch their diets.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 431
MATCHING
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. live in spaces between sediment particles b. live on the surface sediments c. burrow in the sediments 54. Infauna
55. Interstitial
56. Epifauna
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 425
55. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 425
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 425
Match a common ocean location with its most closely associated species. a. Pacific coast b. Pacific and southern Atlantic c. North Atlantic temperate 57. the giant kelp
Macrocystis
58. the brown alga Laminaria
59. the abalone
Haliotis
57. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 428
58. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 428
59. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 429
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. slender stalk b. attached to rocks c. leaf-like blades 60. Holdfast
61. Stipe
62. Fronds
60. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 428
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 428
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 428
Match the words with the most closely associated organism. a. feed on other molluscs b. damage kelp by burrowing into holdfast
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243 Chapter 16
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Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone c. builds fecal mounds 63. Gribbles
64. Sea cucumber
65. Whelks
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 430
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 432
65. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 433
Match the trophic role with a closely associated kelp community species. a. rockfish b. kelp c. gribble 66. Primary producer
67. Primary consumer
68. Secondary consumer
66. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 428
67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 430
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 433
Match the consumer with its typical mode of feeding. a. eats detritus and bacteria b. scavenger and predator c. eats detritus and plankton d. herbivore 69. Suspension feeder
70. Deposit feeder
71. Sunflower star
72. Sea urchin Strongylocentrotus
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 425
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 425
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 429
72. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 430
Match the substrate type with the most closely associated organisms. a. sandy bottom b. muddy bottom c. hard bottom 73. Epibenthic
74. Suspension
75. Burrowing
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 446 | 453-454 74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 446 | 453-454 75. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 446 | 453-454
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244 Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone ESSAY
76. Briefly describe the ecological importance of coastal seas.
ANS: The coastal seas provide food for animals; for benthic and sessile animals the seas provide dispersal and rearing habitat for juvenile life histories. The presence of juveniles in the plankton provides a source of organisms to re-colonize disturbed habitat.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 423 | 435
–
437 77. What is the main source of nutrition for animals that live on the continental shelf?
ANS: Since primary producers do not exist in the deeper areas of the continental shelves, the animals that live in these areas depend on the rain of sinking food particles from above for their nutrition.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 423 | 425
–
426 78. How do kelp beds in the northeastern U.S. differ from those of the northwestern U.S.? What is the dominant non-human predator in each habitat?
ANS: In the northeastern U.S. kelp beds are dominated by thick, closely-spaced Laminaria
kelps. These kelp beds give rise to very close packing that selects animals that do not swim but, rather, crawl around the kelp bed. The dominant predators in these beds are lobsters. On the west coast, kelp beds are dominated by Macrocystis
kelp, which does not grow as densely with the result that the animals here can swim freely amongst the kelp. The dominant predator in northwestern U.S. kelp forests is the sea otter.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 428
79. Describe 3 adaptations of benthic fishes for living on the continental shelf.
ANS: Fishes that live on or near the bottom (demersal) have a number of useful adaptations for this environment. They are usually flat (flatfishes, rays, and skates); they have jaws that are adapted for feeding on benthic shelled invertebrates; they have specialized sense organs; some employ specialized feeding structures such as lures; and some have a camouflaged dorsal surface.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 433
80. In any ecosystem, short food chains are more efficient than longer ones. Why is this so?
ANS: The shorter the food chain the less energy is wasted with every transfer from one trophic level to the next. These short chains are more efficient.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 436
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245 Chapter 16
—
Continental Shelves and Neritic Zone 81. Compared to oceanic waters, coastal waters are much more productive areas. Describe at least 3 factors that contribute to the high productivity of these waters.
ANS: Coastal waters have the advantage of lying next to terrestrial areas. Runoff from land carries with it high concentrations of nutrients that support the growth of dense populations of phytoplankton. Coastal upwelling is another source of nutrients in these waters. In addition, the shallow nature of these waters means that phytoplankton will never be light limited as a result of vertical mixing. Finally, the abundance of relatively large phytoplankton means that animals feeding on these will also be large with the ultimate result being a reduction in the number of trophic levels in these waters. This means that less energy is wasted from the transfer of matter between trophic levels.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 423 | 434
–
437 82. Briefly describe the ecology and trophic abundance of the Southern Ocean.
ANS: The melting of polar ice combined with long days supports an abundant diatom population. The diatoms are in turn grazed on by krill. Krill, a shrimp like organism, is a major food source of birds, whales, fish, and squid. The squid are also a major food item for birds, whales, and fish. Humans have recently begun to harvest krill, which raises a concern that other species may be impacted.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 436
83. Describe how population size of lobsters affects the extent of kelp forests on the North Atlantic coast of North America.
ANS: Lobsters off the coast of Nova Scotia are the dominant predators of sea urchins in kelp forests. When the population size of lobsters declines as a result of overfishing, the population size of sea urchins explodes with devastating effects on kelp forests. The unchecked urchins graze down the young kelp plants before they grow to any meaningful size and the urchins will also eat away at the holdfasts of kelp plants. This will weaken these algae in the face of winter storms and leads to a reduction in the size of kelp forests.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 429
–
430
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246 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In tropical water, the photic zone in the open ocean can extend down to: a. 10 m. b. 20 m. c. 100 m. d. 200 m. e. 1000 m. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 441
2. The epipelagic refers to the location of pelagic animals that can extend down to: a. 10 m. b. 20 m. c. 100 m. d. 200 m. e. 1000 m. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 441
3. Pelagic organisms live: a. in the water column. b. on the sediment. c. in the sediment. d. in hydrothermal vents. e. close to shore. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 441
4. Those organisms that can swim strongly against ocean currents are called: a. plankton. b. neuston. c. nekton. d. macroplankton. e. epifauna. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
5. Those organisms that cannot swim against the ocean currents are collectively called: a. plankton. b. nekton. c. seston. d. demersal. e. infauna. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
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247 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 6. All the following are used to classify plankton except: a. taxonomic groups. b. functional groups. c. life history. d. light spectrum requirements. e. size. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 442
7. Phytoplankton of the open ocean are very small in order to: a. avoid detection by grazers. b. maximize their surface area. c. increase their sinking rates. d. none of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
8. The most abundant plankton are the: a. phytoplankton. b. bacterioplankton. c. viriplankton. d. zooplankton. e. macroplankton. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 456
9. Archaeans and bacteria are generally included in the: a. seston. b. tripton. c. bacterioplankton. d. viriplankton. e. pleuston. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
10. The base of the food web in the open ocean and the bottom beneath the open ocean is: a. algae. b. seagrasses. c. chemosynthetic bacteria. d. phytoplankton. e. detritus. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 455
11. Primary productivity is limited in surface waters of the open ocean by: a. sunlight. b. nutrients. c. carbon dioxide. d. oxygen. e. temperature. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 455
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248 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 12. The dominant primary producers in tropical open ocean areas are: a. large net phytoplankton. b. small nanoplankton. c. diatoms. d. algae. e. seaweeds. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 456
13. Kinetic organisms can move themselves by all except: a. flagella. b. jet propulsion. c. undulation of the body. d. using turbulent mixing. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 451
–
452
14. Particles suspended in the sea are called: a. seston. b. tripton. c. bacterioplankton. d. viriplankton. e. nekton. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
15. Marine snow is composed of: a. inorganic nutrients. b. flocculated marine salts. c. particulate organic matter. d. frozen seawater. e. terrestrial materials. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 444
16. Marine snow refers to: a. neston. b. seston. c. cobwebby aggregates of mucus. d. fecal pellets. e. necktonic organisms. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 444
17. Phytoplankton patchiness in the epipelagic can occur when: a. water clarity declines. b. there is an influx of nutrients. c. surface waters plunge to depths. d. fish aggregate. e. hydrothermal vents erupt. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 444
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249 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 18. Macroplankton are organisms visible to the naked eye and generally exceed ____ in size. a. 5 mm b. 1 mm c. 5 mm d. 10 mm e. 10 cm. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
19. Plankton that can be caught with a standard plankton net are called: a. nanoplankton. b. picoplankton. c. microplankton. d. megaplankton. e. gigaplankton. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
20. An example of megaplankton would be: a. larval fishes. b. Sargassum
seaweed. c. invertebrate larvae. d. green flagellates. e. copepods. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 443
21. An example of mesoplankton would be a. larval fishes. b. Sargassum
