Semester_One_Final_Examinations_2022_BIOL1020

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1020

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May 20, 2024

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Preview Test: BIOL1020 Semester One End-of-semester Examination 2022 Test Information Description Undertaking this online examination deems your commitment to UQ’s academic integrity pledge as summarised in the following declaration: "I certify that I have completed this examination in an honest, fair and trustworthy manner, that my submitted answers are entirely my own work, and that I have neither given nor received any unauthorised assistance on this examination". Instructions You need to answer all of the questions in the Blackboard Test. You must do all your working in the Blackboard test Don't forget to set a timer or alarm to remind you to submit your exam after 100 minutes. A reminder that if you commence the exam later than the start time - you have less time to complete the exam. You are required to type your response. If you believe there is missing or incorrect information impacting your ability to answer any particular question, please state this when answering that question. If you have issues uploading please make sure you take progressive screenshots as proof of your issues and also contact the Library AskUs service - see Examination Information for details. If you submit your online exam after the end of your specified planning time, duration, and 15 minutes submission time, the following penalties will be applied to the total mark available for the assessment: Less than 5 minutes – 5% penalty From 5 minutes to less than 15 minutes – 20% penalty More than 15 minutes – 100% penalty These penalties will be applied to all online exams unless there is sufficient evidence of problems with the system and/or process that were beyond your control. Multiple Attempts Force Completion Not allowed. This test can only be taken once. This test can be saved and resumed later. Your answers are saved automatically.

QUESTION 2 2 points Save Answer A polysaccharide containing β(1→ 4) linkages A. is unable to be digested by mammals B. cannot be found in the cellular components of plant cells C. contains a complex branching 3D structure D. has a higher glycaemic index (GI) than starch E. is structurally more rigid than a polysaccharide containing a (1→ 4) linkages Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBE the difference between triacylglycerol (TAG) and phospholipids? A. TAG is an example of an unsaturated fat, whereas phospholipids are an example of saturated fat B. TAG is used for fat storage whereas phospholipids are used to generate amphipathic cell membranes C. TAG is an example of a trans fat, whereas phospholipids are an example of a cis fat D. TAG is found in adipocytes whereas phospholipids are not. E. TAG is comprised of a glycerol headgroup attached to three fatty acid tails, whereas phospholipids are only comprised of a phosphocholine headgroup QUESTION 1 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 4 2 points Save Answer Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES the main findings of the Meselson-Stahl experiment? A. Using 14 N in experiments is an effective way of tracking nitrogen molecules B. The semiconservative model of DNA replication is more accurate than the dispersive or conservative models of DNA replication C. DNA can be separated using centrifugation D. Both strands of each new DNA double helix are brand new and synthesized from individual nucleotides E. Bacteria grown in the presence of a heavier nitrogen isotope ( 15 N) will replicate at a slower rate than those that utilise a lighter nitrogen isotope ( 14 N) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. In prokaryotic cells the DNA is dispersed randomly throughout the cell B. Prokaryotic cells have mitochondria, except Archaea C. The main difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is the presence of ribosomes D. Chloroplasts can be found in multicellular and single cell organisms E. Eukaryotic cells have a triple membrane surrounding the nucleus QUESTION 3 2 points Save Answer

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QUESTION 6 2 points Save Answer In an anabolic reaction A. biological molecules are broken down and the Gibbs free energy increases. B. biological molecules are broken down and the Gibbs free energy decreases. C. biological molecules are synthesised and the Gibbs free energy is invariant. D. biological molecules are synthesised and the Gibbs free energy increases. E. biological molecules are synthesised and the Gibbs free energy decreases. Which of the following statements is MOST ACCURATE? A. The reduction of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix results in the transfer of 2 electrons to the electron transport chain. B. The reduction of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix results in the transfer of 1 electron to the electron transport chain. C. The oxidation of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix results in the transfer of 1 electron to the electron transport chain. D. The oxidation of NADH in the mitochondrial matrix results in the transfer of 2 electrons to the electron transport chain. E. The oxidation of NADH in the cytoplasm results in the transfer of 1 electron to the electron transport chain. QUESTION 5 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 8 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 9 2 points Save Answer Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. In telophase two nuclear envelopes are fully formed and the cell splits in two via cytokinesis. B. In the prophase chromatin condenses into X- shaped chromosomes. C. The contraction of the kinetochore microtubules leads to the separation of the sister chromatids during anaphase. D. In the eukaryotic cell cycle the cell spends much more time in the interphase than in the mitotic phase. E. Centrosomes are anchor points for microtubules and are essential to form the mitotic spindle. Which one of the following statements about the p53 tumour suppressor is CORRECT? A. More than 50% of all cancer patients have a mutated p53 gene. B. p53 is inactivated by kinases. C. In the presence of active p53 only mutated DNA will be able to be replicated in the S phase. D. p53 promotes transcription in cells that have not yet been exposed to UV light. E. p53 prevents UV light-induced DNA mutations. A(n) may be homozygous or heterozygous, whereas a(n) may be described as dominant or recessive A. genotype, phenotype B. gene, allele C. gene, trait D. allele, gene E. phenotype, genotype QUESTION 7 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 11 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 12 2 points Save Answer How is the expression of genes controlled at the chromosomal level? A. DNA can be unwound into euchromatin to reduce the level of expression B. DNA is spontaneously deleted from a chromosome if not needed C. DNA can synthesize extra histones as needed D. The expression of DNA can only be controlled at the transcriptional level E. DNA can either be condensed into heterochromatin or decondensed into euchromatin Mutation of which of these sequences would have an effect on translational initiation? A. upstream enhancer B. Polyadenylation signal C. 5’ UTR D. 3’ UTR E. TATA box Which of the following is NOT found in a prokaryotic genome? A. All of these are found in a prokaryotic genome B. tRNA genes C. Enhancers D. Histone genes E. Operons QUESTION 10 2 points Save Answer

