BIO 121 Exam #1 (Spring 2024)- Versions A and B Key (1)

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May 28, 2024

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BIO 121 Exam #1- Version A 1. My test is: a. version A b. version B 2. What is the term used to refer to a group of tissues that work together to form a structure with a specific function? a. organ b. organ system c. organelle 3. A population consists of a group of individuals of the same species that exists in a given area. a. True b. False 4. A researcher creates a model to predict how all of the different biological “moving parts” of a complex ecosystem work together. Such a model would be a good way to examine a scientific question via reductionism , rather than systems biology . a. True b. False 5. Which of the following concepts is not part of the Cell Theory? a. All cells arise from other cells. b. Cells are the basic units of living things c. New cells are produced by the division of existing cells d. All cells contain DNA inside a nucleus. 6. Proteomics would be used to study of the genetic makeup of individuals, but genomics would involve the study of what protein molecules an individual can create. a. True b. False

7. Prokaryotic organisms were the first types of organisms on Earth. a. True b. False 8. Which of the following would be found in a eukaryotic cell, but not in a prokaryotic cell? a. genetic material (DNA) b. organelles c. a cell wall d. all of the above 9. The nutrients/minerals in an ecosystem’s food chain are continuously recycled/”looped,” but the energy that is transferred through the food chain is not. a. True b. False 10. A consumer is an organism that must take in nutrients from the bodies of other organisms to survive. a. True b. False 11. When your body temperature drops too low, your cells will begin to break down fuel (sugar) at a faster rate (and releasing more heat as a byproduct), thereby returning your body temperature to normal. Which of the following would this example represent? a. positive feedback b. negative feedback c. both 12. A large number of the species on Earth’s surface have not yet been named and described. a. True b. False 13. What is the correct order of taxonomic hierarchy, from largest group to smallest? a. Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species b. Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, species, and genus c. Genus, species, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, and domain d. Kingdom, domain, family, phylum, class, order, genus, and species

14. Prokaryotes found in “temperate environments” (such as the surfaces of human hands and expired food items) would be placed in: a. Domain Bacteria (Domain Eubacteria) b. Domain Archaea c. Domain Eukarya 15. Evolution is a phenomenon that takes place (over many generations) due to the differential survival and reproduction of individuals within a population in a given environment, which would be referred to as natural selection . a. True b. False 16. The scientific method can be directly used to answer questions of ethics, philosophy, and belief. a. True b. False 17. In a medical trial in which the efficacy of a blood pressure medication is being tested, one group of test subjects received a placebo (sugar pill “blank”) and another group received the actual pharmaceutical drug. In this research project, which of the following would represent the experimental group ? a. the type of medication given b. the group of individuals given the placebo c. the average blood pressure found among members of each group d. the group of individuals given the blood pressure medication e. the age of the participants in the medical trial 18. Hypotheses and theories can be proven correct in science. a. True b. False

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19. Water (H 2 O) would be classified as a: a. molecule b. compound c. both 20. The four major elements that comprise the majority of the human body would be: a. carbon, hydrogen, phosphorus, and nitrogen b. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and sulfur c. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and phosphorus d. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen 21. Which of the following would be found in the nucleus of an atom? a. proton b. neutron c. electron d. both a and b e. all of the above 22. The atomic number of neon is 10, and its atomic mass is approximately 20. How many electrons do neon atoms naturally have (before they have formed any bonds)? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. It is not possible to determine from the information given.

23. Given the information about neon listed previously, how many neutrons would neon atoms typically have (before they have formed any bonds)? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. It is not possible to determine from the information given. 24. Isotopes of an element differ from other atoms of the same element in their: a. number of protons b. number of neutrons c. number of electrons 25. A fluorine atom has two electron shells. The first has two electrons (completely filling it), and the second shell (its outer (valence) shell) has seven. How many additional electrons will the fluorine atom seek access to (in order for its outer (valence) electron shell to be most chemically stable)? a. none b. one c. two d. three e. four 26. Which of the following is formed in a situation in which two atoms exhibit unequal sharing of electrons? a. ionic bond b. polar covalent bond c. nonpolar covalent bond d. hydrogen bond 27. Substances in which ionic bonding is present will tend to be insoluble (not able to dissolve) in water. a. True b. False