seaweed. c. invertebrate larvae. d. green flagellates. e. bacteria. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 443
22. Those organisms that remain planktonic for their whole lives are called: a. meroplankton. b. holoplankton. c. nanoplankton. d. seston. e. nekton. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
23. Those organisms that live only part of their life history as plankton are called: a. meroplankton. b. holoplankton. c. nanoplakton. d. seston. e. pleuston. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
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250 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 24. Nutrient-rich microenvironments can occur in the open ocean around: a. viriplankton. b. discarded larvacean houses. c. marine snow. d. b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 447
25. The deep scattering layer refers to: a. an area where organisms are spread apart in a random manner. b. a dense aggregation of migratory zooplankton and fish. c. a safe area where zooplankton can quickly scatter to avoid predators. d. where sonar from whales travels rapidly to facilitate their communication. e. the abyssal zone. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 445
26. The primary organisms that make up the deep scattering layer are: a. zooplankton and fishes. b. phytoplankton. c. seston. d. nanoplankton. e. marine snow animals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 445
27. Each day the animals of the deep scattering layer a. must form mucus nets to protect themselves from predators. b. make a nocturnal migration to the DSL to feed. c. make a nocturnal migration to the epipelagic to feed. d. make a daytime migration to the epipelagic to feed. e. migrate to a depth of 1.6 km to feed. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 445
28. The primary reason for the daylight migration of many pelagic animals to deeper waters is: a. escape from visual predators. b. escape from the harmful effects of the sun. c. preference for the colder waters of the deep. d. the abundance of food in deeper waters. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 445
29. All of the following are adaptations against predation in the open ocean except: a. transparent bodies. b. colorful bodies. c. colonial lifestyles. d. countershading. e. silvery coloration. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 451
–
454
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251 Chapter 17
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The Open Sea 30. Common megaplankton of the open ocean include all but a. cnidarians. b. mollusks. c. gelatinous zooplankton. d. diatoms. e. salps. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 445
–
447
31. Megaplanktonic molluscs without a shell are called: a. cephalopods. b. thecosome pteropods. c. gymnosome pteropods. d. nudibranchs. e. oceanic limpets. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 452
32. Thecosome pteropods are primarily a. herbivores. b. carnivores. c. detritovores. d. omnivores. e. scavengers. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 452
33. Gymnosome pteropods are primarily a. herbivores. b. carnivores. c. detritovores. d. omnivores. e. filter feeders. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 452
34. All of the following are adaptations against sinking in the open ocean except: a. long spines and projections. b. lipid droplets. c. dense tissues. d. gas bladders. e. small size. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 451
–
452
35. To avoid sinking the purple sea snail a. uses jet propulsion from the mantle to move upward. b. has wings on its foot for swimming. c. has gas vacuoles in its shell. d. produces a bubble raft surrounded by mucus. e. fills its liver with low-density oil. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 446
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252 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 36. Pelagic snails that produce a bubble raft in order to remain afloat are a. pteropods. b. purple sea snails. c. cowries. d. littorine snails. e. abalone. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 469446
37. Salps play an important ecological role as consumers of: a. bacteria. b. diatoms. c. krill. d. fish larvae. e. jellyfish. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 447
38. Common nekton include a. tuna. b. billfish. c. jelly fish. d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 448
39. All of the following are adaptations of tuna for fast swimming except: a. warmer than ambient body temperature. b. retractable pectoral fins. c. rounded tail. d. operculum that lies tightly against the body. e. sickle-shaped tail. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 448
–
449
40. Water comprises at least ____ of the body of salps. a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 70% e. 95% ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 447
41. Which fish can grow to weigh a ton, and is known for high levels of internal and external parasites? a. billfish. b. skipjack tuna. c. ocean sunfish. d. great white shark. e. pilot fish. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 449
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253 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 42. Which non-mammal organism has a connection to supply nutrients to developing embryos similar to the mammals? a. sea snake b. sea turtles c. hammerhead shark d. manta ray e. sea turtle ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 449
43. The manta ray feeds on: a. larger fish. b. surface and diving birds. c. squid. d. small fish and plankton. e. other rays. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 449
44. Which organism is considered part of the nekton? a. frigate bird b. penguin c. cormorant d. snowy plover e. albatross ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 450
TRUE/FALSE
45. Coastal upwelling is a common source of nutrients in the open ocean.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 455
46. Pyrosomes are gelatinous zooplankton composed of a colony of individual pelagic tunicates.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 447
47. Salps and amphipods of the genus Phronima
have a commensal symbiosis.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 447
48. Because zooplankton do not need sunlight they tend to be most concentrated in deeper waters away from the surface.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 442
–
445
49. Physically, the open ocean is a very stable environment.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 451
50. The body temperature of tunas is 8-10° C higher than ambient water temperature.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 448
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254 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 51. Many zooplankton migrate daily from the DSL to the epipelagic zone.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 445
52. Marine snow is an important source of food for many pelagic organisms.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 444
53. Bacteria play an insignificant role in the pelagic realm.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 444. 456
54. Squids are dominant nektonic predators in the open ocean.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 447
MATCHING
Match the organism group with its most closely associated classification group. a. Kinetic plankton b. Bacterioplankton c. Macroplankton d. Meroplankton 55. Classified by taxonomic group
56. Classified by motility
57. Classified by size
58. Classified by life history
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 442
56. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 442
57. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 442
58. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 442
Match the organism group with its most closely associated classification group. a. Microplankton b. Holoplankton c. Nekton d. Viriplankton 59. Life history
60. Spatial distribution
61. Size
62. Taxonomic group
59. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 442
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 442
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 442
62. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 442
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255 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea Match the phenomena with a closely associated term. a. aggregations of nekton b. migratory zooplankton c. marine snow 63. Deep scattering layer
64. Micropatchiness
65. Macropatchines
63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 445
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 444
65. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 444
Match the characteristic with the most closely associated organism. a. winged, shell absent b. winged, small shell c. bubble raft 66. Purple sea snail
67. Thecoscome pteropod
68. Gymnosome pteropod
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 446
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 446
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 446
Match the characteristic with the species. a. lack swim bladder b. cartilage layer c. lack teeth d. viviparous 69. Billfish
70. Tuna
71. Ocean Sunfish
72. Hammerhead Shark
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 447
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 448
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 449
72. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 449
Match the size with the most closely associated plankton type. a. 2.0 mm b. 0.02 mm c. 200 mm d. 20 mm 73. Megaplankton
74. Mesoplankton
75. Microplankton
76. Macroplankton
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256 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 443
74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 443
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 443
76. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 443
Match the size with the most closely associated plankton type. a. 0.02
m b. 2.0
m c. 0.2
m 77. Nanoplankton
78. Picoplankton
79. Femtoplankton
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 443
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 443
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 443
Match the location with its most closely associated group. a. entire life in water column b. part of life in water column c. animals live at or near the surface 80. Neuston
81. Holoplankton
82. Meroplankton
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 442
81. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 442
82. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 442
Match the species with its most closely associated trophic level. a. krill b. diatoms c. copepods d. squid 83. Primary producer
84. Herbivore
85. 2
nd
level consumer
86. 3
rd
level consumer
83. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 457 | 458
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 457 | 458
85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 457 | 458
86. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 457 | 458
Match the species with its most closely associated size/ trophic level. a. copepods b. krill c. foraminiferans
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257 Chapter 17
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The Open Sea 87. Microzooplankton
88. Mesozooplankton
89. Macrozooplankton
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 443
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 443
89. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 443
ESSAY
90. What is the deep scattering layer? How was it discovered? What organisms commonly compose this layer?
ANS: The deep scattering layer is a dense layer of migrating animals that moves from the mesopelagic to the epipelagic on a diel basis. It was discovered with sonar and it is composed of zooplankton groups such as crustaceans and siphonophores as well as small lantern fishes and hatchet fishes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 445