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QUESTION 14 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 15 2 points Save Answer Complete the following sentence: Transcription of DNA by RNA polymerase II synthesises microRNA precursor transcript in: A. the 3′ to 5′ direction. B. both the 3′ to 5′ direction and the 5′ to 3′ direction simultaneously C. either the 3′ to 5′ direction or the 5′ to 3′ direction depending on the orientation of the gene D. a discontinuous fashion. E. the 5′ to 3′ direction. If the template strand of DNA has the sequence 5’-TCTAGGACT-3’, what will the sequence of the transcribed RNA be? A. 5’-AGATCCTGA-3’ B. 5’-UCAGGAUCU-3’ C. 5’-AGAUCCUGA-3’ D. 5’-UCAGGATCT-3’ E. 5’-AGUCCUAGA-3’ Which of the following enzymes helps the +sense RNA virus Poliovirus to make multiple copies of its genome? A. RNA dependent RNA polymerase B. RNA dependent DNA polymerase C. DNA Polymerase I D. Reverse transcriptase E. DNA dependent RNA polymerase QUESTION 13 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 17 2 points Save Answer The chromosome count of a cell at the beginning of prophase I is 12. What is the centromere count in a gamete belonging to the same organism? A. 12 B. 48 C. 24 D. 6 E. None of the answers are correct During meiosis both recombinant and parental type chromatids are created. Which of the outcomes below best represents a pool of gametes from a single chromosome? A. D B. A C. B D. E E. C QUESTION 16 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 19 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 20 2 points Save Answer Gregor Mendel observed that some traits in his peas would disappear in the F1 generation but would then reappear in the next (F2) generation. He then proposed that A. this reappearance of the trait was due to dominance of an inherited factor over another. B. the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants. C. members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each character. D. this was caused by a mutation that resulted in a dysfunctional protein being encoded by one of the two gene copies. E. new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1. Consider a situation where F1 is backcrossed with one of its parental lineage and we obtained A1H1/A2H2 : A2H1/A2H2 : A2H2/A2/H2: A1H2/A2H2 = 295 : 186 : 310 : 209, where A1 and A2 are alleles at a locus and H1 and H2 are alleles at the other locus. What is the recombination (genetic) distance between the two loci in centimorgans? A. 8.9 B. 18.4 C. 22.5 D. 50 E. 39.5 What is the main cause of genetic variation between identical twins? A. geographic variation within a population B. genetic drift C. mutations generated in the previous generation D. the movement of alleles through sexual reproduction E. environmental effects QUESTION 18 2 points Save Answer

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QUESTION 21 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 22 2 points Save Answer QUESTION 23 2 points Save Answer If a daughter displays a colourblind trait, which is correct? A. the father cannot have normal vision. B. the mother must have had two colour blind parents. C. the mother will pass the allele only to daughters. D. the mother cannot be colour blind. E. the mother will pass the allele on to half of her children. There are two populations of deer mice on either side of a river. One population is small in size while the other is large and both populations are connected by a bridge so that both populations have the same allele frequencies. The bridge collapses and is not rebuilt. What is likely to occur to the allele frequencies over time? A. Allele frequencies will change in the large population B. Allele frequencies will change in both populations C. There will be no change in allele frequencies in either population. D. Allele frequencies will change in the small population E. The large population will become extinct Mammals follow an XY sex chromosome system where females are XX and males are XY. In a hypothetical dog population, colour is a X- linked trait whereby Black is dominant over Brown, and Brown is dominant over White. A Black female is crossed to a White male. Which of the following is NOT a possible observation about their offspring? A. They are all black B. They are black and brown in a 1:1 ratio C. They are brown and white in a 1:1 ratio D. They are black and white in a 1:1 ratio E. They are all white