28. When a potassium atom and a chlorine atom form an ionic bond, the potassium atom is left with a positive charge, making it a _____________ and the chlorine atom is left with a negative charge, making it a _____________. a. cation; anion b. anion; cation c. anion; anion d. cation; cation 29. Which of the following types of bonds is the strongest in an aqueous environment ? a. ionic bonds b. covalent bonds c. hydrogen bonds d. van der Waals interactions 30. In a chemical reaction in which sucrose and water react to form glucose and fructose, sucrose would be referred to as a reactant . a. True b. False 31. The cohesive and adhesive properties of water, in addition to its relatively high boiling point (heat of vaporization) and its capacity for significant surface tension, are due to the hydrogen bonding that exists between water molecules. This hydrogen bonding between water molecules, in turn, is made possible due to the polar covalent bonding that exists within water molecules. a. True b. False 32. When you mix chocolate powder into water to make a hot drink, the water would be: a. the solute b. the solvent

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33. Which of the following would be true of an acidic substance? a. It can “absorb” H+ ions in solution, lowering pH. b. It can “absorb” H+ ions in solution, raising pH. c. It can release H+ ions in solution, lowering pH. d. It can release H+ ions in solution, raising pH. 34. One of the reasons that the pH levels throughout most of our bodies can be kept close to 7 is the presence of buffers that are able to “resist” slight alterations in pH that would normally occur. a. True b. False 35. A “polar” organic molecule could easily be formed by bonds between ___________________, and a “nonpolar” organic molecule could easily be formed by bonds between _______________________. a. carbon and oxygen; carbon and hydrogen b. carbon and hydrogen; carbon and oxygen c. Carbon cannot be a part of both types of molecules. d. The polar/nonpolar nature of bonds is not determined by the identity of the atoms involved. 36. Which of the following terms would best describe the pair of molecules shown here? a. structural isomers b. geometric ( cis-trans ) isomers c. enantiomers 37. Hydrolysis reactions cause large molecules (polymers) to be built from smaller subunits (monomers). a. True b. False

38. Providing energy is the only major function of which of the following macromolecules found in humans? a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins d. nucleic acids e. nucleotides 39. An example of a monosaccharide would be: a. chitin b. starch c. glucose d. sucrose 40. A polysaccharide that is indigestible in humans would be: a. glycogen b. cellulose c. glucose d. sucrose 41. Which of the following descriptions correctly explains why water and oil do not mix? a. Water has polar covalent bonds and oil has nonpolar covalent bonds. b. Water has nonpolar covalent bonds and oil has polar covalent bonds. c. Both water and oil have polar covalent bonds. d. Both water and oil have nonpolar covalent bonds. 42. Which part of a phospholipid would be held away from water in a cell membrane (phospholipid bilayer)? a. the hydrophilic head b. the hydrophobic tail

43. Which of the following would be most likely to be a lipid that is liquid at room temperature ? a. a lipid with triglyceride molecules that contain all single bonds between the carbon atoms in their “tails” b. a lipid with triglyceride molecules that contain multiple double bonds between the carbon atoms in their “tails” c. Both of the above would be expected to be liquid at room temperature. 44. Both male and female sex hormones are steroids that are chemically related to cholesterol. a. True b. False 45. Which of the following is the only component that will vary between individual amino acids? a. the amino group b. the carboxylic acid (carboxyl) group c. the hydrogen atom d. the functional side chain (R-group) 46. Which of the following levels of protein structure is held together entirely by covalent peptide bonds ? a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. quaternary structure 47. You are a scientist examining a single-strand protein with an overall 3-D “knotted” shape/structure held in place by a combination of: hydrogen bonding, ionic bonding, hydrophobic/hydrophilic interactions, van der Waals interactions, and covalent (disulfide bridge) bonding. Which of the following levels of protein structure would this example represent? a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. quaternary structure

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48. Proteins typically have a narrow range of temperature and pH levels in which they will function optimally, since their structural integrity can be heavily impacted by either heat or the presence of excess ions. a. True b. False 49. A nucleotide is composed of a phosphate group, a nitrogenous base, and a pentose sugar. a. True b. False 50. DNA’s double helix “ladder” has “sides” that are formed by hydrogen-bonded nitrogenous bases, and “rungs” that consist of covalently-bound pentose sugars and phosphate groups. a. True b. False 51. Which of the following nitrogenous bases would be found in a DNA molecule , but not in an RNA molecule ? a. adenine b. cytosine c. guanine d. uracil e. thymine 52. Organisms that are more distantly related (in the evolutionary tree of life) would be expected to have less similar genetic sequences than organisms that are more closely related. a. True b. False

BIO 121 Exam #1 (Spring 2024)- Versions A and B Key (1)

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