91. What is meant by the terms "holoplankton" and "meroplankton"?
ANS: Holoplankton is a term that refers to permanent plankton in the sea. These are plankton that start out planktonic and remain planktonic throughout their life cycle. Meroplankton are temporary plankton. Included in this category are the larval stages of many benthic and nektonic organisms.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 442
92. What is micropatchiness, and what factors give rise to micropatchiness in the open sea?
ANS: Micropatchiness is the phenomenon whereby planktonic organisms along with microorganisms such as bacteria congregate around slowly sinking organic particles of marine snow. The bacteria will first colonize the marine snow. This attracts phytoplankton, which make use of the nutrients released by the decomposing activities of bacteria. Finally, zooplankton are attracted by the enriched marine snow as a food source as well as by the abundant phytoplankton. The ultimate result is that in the open ocean where nutrients are scarce, planktonic organisms are more concentrated around sinking particles that they are in the surrounding water, thus creating patches.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 444
93. What is the ecological importance of salps and larvaceans to the pelagic food web?
ANS: Salps and larvaceans filter feed by processing massive quantities of seawater through fine filtration devises. This activity has the effect of concentrating these scarcely abundant phytoplankton within these grazers, which, in turn, are consumed by larger predators. In addition, because the filtration mechanism of salps and larvaceans is so fine, it captures even the smallest nanoplankton, thereby injecting these small producers into the food web.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 447
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258 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 94. Describe at least 3 of the adaptations used by plankton in their efforts to remain near the surface.
ANS: Plankton employ a number of adaptations that either slow down their sinking rate or keep them at the surface. Many of these animals are small in comparison to animals from other habitats. Small bodies mean that the surface area-to-volume ratio will be maximized, thus leading to a relative increase in surface area, which leads to increased friction with the water and slower sinking rates. Zooplankton and phytoplankton also increase their surface areas by having many long spines and projections that increase surface area without substantially increasing volume or density. Some planktonic organisms reduce their density below that of seawater by secreting oil or lipid in their tissues. Other animals reduce their density by substituting water for organic matter in their tissues. A few phytoplankton and many zooplankton are capable of limited vertical movement in the water column.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 451
–
453
95. Describe the open-ocean planktonic food chain, and elaborate on why its supports few large animals.
ANS: The nutrient-poor open ocean food chain starts with cyanobacteria and nanoplankton. They are consumed by microzooplankton that include foraminiferans and radiolarians which in turn are consumed by copepods. The copepods are preyed on by krill, shrimp, and small fish. These medium-
sized animals are fed on by squid, larger fish, and whales. Each step represents a tropic level with a 10 percent efficiency. Larger fish are often five to six steps removed from the nutrient limited phytoplankton. At the fifth level only 0.00001 of the original biomass remains.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 456
–
458
96. Define the term "marine snow." What is it composed of? How is it affected by bacteria and other marine zooplankton? How does marine snow aid in the deposition of marine sediments?
ANS: Marine snow refers to aggregates of particulate organic matter that sink slowly in the water column. It is composed of the debris of many planktonic organisms; the mucus secretions of fishes, salps, larvaceans and others; fragmented fecal pellets; and other assorted organic materials. The ecological importance of marine snow is that it forms a habitat for bacteria, phytoplankton, and the animals that eat these two. It is also directly consumed by planktivores and pelagic fishes. Colonizing bacteria tend to enrich these sinking aggregates as a food source for other heterotrophs. Phytoplankton take advantage of the nutrients that are released by the decomposing activity of bacteria. Marine snow is also important because it tends to scavenge small, slow sinking particles from the water column, thereby adding to the mass of the sinking marine snow. Ultimately, marine snow is either consumed by animals in the water column or on the seafloor or it contributes to the deposition of biogenous sediments on the seafloor.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 444
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259 Chapter 17
—
The Open Sea 97. Trace the open ocean microbial loop, starting with DOM released by unicells, and follow how it is reprocessed through the bodies of various microorganisms, finally leading up in the bodies of zooplankton.
ANS: Single cell organisms are inherently leaky. They and other organisms release dissolved organic matter (DOM) into the water. Heterotrophic bacteria are capable of absorbing this material; acting as recyclers, the bacteria are then consumed by heterotrophic nanoflagellates. The flagellates are consumed by tintinnids and other ciliates. The DOM has now been reprocessed and packaged into organisms that can be consumed by the zooplankton.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 456
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260 Chapter 18
—
Life in the Ocean's Depths Chapter 18
—
Life in the Ocean's Depths
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. All of the following apply to the deep sea except: a. temperatures vary greatly in deep waters. b. pressures are very high. c. light is dim or nonexistent. d. the water is extremely cold. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 463
–
464
2. Hydrostatic pressure within the oceans increases one atmosphere with every ____ meter increase in depth. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 100 e. 200 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 463
3. The hydrostatic pressure within deep sea organisms is: a. more than the surrounding pressure. b. equal but opposite force. c. equal and same force. d. less than the surrounding pressure. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 464
4. The density of cold water at great depths is a. lower than surface waters. b. similar to the surface waters. c. higher than the surface waters. d. always the same throughout the water column. e. variable, depending on latitude. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 464
5. The density of the organisms living at great depths is about: a. the same as the surrounding density. b. greater than the surrounding density. c. less than the surrounding density. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 464
6. Deep ocean organisms expend little energy to stay afloat because a. they have air bladders. b. they have a high oil content. c. of their small size. d. they are the same density as the surrounding environment. e. their metabolism is high. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 464
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261 Chapter 18
—
Life in the Ocean's Depths 7. All the following are major factors that affect animals living in the deep ocean except: a. light. b. temperature. c. salinity. d. pressure. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 463
–
465
8. The abiotic factor that has had the greatest evolutionary effects on deep-sea animals is: a. low temperatures. b. high pressure. c. low nutrients. d. lack of light. e. varying salinity. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 465
9. The main source of light in the deep sea is: a. the sun. b. bioluminescence. c. underwater volcanoes. d. dinoflagellates. e. anglerfish. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 465
10. Bioluminescence occurs as a result of a. luminescent organs. b. symbiotic bacteria. c. conversion of protein luciferin into light energy d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 465
11. All of the following are involved in light production of bioluminescent bacteria except: a. luciferin. b. luciferase. c. cellulose. d. oxygen. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 465
12. In the twilight zone (150-450 meters) bioluminescence is primarily used for a. mate selection. b. detecting prey. c. locating prey. d. countershading. e. species recognition. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 465
–
466
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262 Chapter 18
—
Life in the Ocean's Depths 13. Bioluminescence of deep-sea animals may be used for all of the following except: a. attraction of prey. b. detection and identification of mates. c. countershading. d. photosynthesis. e. startling a predator. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 465
–
468
14. A male fish that uses bright lights at the top of its tail fins to identify itself to females when breeding is a type of: a. an anglerfish. b. a lanternfish. c. an opossum shrimp. d. a viperfish. e. a gulper eel. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 466
15. Organisms that use bioluminescence to attract prey are the: a. hatchetfish. b. anglerfish. c. stomiatoid fish d. a and b e. b and c ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 467
16. Many deep-sea fishes have tubular eyes with a. a single large retina. b. two retinas. c. multiple retinas. d. no retina. e. compound eyes. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 468
17. At the deepest depths many animals find prey by relying on a. tactile senses. b. chemical stimuli. c. large eyes. d. both a and b e. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 469
18. Male anglerfish often attach to the female so they can a. utilize the female's increased ability to find prey. b. utilize the female's increased predator avoidance. c. provide sperm to fertilize eggs. d. avoid being eaten by the female. e. obtain growth hormones from her bloodstream. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 468
–
469
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263 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 19. Deep-sea fish with large mouths use this adaptation to: a. take chucks of meat off of larger predators probing the deep ocean in search of food. b. threaten other competitors. c. swallow almost anything that comes their way. d. store their large teeth. e. filter-feed on plankton. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 469
20. All of the following are major components of the deep sea food web except: a. detritus. b. nocturnal vertical migration to feed near the surface. c. larger predators feeding on the small deep sea organisms. d. photosynthesis. e. scavenging. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 469
21. The base of the food web in the deep sea is: a. phytoplankton. b. algae. c. seagrasses. d. sinking dead matter. e. viruses. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 469
22. The major predators of giant squid are: a. gulper eels. b. sperm whales. c. giant octopus. d. vampire squid. e. viper fish. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 471
23. The giant squids of the deep sea remain a mystery because we lack knowledge of: a. what they feed on. b. their exact size. c. their distribution. d. their anatomy. e. the identity of their predators. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 471
24. A possible reason for deep-sea gigantism is: a. the long life of these animals, compared with shallow-water relatives. b. the healthy diet of these animals. c. the high pressure of these waters. d. the lack of predators, which means longer life and larger size. e. the high metabolism of deep sea animals. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 470
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264 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 25. Evolutionary biologists find the deep sea interesting because a. of the unusual environmental conditions. b. of the abundance of organisms. c. the environment has remained stable for 100 million years. d. the environment is constantly changing due to continental drift. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 472