QUESTION 25 2 points Save Answer Recombination mapping has been fundamental in studying the arrangement of loci along chromosomes. Which of the following statements about recombination mapping is NOT correct? A. Generation time is an important factor for its feasibility B. Measuring phenotypes is an important component C. It cannot be used for breeding of animals D. Genome-wide association mapping can be combined with recombination mapping for better understanding of genetic bases of phenotypes E. It cannot be used for asexual organisms If a cross produced a progeny population of 900 plants that consists of 258 with white flowers and 642 with purple flowers, which of the following is most likely? P = purple, p = white. A. They are the progeny of a cross in which one parent was PP and the other was Pp. B. The purple phenotype is co-dominant with white C. They resulted from a cross in which the parents were of identical genotype at the P locus. D. They deviated from a 3:1 ratio because of epistasis. E. P is clearly semi-dominant. QUESTION 24 2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 27 4 points Save Answer When comparing starch and cellulose, which carbohydrate would be more useful as a component of bacterial cell walls? Explain. Use the following terms as part of your answer: alpha-glucose, beta- glucose, carbons, 3D structure For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). If DNA replication followed the dispersive model of replication, how would the outcomes of the Meselson-Stahl experiment change? Describe the composition of DNA samples after one and two rounds of replication, and how this is different from the findings of the original experiment. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 26 4 points Save Answer

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QUESTION 29 4 points Save Answer Cellular respiration connects the degradation of glucose to the formation of ATP, NADH and FADH 2 in a series of 24 enzymatic reactions. Describe the major benefit of breaking down glucose over so many individual steps and describe the main role of NADH and FADH 2 ? For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). Compare the process of cell division between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells and list four aspects where cell division of the two types of cells differ. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 28 4 points Save Answer

QUESTION 31 4 points Save Answer For bacteria living in a rapidly changing environment, would a population of bacteria incapable of conjugation be more successful than one that could undergo conjugation? Explain your answer. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). In the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster , wild type body colour is black and is a dominant trait, whereas grey body colour is a recessive trait. You are given a black body fly. How would you determine the genotype of this fly using traditional crossing experiments? Include in your answer the possible results and what they mean. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 30 4 points Save Answer

QUESTION 33 5 points Save Answer A man has six digits on each hand and foot (an autosomal dominant trait). His wife and first daughter have five on each hand and foot. What is the probability that both of his next two children will have six digits? Explain your reasoning. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). Huntington disease (HD) can arise from a rare, short, in-frame addition of CAG nucleotide triplets within the huntingtin ( HTT ) gene coding region, which creates a disease-causing allele with the symptoms only appearing later in life. Using this information, describe an experiment that could be undertaken to determine whether a currently healthy young individual is a carrier of the HD- causing mutation. Describe the method you would use and how you would interpret the results of this experiment. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 32 4 points Save Answer

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Why is population level genetic variation important for evolution ( 2 marks ) and what causes genetic variation ( 1 mark )? How do we detect if evolution is occurring ( 1 mark )? For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 34 4 points Save Answer

The allele of the gene responsible for the lung disorder, cystic fibrosis rose to prominence in Europe in the 1800s. Cystic fibrosis disease results from thick mucus accumulating in the lungs, which occurs in individuals who are homozygous for the CF allele. A pleiotropic effect is that heterozygous individuals are less likely to suffer from diarrhea. During the European cholera epidemics of the 1800s, resistance against diarrhea conferred a survival advantage such that approximately one in every 400 people in some European populations have cystic fibrosis. Fill in the table below with the genotype and allele frequencies for this 1 in 400 occurrence and provide the Hardy-Weinberg principle model you will be using. (Assume that individuals with the cystic fibrosis trait (CF) reproduce normally and that good sanitation means that there is currently no fitness advantage to diarrhea resistance.) phenotyp e CF DR norma l (totals) Genotype cc Cc CC Number of Individual s 1 (400) Genotype frequenci es . 095 (1.0) Allele c C Allele frequency (1.0) For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 35 4 points Save Answer

What are transposable elements ( 2 mark )? Explain how they contribute to the evolution of genomes ( 2 marks )? For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 36 4 points Save Answer

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Due to increased anthropogenic pressures on the environment, koalas are increasingly losing their habitat. This forces koalas to live in a landscape which is highly fragmented and limits their dispersal abilities. This is bad news for koalas for three reasons. First, research has shown that (1) female koalas do not have any mechanisms to avoid breeding with close relatives. Second, habitat fragmentation, which precludes dispersal, ultimately (2) reduces population size, and (3) gene flow. Put together, this means that habitat fragmentation impacts the genetic variation of a koala population. Describe what will be the genetic consequences of the following: increased breeding with relatives ( 1 mark ), a decreased population size ( 2 marks ) and increasing connectivity between koala habitat ( 2 marks ) For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac). QUESTION 37 5 points Save Answer

QUESTION 38 0 points Save Answer Please use this space if you believe there is missing or incorrect information that impacted your ability to answer any question. Please state which questions this is related to. For the toolbar, press ALT+F10 (PC) or ALT+FN+F10 (Mac).

Semester_One_Final_Examinations_2022_BIOL1020

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