26. Of the belemnites thought to be extinct, the Challenger Expedition discovered the living fossil genus: a. Spirula. b. Latimeria. c. Neopilina. d. Calyptegena. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 472
27. The vampire squid was placed in the order Vampyromorpha on account of: a. it has ten arms, but looks like an octopus. b. it appears to drift rather than actively swim. c. it has tentacles that can be coiled up. d. all the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 472
28. An ancient fish that has provided insight into the evolution of tetrapods is the a. laternfish. b. tripod fish. c. coelacanth. d. redmouth whale fish. e. gulper eel. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 473
29. The limpet-like Neopilina
was thought to be extinct for over a. 100 million years. b. 175 million years. c. 250 million years. d. 350 million years. e. 1 billion years. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 473
–
474
30. The limpet-like Neopilina
's ancestors may have led to the following modern groups except: a. gastropods. b. chitons. c. bivalves. d. cephalopods. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
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265 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 31. The limiting factor for deep-sea benthic organisms is: a. high pressure. b. low temperature. c. available food. d. darkness. e. strong current flow. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
32. Deep-sea bivalves differ from their surface relatives by using their siphons to: a. detect the presence of nearby prey items. b. detect the presence of nearby predators. c. vacuum up food. d. both a and b ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
33. The deep-sea soft-bottom food chain is: ____. a. infauna → meiofauna → bacteria b. bacteria → meiofauna → infauna c. meiofauna → bacteria → infauna d. meiofauna → infauna → bacteria ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
34. Diversity refers to: a. the abundance of species. b. the biomass of organisms. c. the abundance and biomass of organisms. d. the number of species. e. the number of individuals of a species. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
35. Diversity is considered high in the deep sea due to: a. low dispersal of juveniles leading to speciation. b. stability and old age of benthic environments. c. high infaunal abundance. d. combined low dispersal and long-term stability of the benthic environment. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 474
36. White smokers produce a fluid rich in: a. copper sulfide. b. iron sulfide. c. zinc sulfide. d. magnesium sulfide. e. sodium chloride. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
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266 Chapter 18
—
Life in the Ocean's Depths 37. Black smokers produce a fluid rich in: a. copper sulfides. b. iron sulfides. c. zinc sulfides. d. magnesium sulfides. e. sodium chloride. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
38. Chemosynthetic bacteria can oxidize a. magnesium sulfide. b. copper sulfide. c. hydrogen sulfide. d. oxygen sulfide. e. zinc sulfide. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
39. The base of the food web of deep-sea vent communities are: a. chemosynthetic bacteria. b. cyanobacteria. c. dinoflagellates. d. deep-sea algae. e. benthic diatoms. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
40. Primary consumers of the vent communities include all except a. clams. b. fish. c. mussels. d. worms. e. shrimp. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 476
41. The bivalves and worms have red flesh due to presence of: a. pigments absorbed from their prey items. b. hemoglobin. c. chromatophores. d. pigments similar to other deep-sea organisms due to a lack of light. e. structural colors for camouflage. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
42. Symbiotic chemosynthetic bacteria obtain oxygen from their hosts through: a. hemoglobin. b. myoglobin. c. sulfide-binding proteins. d. luciferin. e. breaking down cellulose. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
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267 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths TRUE/FALSE
43. The deep sea is characterized by being a very unstable environment.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 472
44. The eyes of many deep-sea fishes are tubular.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 468
–
469
45. Deep-sea vent communities are associated with volcanic ridges on the seafloor and cold-water seeps.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 475
46. Larvae of hydrothermal vent animals may aid in the dispersal of these animals.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 477
47. Vestimentiferan worms filter feed on nearby suspended chemosynthetic bacteria.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 476
48. Vestimentiferan worms lack digestive tissues.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 476
49. Vampire squid are actually octopuses.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 472
50. The disphotic zone is the deepest part of the world's oceans.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 465
51. Photophores of deep-sea fishes may harbor symbiotic bioluminescent bacteria.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 465
52. Below the disphotic zone countershading takes on added importance.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 4654
MATCHING
Match the use of bioluminescence with its most closely associated species. a. attract prey b. confuse predator c. mate selection 53. Laternfish
54. Anglerfish
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268 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 55. Opossum shrimp
53. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 467
54. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 467
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 468
Match the location with the most closely associated project/vessel that made the discovery of deep-sea life. a. Philippine Trench b. Challenger Deep c. depths below the photic zone 56. Transatlantic cable
57. Galathea
58. Trieste
56. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 463
57. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 463
58. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 463
Match the eye characteristic with the most closely associated depth. a. tiny, only slightly functional b. small and less functional c. large - tubular 59. Twilight zone
60. Deep-sea
61. Deepest regions
59. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 468
60. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 468
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 468
Match the food capture mechanism with the most closely associated species. a. curved, fanglike teeth; chin barbel b. dorsal spine lure, vacuum ingestion c. hinged jaws, expandable stomach 62. Gulper eels
63. Stomiatoids
64. Anglerfish
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 469
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 470
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 470
Match the characteristic with the most closely associated diversity component. a. number of individuals b. number of species c. how long a community persists 65. Diversity
66. Abundance
67. Stability
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269 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 65. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 474
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 474
67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 475
Match the term with the most closely associated manned deep diving device. a. bathyscaphe b. ROV c. manned submersible 68. Alvin
69. Trieste
70. JASON II
68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 477
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 466
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 467
Match the tropic level with the most closely associated vent community species. a. primary consumers b. primary producers c. secondary consumers 71. Bacteria
72. Vestimentiferan worms
73. Crabs
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 476
72. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 476
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 476
ESSAY
74. Why did the British naturalist Edward Forbes conclude that animal life could not exist in the sea below a depth of 55 meters?
ANS: At the time scientist knew only about surface organisms and applied what was known of their natural history and environmental requirements to sustain life to the deep-sea environment. As light gradually is reduced with depth, so is photosynthesis, and thus grazers would be limited. The low light would make finding a mate nearly impossible. Temperatures in the deep remained too cold throughout the year as surface organisms often expand their populations during the warmer periods. Pressure on these animals often was thought to increase beyond their ability to compensate.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 463
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270 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 75. What physical features characterize the deep sea? Describe three factors.
ANS: The deep-sea is characterized by being extremely cold, with an average temperature around 2
o
C. This environment is also completely dark, with the exception of bioluminescence from marine organisms. Finally, water pressure in the deep sea is very high.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 463
–
464
76. Why do disphotic zone fishes exhibit countershading but not fishes that live in deeper waters?
ANS: In the mesopelagic realm there is still some light from the sun, although very little, that can be used by potential predators to make out the silhouette of prey fish. As a result, fishes in this environment tend to maintain countershading. In contrast, deeper water does not have light at all. This means that there is no need for countershading by these fishes. Fishes in deeper waters tend to be uniformly gray, dark brown, or black.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 465
77. Describe at least 3 functions of bioluminescence in deep-sea fishes.
ANS: Deep-sea fishes use bioluminescence for a variety of purposes. Some fishes that live in the mesopelagic realm may use bioluminescence as a means of countershading in order to prevent predation or to hide from prey. In dark waters, bright, sudden flashes of light may be used to startle predators and prey. Light may also be used as a means of attracting prey, as in the deep-sea angler fishes that use a light organ as a lure. Light organs may be useful in attracting mates in the dark deep sea where mates are few and far between. In this regard, producing light in a special pattern on one's body can be useful in species-specific identification as a means of discriminating between potential mates or finding members of one's own species for schooling purposes.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 465
–
468
78. How do animals living in the deep sea tolerate the high pressure and low temperature of these depths?
ANS: The animals of the deep have overcome this problem by making it a non-issue. Simply put, they have made their internal body pressures equal to those of the outside environment, thereby preventing collapse. In addition, their body temperatures resemble those of the external water.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 464
79. Why is it necessary for males of some species of anglerfish to parasitize the females?
ANS: Because food is so scarce in the deep sea, and because this area is so vast, it is very rare that an individual will encounter another individual of the same species let alone the opposite sex. Because of this, males will latch onto the first female they encounter in an effort to maximize reproductive output of their species.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 468
–
467
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271 Chapter 18
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Life in the Ocean's Depths 80. Describe at least 3 adaptations of deep-sea fishes for improving feeding efficiency.
ANS: Many deep-sea fishes tend to be small and inactive. This characteristic alone means that these fishes will not consume large quantities of food because their metabolic rates are fairly low. When they do feed, many deep-sea fishes ensure that they capture and keep their prey by having very large teeth that angle back into their mouths to prevent escape. These fishes will not pass up a potential meal simply because it is too large. Rather, they have expandable jaws and mouths that allow them to take advantage of any food item they happen across. In addition, many deep-sea fishes increase the likelihood of coming across prey by employing attractive measures such as bioluminescent structures.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 469
–
470
81. Describe what is known about the lifespan of hydrothermal vent communities and how organisms may have adapted to these factors.
ANS: The individual vents do not last but 10 to 20 years. In contrast to the surrounding deep sea, stability is lacking with the vents requiring that the organism have the ability to colonize new vents as they form. The species mature rapidly and produce large amounts of mobile larvae that can be dispersed by deepwater currents. It is possible that they use whale carcasses as an intermediate habitat where they can grow, and in some cases asexually reproduce.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 477
82. Describe why many vent animals that house chemosynthetic bacteria are not harmed by the sulfide compounds in their blood, which normally would be toxic to these animals.
ANS: Many of these animals contain sulfide-binding proteins that scavenge any free sulfide. This prevents free sulfides from interacting with other cell biomolecules and causing damage.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 476
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272 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources Chapter 19
—
Harvesting the Ocean's Resources
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Fish and shellfish account for what percentage of total protein consumed by the human population? a. 6 b. 16 c. 26 d. 36 e. 56 ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
2. Increased technology that has led to more captured fish include: a. giant factory ships. b. radar. c. aircraft. d. underwater video surveillance cameras. e. both a and c ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
3. For each ton of fishery caught and fed to animals only about ____ lbs. is available for human consumption. a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100 e. 50 ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
4. Fish and shellfish resources are considered: a. inexhaustible. b. finite. c. renewable. d. transferable. e. inorganic. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
5. Fishery biologists primarily rely on data collected by a. fishery landings. b. independent population studies. c. carefully designed experiments. d. astrological charts. e. the military. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
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273 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 6. Separate populations are called: a. schools. b. aggregates. c. stocks. d. clusters. e. races. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
7. Fish are tagged or evaluated with molecular markers to: a. determine population distribution. b. promote catch and release. c. establish fishery composition. d. promote fishery strategies. e. immunize them against disease. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
8. To understand the population structure biologists conduct studies to determine all below except a. population size. b. age. c. ocean conditions. d. sex ratios. e. growth rate. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 482
–
484
9. Fishery landings are an important source of: a. catch data. b. size data. c. effort data. d. all the above ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
10. Fishery effort combined with catch data is used to a. determine if a fishery is in jeopardy. b. determine the pay rate for fishers. c. determine the economic value of a fishery. d. estimate the ocean's productivity. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
11. When fishery effort increases and catch remains stable or decreases a. fishers need to find alternative methods to catch fish. b. fishers simply need to relocate to another patch. c. the abundance of the fish is declining. d. costs remain high. e. the size of fish caught tends to increase. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
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274 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 12. The potential yield a. is how many fish can be caught in a year. b. is an estimate of the amount of profit fishers can expect. c. is an estimate of the number of pounds of fish or shellfish that may be harvested per year. d. is an estimate of the profit from fish or shellfish that may be harvested per year. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
13. Traditionally, fisheries management has generally focused on a. single species management. b. multi-species management. c. poly-culture. d. aquaculture. e. creation of marine reserves. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 484
14. At least 60% of the ____ most valuable fish species are overfished or fished to the limit. a. 30. b. 100. c. 150. d. 200. e. 400 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 485
15. Trawl fishing a. is used for catching pelagic fish. b. is responsible for overfishing tuna. c. is responsible for damaging bottom habitat. d. has significantly increased the abundance of fisheries. e. is environmentally sustainable. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
16. Fishing populations to low levels can cause a species to a. relocate to distant locations. b. migrate out of the area. c. switch their prey items. d. become ecologically extinct. e. increase its reproductive rate. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 485
17. A decrease in relative abundance of a species can lead to a. an increase in predator avoidance. b. replacement species. c. a change in ecosystem structure. d. rapid growth in the depressed population. e. greater ecosystem stability. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
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275 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 18. Fishing gear that modifies the environment can lead to a. increased complexity of the trophic food web. b. loss of necessary habitat for target and non-target species. c. improvement in habitat productivity. d. increased species diversity in the habitat. e. Fishing gear has been improved to prevent habitat problems. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
19. The dominant physical resources from the sea are: a. magnesium and iron. b. salt and water. c. gold and copper. d. sulfides and manganese. e. gold and oxygen. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 498
20. In warm areas, salt is extracted from seawater by: a. evaporation. b. freezing. c. reverse osmosis. d. chemical methods. e. filtration. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 498
–
499
21. All of the following are minerals commonly obtained from the seawater except: a. manganese. b. bromine. c. gold. d. sulfides. e. chlorides. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 499
–
500
22. Tin is commonly found: a. in coastal sediments. b. in oceanic sediments. c. dissolved in seawater. d. in manganese nodules. e. at the bottom of trenches. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 500
23. Coal is predominantly composed of the remains of: a. multicellular animals. b. phytoplankton. c. fungi. d. multicellular plants. e. gelatinous zooplankton. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 500
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276 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 24. Oil and natural gas are predominantly composed of the remains of a. multicellular animals. b. phytoplankton. c. fungi. d. multicellular plants. e. gelatinous zooplankton. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 500
25. The majority of energy resources taken from the sea are in the form of: a. coal. b. energy from tides. c. gas and oil. d. energy from waves. e. thermal energy. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 500
26. The exclusive economic zone encompasses the area from the shore out to: a. 3 miles. b. 12 miles. c. 20 miles. d. 100 miles. e. 200 miles. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
27. Enforcement of regulations in the Exclusive Economic Zone of the United States falls upon: a. the Department of Defense. b. National Ocean and Atmospheric Administration. c. the Coast Guard. d. the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Agency. e. the Navy. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
28. Feeding fisheries catch to livestock is an inefficient way of distributing food resources because: a. higher level predators are being fed to grazers. b. cows cannot digest fish. c. grazers are being fed to predators. d. fish are a poor source of protein. e. the trend is towards increasing human consumption of fish ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 482
29. Anchovies are an efficient fish to catch because they: a. are grazers. b. are filter feeders. c. travel in large dense schools. d. are small fish. e. swim quickly. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 491
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277 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 30. The major reasons for the decline of the Peruvian anchovy fishery were: a. pollution and El Niño. b. political discord and pollution. c. pollution and overfishing. d. temperature decreases and El Niño. e. overfishing and El Niño. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 491
31. Salmon fisheries are located in the coastal waters of: a. Alaska. b. New England. c. the Pacific Northwest. d. China. e. both a and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 496
32. Tuna are captured commercially using: a. traps. b. purse seines. c. fishing poles. d. beach seines. e. bottom trawlers. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 494
33. Toxic red tides are especially harmful to the ____ fishery. a. redfish b. tuna c. salmon d. shellfish e. squid. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 496
34. A relatively new product made from Alaska pollock is called: a. surimi. b. fish fillets. c. bottom fish. d. round fish. e. Krab. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
35. Consumers of fish and fish products can promote sustainable fisheries by a. purchasing fish at the lowest cost. b. not buying monkfish, orange roughy, and Atlantic salmon. c. making wise purchasing decisions. d. both b and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 486
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487
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278 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 36. In tropical areas about ____% of the mangroves remain. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 35 e. 50 ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 487
37. When mangroves and seagrasses are reduced or damaged all occur except: a. coastal erosion. b. reduction of productivity. c. reduced nursery grounds. d. increased primary production. e. increased sedimentation from land sources transported onto offshore coral reefs. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 488
38. Incidental catch refers to: a. catch above a given quota. b. illegal fish catch. c. catch of noncommercial fish species. d. catch of endangered species. e. all the fish caught on a particular day. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 488
39. When non-target species are caught they are called: a. excess fish. b. undesirable species. c. ineffective fishing. d. incidental catch. e. secondary catch. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 488
40. Drift nets are fishing devices with an a. average length of 40 to 50 meters and are 7 meters in depth. b. average length of 10 to 15 meters and are 5 meters in depth. c. average length of 50 to 70 meters and are 10 meters in depth. d. average length of over 100 meters and are 20 meters in depth. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 488
41. Drift nets a. are an important piece of fishery gear. b. have limited application in fisheries. c. have been banned internationally since 1992. d. are used only in the high seas. e. are environmentally sound. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 488
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279 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 42. For each pound of shrimp caught in the American fishery, how many pounds of other fish are discarded from the catch? a. 2 pounds. b. 5 pounds. c. 10 pounds. d. 15 pounds. e. 25 pounds. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 488
43. Aquaculture currently can raise all except: a. shrimp. b. swordfish. c. clams. d. oysters. e. salmon. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 489
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490
44. Some of the problems with aquaculture include all except a. converting productive habitat into less productive aquaculture. b. large amounts of fish meal and protein needed to raise biomass. c. pesticides and antibiotics in the tissues. d. increased shrimp for the restaurant trade. e. localized environmental degradation. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 491
45. The raising of more than one species of fish in a fish farming operation is called: a. monoculture. b. mariculture. c. polyculture. d. aquaculture. e. multiculture. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 489
TRUE/FALSE
46. Water obtained from seawater desalination is much cheaper than water pumped from the ground.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 499
47. Manganese nodules are actively mined from the sea today.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 500
48. Desalination plants are currently in operation in several countries, providing inexpensive water for agricultural purposes.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 499
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 49. Increases in fishing effort have led to a proportional increase in fisheries yield.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 482
50. The technique of “backing down” the purse seine net decrease the number of dolphins caught in it.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 494
51. Even though the U.S. tuna fishing industry is actively trying to avoid catching dolphins, there is still a big dolphin catch by foreign tuna fishers.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 496
52. The majority of animals caught in shrimp trawls are the shrimp themselves.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 488
53. Drift nets are allowed to float overnight in open ocean areas.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 488
54. An understanding of the biology of marine animals is needed in order to implement adequate management of marine fisheries.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 482
55. Compared to the Asian fisheries industry, the U.S. fishing industry efficiently utilizes almost all of the fish catch and almost all parts of a fish.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 488
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499
MATCHING
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. oil and gas b. renewable resources c. non-renewable resources 56. Sustainable resources
57. Oil and coal
58. Resources derived from microorganisms
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 482
57. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 500
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 500
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. annual yield without being exploited b. maximize yield over several years c. reproductively isolated 59. Stocks
60. Potential yield
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281 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 61. Sustainable yield
59. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 482
60. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 484
61. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 484
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. protects turtles b. deaths of marine mammals and seabirds c. drags on the bottom, damaging benthic habitat d. destroys mangrove habitat 62. Drift nets
63. Trawling
64. TEDS
65. Shrimp/prawn farms
62. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 488
63. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 488
64. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 488
65. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 491
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. hatchery reared juveniles b. carp and mullet ponds in Israel c. Atlantic salmon pens 66. Monoculture
67. Polyculture
68. Ocean ranching
66. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 489
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 489
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 496
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. decomposition with cold water b. plant origin c. microorganism origin 69. Coal
70. Oil
71. Methane hydrate
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 500
70. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 500
71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 501
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. allows dolphins to escape b. dragged on seafloor c. surface net that encircles schools of fish d. hatcheries
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282 Chapter 19
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 72. Purse seine
73. Trawl
74. Backing down
75. Ocean ranching
72. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 494
73. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 485
74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 494
75. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 496
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. no longer fulfills role in ecosystem b. reduces species abundance c. removal of large fish over time will affect this 76. Genetics
77. Ecologically extinct
78. Habitat destruction
76. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 485
77. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 485
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 487
Match the fish with the word denoting whether conscientious consumers should purchase it. a. mahi-mahi b. salmon-natural caught c. farmed Atlantic salmon 79. Best choice
80. Caution
81. Avoid
79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 487
80. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 487
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 487
ESSAY
82. How is salt extracted from the sea?
ANS: Seawater is placed in shallow ponds located in sunny areas. The water is evaporated and a concentrated brine forms. Next, new seawater is pumped into the pond and more evaporation takes placed until a super saturated brine forms. Complete evaporation leads to the formation of salt deposits that are harvested from the pond bed.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 498
–
499
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 83. What problems are associated with desalination?
ANS: First, desalination is a very expensive procedure. Energy is needed to heat seawater or to pump seawater through a high pressure filtration system. As a result, only wealthy water-starved nations can obtain their water by desalination. Second, the process of burning fossil fuels in order to generate needed energy to heat seawater is very polluting.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 499
84. Most fossil fuels mined from the sea are mined in coastal areas that make up part of the continental shelf. Very little exploration for fossil fuels is done in the deep sea. What are some reasons for this?
ANS: The most important reason for the limited exploration for fossil fuels in the deep sea is the prohibitive cost of operating in such deep waters. Technology has not been developed that would make such exploration economically feasible. Another factor has to do with the very slim chance of finding oil on the deep sea floor. This is because the oceanic crust, compared to the continental crust, is relatively new and is constantly being recycled in the earth's interior. This means that there is very little time for biological deposits to become covered by many layers of sediment to produce the needed high pressure and temperature for the formation of oil.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 500
85. Describe at least 3 effects of mangrove destruction on marine habitats.
ANS: Fifty percent of mangrove habitat has been removed for commercial development. This leads to a loss in local fisheries, and contributes to contamination of coastal waters. Salinity has increased in estuaries and sediments are destabilized with the loss of the mangroves roots. Coastlines become destabilized and greenhouse gases increase.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 487 | 491
86. Describe the impact of the incidental catch of the U.S. trawl fishery on marine ecosystems.
ANS: Incidental catch is the capture of non-target fish. Numerous species including porpoises, turtles, sea birds, fur seals, and sharks are left to die in the ocean. The U. S. trawls fishery not only kills 3-5 tons of fish each year, but damages or destroys their habitat. The loss of habitat quality causes prolonged declines in both target and non-target stocks.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 486 | 488
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Harvesting the Ocean's Resources 87. How could the decline of the population of anchovies off Peru preclude a future rebound in this population in and of itself even if, in the future, there was enough food in the water to support the growth of large populations of anchovies?
ANS: When the anchovy population declines other fish species that occupy a similar niche to that of the anchovies, such as sardines, will explode in numbers due to the reduced competition with declining anchovies. As a result, a fledgling population of anchovies will find it difficult to compete with an established population of sardines when conditions in the water get better.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 491
–
494
88. Give an example of how knowledge of the biology and life history of a particular fishery could help in the management of that fishery?
ANS: By learning the biology, behavior, and life cycle of a particular species we can regulate the fishing of that species and limit it to periods or areas that would limit the impact on the population of the species. As an example, if a species of fishes tended to predominantly spawn in the spring, then it would make no sense to fish it extensively in the late winter when the adults have not yet reproduced. By doing so the fishers are catching the adults and preventing the establishment of offspring that will comprise future populations.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 482
–
484
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285 Chapter 20
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Oceans in Jeopardy Chapter 20
—
Oceans in Jeopardy
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Ocean pollution includes all except a. toxins. b. heavy metals. c. dissolved oxygen. d. oil. e. PCBs. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 505
–
515
2. Ocean dumping began a. early in human history. b. with the development of Middle Age cities. c. with the Industrial Age. d. in the early part of the 19
th
century. e. in the 1960’s.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 506
3. Ocean dumping of trash is an example of society doing all except a. abusing the ocean. b. finding short-term profits in waste disposal. c. finding a viable solution to trash. d. having an "out of sight, out of mind" mentality. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis
4. Throughout this century, the military has a. recycled all of its trucks and jeeps. b. processed chemicals prior to ocean dumping. c. discarded unwanted materials into the ocean. d. removed all unwanted materials to the land for processing. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 508
5. Future dumping of radioactive waste by U.S.-based organizations into the ocean requires: a. a permit by the Department of Commerce. b. approval by the President of the United States. c. an environmental impact statement and approval by both houses of Congress. d. approval by the EPA. e. approval by the Department of Energy. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 515
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286 Chapter 20
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Oceans in Jeopardy 6. The largest volumetric component of trash collected on beaches will likely be: a. metal. b. plastic. c. medical waste. d. glass. e. cigarette butts. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 506
–
508
7. Over ____% of the U.S. population lives within 50 miles of a coastline. a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 50 e. 70 ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 508
8. The biggest problem facing coastal habitats is not dumping but: a. overfishing. b. river runoff. c. development. d. offshore oil spills. e. nuclear power plant leakage. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 516
9. A toxic organic compound is: a. chromium. b. polychlorinated biphenyls. c. trash. d. oil. e. zinc. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
10. The following is not a heavy metal toxin: a. DDT. b. mercury. c. lead. d. zinc. e. copper. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
11. Animals that are likely to be severely affected by DDT include: a. pelicans. b. jellyfish. c. anchovies. d. mussels. e. copepods.. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 509
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Oceans in Jeopardy 12. DDT was used in the U.S. in the ____ industry. a. plastics b. agricultural c. paint d. manufacturing e. weapons. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
13. Species diversity of plankton in the North Atlantic has been reduced by a. global warming. b. oil spills. c. toxic compounds. d. solar flares. e. alteration of surface currents. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
14. The reported effects of toxins on marine zooplankton include a. increased sinking rate. b. faster growth. c. tumors. d. altered growth and development. e. increase in photosynthetic rates. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
15. Reported toxins' effects on marine phytoplankton include all of the following except a. increased sinking rate. b. inhibited photosynthesis. c. reduced growth. d. reduced cell division. e. tumors. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
16. Toxins can lead to: a. increased harvestable metals in the ocean. b. reduction in anaerobes in the sediment. c. reduction in primary production. d. increase in primary production. e. increase in individual size and growth rates. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
17. Greenhouse gases are associated with all except: a. global warming. b. coral bleaching. c. cooling of Arctic waters. d. sea level rise. e. melting of glaciers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 517
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288 Chapter 20
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Oceans in Jeopardy 18. When seawater rises more than 10 mm per year, symbiotic zoxoanthellae will a. increase due to the warm water. b. be reduced without sufficient sunlight. c. be reduced by the increased pressure. d. increase due to the input of nutrients. e. increase due to increased water pressure. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 518
19. Pollution in the coastal area has led to a. sea level rise. b. an increase in upwelling. c. a decrease in economic and recreational value. d. a decrease in upwelling. e. increases in fishery landings. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 513
20. Most coastal pollution comes from a. oil spills from ships. b. dumping of trash. c. military disposal. d. runoff from urban and agricultural lands. e. nuclear power plants. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 513
–
515
21. Algal blooms result when unusually high amounts of nutrients enter the sea from: a. runoff from land. b. leaching from marine sediments. c. direct intentional dumping. d. input from wind. e. shipboard disposal at sea. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 515
22. Sewage pollution is especially problematic in coastal areas a. that are sparsely populated. b. after drought. c. after prolonged rains. d. having fast moving currents. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 513
23. Treated sewage released into the ocean adds large amounts of ____ into the water. a. bacteria b. DDT c. PCBs d. chlorine e. zinc ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
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Oceans in Jeopardy 24. What type of organism can concentrate microbes? a. Grazers b. Filter feeders c. Secondary consumers d. Tertiary consumers e. Scavengers ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 514
25. Health officials measure ____ to evaluate if disease agents are present. a. byssal thread density b. changes in species composition c. coliform bacteria d. the oyster index e. water density ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 514
26. Eutrophication occurs when a. species diversity increases. b. coliform bacteria counts go up. c. nutrient levels decline. d. nutrient levels increase. e. sea surface temperature decreases. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 514
27. In waters of low nutrients, eutrophication can lead to a. increased production. b. reduced production. c. decreased phytoplankton growth. d. reduction in species diversity. e. increased water clarity. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 514
28. Outbreaks of the dinoflagellates Pfesteria
has been attributed to: a. septic tank overflows. b. agricultural runoff. c. oil pollution. d. carbon emissions. e. urban runoff. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 515
29. Sewage treatment is a way to prevent raw sewage causing a. oil spills. b. oligotrophy. c. eutrophication. d. global warming. e. coastal erosion. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 515
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Oceans in Jeopardy 30. The process whereby toxins are actively taken up by an organism is called: a. additive affect. b. bioaccumulation. c. trophic dynamics. d. predator-prey relationships. e. adsorption onto seston. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 538-539
31. The increase in the concentration of toxicants up the food chain is called: a. bioaccumulation. b. biological magnification. c. detoxification. d. organic magnification. e. none of the above. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 516
32. It is estimated that ____ tons of plastic enter the ocean annually. a. 500 b. 500 thousand c. 1 million d. 10 million e. 100 million ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 507
33. Discarded or lost drift nets will have a large impact on: a. schooling fishes. b. marine mammals. c. benthic invertebrates. d. zooplankton. e. both a and b ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 507
34. Discarded plastic nets (known as ghost nets) and cargo straps are responsible a. for the accumulation of debris. b. for the death of up to 300,000 fur seals annually. c. for reduction of lobster. d. for catches of shellfish. e. for supporting a viable fishery. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 507
35. Lost traps to collect shellfish have a large impact on a. marine mammals. b. marine birds. c. marine turtles. d. lobster and crabs. e. plankton. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 507
–
508
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291 Chapter 20
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Oceans in Jeopardy 36. Plastics can best be described as being: a. persistent. b. biodegradable. c. harmless to marine animals. d. found only in areas where they are dumped. e. recyclable. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 506
–
508
37. Plastic pollution is considered by many scientists to be: a. a minor nuisance. b. biodegradable. c. of lesser importance than oil or toxins. d. of equal importance to oil and toxins. e. a problem best left for the next generation to deal with. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 507
38. Straight-chain oils are called: a. aliphatic hydrocarbons. b. aromatic hydrocarbons. c. mixed hydrocarbons. d. ethyl oils. e. aromatic oils. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 510
39. The largest oil spill in the United States was: a. near Santa Barbara. b. at Valdez, Alaska. c. at the Deepwater Horizon rig. d. on the Hudson river, New York. e. in San Francisco Bay. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 511
40. Toxic oil compounds' effects on the invertebrates include(s): a. tainted flesh moving up the food chain. b. all invertebrates are tolerant of oil pollution. c. acting like a narcotic. d. both a and c ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 513
41. Which of the following is the greatest effect of oil on marine mammals and birds? a. It is toxic to these animals. b. It clogs their feeding structures. c. It causes them to lose their insulation, leading to death by hypothermia. d. It kills their food source. e. It suffocates them. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 512
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Oceans in Jeopardy 42. The community effect of oil pollution is a. increased biomass. b. reduced diversity. c. longer food chains. d. increased trophic complexity. e. greater stability. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 513
43. All of the following are currently used to clean up oil spills except: a. booms. b. naturally occurring bacteria. c. genetically engineered bacteria. d. straw. e. skimmers. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 513
44. In the U.S. over ____ of the coastal wetland habitats have been destroyed. a. b. c. d. e. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 521
45. A big obstacle preventing the protection of coastal wetlands is: a. lack of laws protecting wetlands. b. lack of interested groups. c. politically-motivated decisions to change the definitions of wetlands. d. lack of scientific understanding about the ecosystems. e. none of the above. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 521
TRUE/FALSE
46. PCBs are considered heavy metals.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 509
47. DDT and PCBs are no longer legally used anywhere in the U.S.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 509
48. DDT breaks down in the environment fairly quickly.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 509
49. Lead pollution has been on the rise since the 1970s.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 509
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Oceans in Jeopardy 50. The trophic levels that are most seriously harmed by biomagnified pollutants are the lower grazers and producers.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 509 | 516
51. When a pollutant interferes with photosynthesis of phytoplankton it indirectly affects higher trophic levels.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 509 | 514
52. The heavier components of oil evaporate fairly quickly.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 510 | 512
53. Introduction of nonnative marine species often occurs through release of ballast water in ports of call.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 519
MATCHING
Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. chlorinated toxin b. heavy metal c. garbage 54. Organic wastes
55. PCB
56. Mercury
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 509
55. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 509
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 509
Match the environmental problem with its cause a. DDT b. agriculture runoff c. plastic wastes d. range extension of species 57. Eutrophication
58. Animal entanglement/death
59. Biomagnification
60. Climate change
57. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 514
58. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 508
59. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 516
60. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 517
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Oceans in Jeopardy Match the words with the most closely associated term. a. polychlorinated biphenyls b. benzene and other ring-shaped molecules c. heptane and other straight-chain molecules d. coliforms 61. Aromatic hydrocarbons
62. Aliphatic hydrocarbons
63. PCBs
64. Microorganisms
61. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 510
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 510
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 509
64. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 514
Match the percent with its most closely associated pollution source based on ICC volunteer efforts. a. 35.8 b. 6.3 c. 52 65. Shoreline and Recreational Activity
66. Smoking Related
67. Ocean/Waterway
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 507
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 507
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 507
Match the pollution source category with a common activity. a. Fishing nets, buoys, and traps b. Building materials c. Food and beverage containers d. Condoms and tampons 68. Shoreline and recreational activity
69. Ocean and waterway activities
70. Dumping-related activities
71. Medical waste
68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 507
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 507
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 507
71. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 507
Match the words with the most closely associated result. a. land runoff b. jetties, breakwaters c. draining and filling 72. Wetland destruction
73. Coastal erosion
74. Coastal pollution
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Oceans in Jeopardy 72. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 521
73. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 521
74. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 516
Match the possible solution with the problem. a. prevention and treatment of urban run-off b. treatment of sewage c. phasing out production of single-use plastic items 75. Marine animal death by entanglement/starvation
76. Eutrophication
77. Oil pollution
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 506
–
508
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 513
–
515
77. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 510
–
513
Match the words with the most closely associated effect. a. DDT b. ocean rising c. ocean warming 78. Potential death of zooxanthellae and coral from low light levels
79. Thinning of seabirds’ eggshells
80. Loss of zooxanthellae from reef-building corals
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 518
79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 509
80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 518
Match the words with the most closely associated organism. a. presence indicates sewage pollution b. concentrate hepatitis viruses c. mercury poisoning, DDT and PCBs 81. Filter feeders
82. Biological magnification
83. Coliforms
81. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 514
82. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 516
83. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 514
Match the effects of oil pollution with the most closely associated organism. a. causes hypothermia b. toxins in oil act as a narcotic c. colonizes vacated areas on rocky shores 84. Seaweeds
85. Otters and sea birds
86. Mollusks
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Oceans in Jeopardy 84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 513
85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 512
86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 513
ESSAY
87. Briefly describe the kinds of trash, amount of trash, and economic impact of dumping trash in the ocean, using Florida as an example.
ANS: Common trash includes tobacco products, glass, metal, and plastic. In Florida alone, 48% of the trash collected by volunteers was plastic; the remainder consisted of tobacco, glass, metal, and syringes. This brief clean-up saved the state of Florida $500,000.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 506
88. What are the problems associated with dumping radioactive waste in subduction zones of the deep sea?
ANS: Because the subduction of the oceanic plates is so slow, it is likely that the containers holding radioactive waste will erode long before they are subducted. As a result, dumping containers holding this waste in the deep sea will surely result in radioactive contamination of the deep sea.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 515
89. How is it that DDT and PCB pollution continue today even though these pollutants have been banned in the U.S. for many years?
ANS: PCBs and DDT are synthetic organic compounds that are unusually persistent in the environment. As a result, quantities of these pollutants that were used many years ago are still present in the soil and can still find their way into the sea where they can pollute. In addition, DDT and PCBs that made it into the sea are highly concentrated in the sediment where they leach out into the water column very slowly.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 509
90. Briefly describe how toxic materials like DDT that have low concentrations in the water column affect organisms at distant locations.
ANS: Currents can move the toxins from their source and they are persistent. Two biological processes increase the toxicity of the compounds. Bioaccumulation occurs when a low-trophic-level organism actively takes up the toxin. Biological magnification occurs when predators concentrate the toxin further, eventually leading to lethal and sub-lethal effects.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 516
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Oceans in Jeopardy 91. In Long Beach, CA, recent proposals have suggested removing the breakwall that has protected the Los Angeles/Long Beach harbor for nearly half a century. This has been suggested as a way of returning the Long Beach coastline to its natural pre-breakwall state. Can you suggest any reasons why this may not be such a good idea?
ANS: Since the breakwall surrounds a heavily populated and industrialized part of Southern California, it is likely that many pollutants have entered the harbor over the many years of its operation. It is also likely that many of these pollutants have settled to the bottom along with very fine silt as a result of the low wave and current activity in the harbor. Indiscriminately tearing down the breakwall could result in the resuspension of fine particles and pollutants into the water column with detrimental effects on pelagic and benthic organisms. Some of these effects could also be felt in surrounding areas depending on the movement of currents.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: 514 | 523
92. Why are toxins more concentrated in sediments than in the overlying water column?
ANS: Many toxic substances such as heavy metals and synthetic organic compounds have high affinities for suspended particles or floating phytoplankton cells. As a result, when these particles settle, or when the phytoplankton die or are eaten by benthic organisms, the pollutants ultimately find their way into the sediment sink where they remain until disturbed.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 516
93. What are some ways of reducing plastic pollution in the ocean?
ANS: Reduction in consumer demand for single-use plastic items, and replacing them with recyclable materials (example: reusable cloth bags instead of plastic grocery bags); participating in coastal beach cleanups, and educating others about reducing their use of plastic.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 508
94. Why is marine transportation of oil a big problem for the environment?
ANS: First, most major ports and loading stations are located within protected waters such as bays, sounds, and estuaries. These areas are highly vulnerable to oil spills due to fragile marine life that exists in these areas. The problem is compounded by the fact that the majority of oil spills take place in nearshore waters because of increased traffic or bottom dangers.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 510
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Oceans in Jeopardy 95. Recent outbreaks of the dangerous dinoflagellate Pfisteria
in the waters off North Carolina have been linked to hog farming inland of the coast. What is the connection between the two?
ANS: Dinoflagellates are very sensitive to nutrient levels in the water column. When these nutrients increase the dinoflagellate population explodes. A byproduct of hog farming is massive quantities of animal waste that ultimately find their way to the sea by runoff from land. These waste materials are loaded with nutrients such as phosphates and nitrates, which fuel the bloom of the Pfisteria
population.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: 515
96. Describe at least 3 effects of oil spills on marine organisms and the marine environment.
ANS: Oil spills harm marine organisms and environments in a number of ways. Oil is toxic to many species that ingest the oil directly or through their food. This can have severe effects on the immune, reproductive and other systems of these animals. Oil can also have a clogging effect on the feeding apparatus of benthic and planktonic animals, indirectly killing these animals by starvation. Oil is known to kill birds and mammals such as otters by removing their means of insulation, which results in death to these animals by exposure. In addition to its effects on animals, oil can coat coastlines, thereby rendering them uninhabitable to marine organisms. This could also result in larger ecological effects by reducing species diversity and altering the species composition of an area.
PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: 512
–
513
97. What are 2 reasons why tropical environments are potentially less vulnerable to the effects of oil pollution than higher latitude areas?
ANS: In the tropics the combination of high temperatures and strong sunlight mean that oil will potentially be broken down faster by photodegradation. Another factor has to do with the metabolic rates of marine organisms in the tropics versus those of animals living in colder waters. Tropical animals have faster metabolic rates, which means that they could potentially excrete or detoxify oil pollution faster than their cold water counterparts. It also means that tropical animals can reproduce faster to replace dead animals.
PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis / Application REF: 512
–
513
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