Semester_One_Final_Examination_2023_BIOL1020
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Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 1 of 19
Venue
Seat Number
Student Number
| | | | | | | | |
Family Name
This exam paper must not be removed from the venue
First Name
School of Biological Sciences
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020 Genes, Cells and Evolution
This paper is for St Lucia Campus students.
Examination Duration: 90
minutes Planning Time:
10
minutes Exam Conditions:
•
This is a Closed Book examination - specified written materials
permitted
•
Casio FX82 series or UQ approved and labelled calculator only
•
During Planning Time - Students are encouraged to review and plan
responses to the exam questions
•
This examination paper will be released to the Library
Materials Permitted in the Exam Venue:
(No electronic aids are permitted e.g. laptops, phones)
One A4 sheet of handwritten notes double sided is permitted Unmarked Bilingual dictionary is permitted
Materials to be supplied to Students:
Additional exam materials (e.g. answer booklets, rough paper) will be provided upon request.
1 x Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Instructions to Students:
If you believe there is missing or incorrect information impacting your ability to answer any question, please state this when writing your answer.
Section A – Answer the questions on the Multiple Choice Answer sheet provided. Each question is worth 1 mark.
Section B - Short answer Questions – answer questions on the exam
paper in the spaces provided.
For Examiner Use Only
Question
Mark
Total
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 2 of 19
Section A – Answer the questions on the Multiple Choice Answer sheet provided. There are 30 multiple choice questions. Each question is worth 1 mark.
1.
Which of the following statements about glucose is CORRECT?
A)
Polymers made up of alpha-glucose monomers can stack on top of each other more tightly than polymers made up of beta-glucose monomers
B)
Starch is made up of glucose monomers connected to each other using both (1,4) and (1,6) glycosidic linkages
C)
Within cells glucose is primarily found in its linearised conformation
D)
Glucose is synthesised by cells through the process of respiration
E)
Unlike sucrose, lactose, and maltose, glucose is a disaccharide
2.
Which of the following statements about phospholipids is CORRECT?
A)
Phospholipids are an example of saturated fat
B)
Phospholipids are primarily used as a fat-storage compound within cells
C)
Phospholipids are comprised of a phosphocholine containing headgroup attached to hydrophobic fatty acid tails
D)
The amphipathic nature of phospholipids means it is unable to allow small hydrophobic molecules through the cell membrane
E)
Phospholipids are not found in adipocytes (fat-storing cells)
3. Which of the following statements about the Meselson-Stahl experiment is TRUE?
A)
It proved that the conservative model of DNA replication is less accurate than the dispersive model
B)
It confirmed the idea that there is an original DNA molecule in each cell that serves as the genetic blueprint for every instance of DNA replication
C)
It created two distinct populations of DNA by growing bacteria grown in a heavier nitrogen isotope (
15
N) versus a lighter nitrogen isotope (
14
N)
D)
It disproved the semiconservative model of DNA replication based upon its double helix structure
E)
It was the first study to use centrifugation in biological experiments
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 3 of 19
4.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)
Mitochondria are closely related to aerobic respiring Proteobacteria
B)
Chloroplasts are closely related to photosynthetic Archaea
C)
The structural similarity between the membrane folds present in mitochondria and
specific bacteria is the strongest evidence available that supports the endosymbiont hypothesis
D)
The thylakoid stacks within mitochondria are a byproduct of the budding off from the cell membrane as outlined in the endosymbiont hypothesis
E)
While chloroplasts contain their own enzymes and DNA, they do not possess their own ribosomes and therefore lack the ability to their genes into protein.
5.
Which of the following statements about ATP is CORRECT?
A)
ATP stores energy and electrons for anabolic reactions
B)
ATP is mostly synthesised during glycolysis and consumed in the citric acid cycle
C)
The hydrolysis of ATP facilitates endergonic reactions
D)
ATP is a building block of DNA
E)
The change in Gibbs free energy when ATP is hydrolysed is 7.3 kcal/mol
6 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A)
ATP pumps protons across the inner membrane of a mitochondrion.
B)
The transfer of electrons from NADH via four membrane protein complexes leads to a protein gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
C)
The increased proton concentration in the intermembrane space in a mitochondrion provides potential energy for the production of ATP.
D)
One molecule of NADH can deliver two electrons to the mitochondrial electron transport chain.
E)
Only ~34% of the energy stored in a glucose molecule is retained in the ATP that is generated from its catabolism.
7.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)
Centrosomes are anchor points for microtubules and are essential to form the mitotic spindle.
B)
The contraction of the kinetochore microtubules leads to the separation of the sister chromatids during anaphase.
C)
In the prophase chromatin condenses into X-shaped chromosomes.
D)
In the eukaryotic cell cycle the cell spends much more time in the interphase than in the mitotic phase.
E)
In telophase two nuclear envelopes are fully formed and the cell splits in two via
cytokinesis.
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BIOL1020
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8.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) promotes the metaphase during cell division.
B)
Cyclin is an enzyme that phosphorylates CDK.
C)
CDK is inactive unless it forms a complex with cyclin.
D)
p53 is a protein that promotes the transcription of cyclin.
E)
Every mutation in a gene leads to cancer.
9. Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBE the Anaphase during Mitosis?
A)
The sister chromatids are aligned in the middle of the cell.
B)
The nucleus starts to disintegrate.
C)
The sister chromatids are separated.
D)
The asters migrate to opposite poles of the dividing cell.
E)
Cytokinesis is being initiated.
10. Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBE the main findings of the Okazaki experiment?
A)
Each new double helix of DNA consists of 1 old and 1 new strand
B)
DNA can be separated based upon their size and weight
C)
Because DNA polymerases can only copy DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction, small fragments of DNA will be generated that need to be ligated back together
D)
The semiconservative model of DNA replication is more accurate than the conservative and dispersive models of DNA replication
E) DNA replication is discontinuous across both DNA strands being synthesized
11.
Which of the following together with DNA makes up a nucleosome?
A)
Histidine
B)
Histone
C)
Cystine
D)
Chromosomes
E)
Chromatin
12.
An unfertilized egg contains many mRNAs that should not be translated until fertilization occurs. Which of these regulatory strategies is most likely to control this process?
A)
histone methylation
B) alternative splicing
C) mRNA degradation
D) blocking translation initiation
E)
histone acetylation
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 5 of 19
13.
What is the function of the sigma factor in bacterial transcription?
A)
To enable specific binding of DNA polymerase to RNA
B)
To enable specific binding of promoters to operons
C)
To enable specific positioning of RNA polymerase to promoters
D)
To enable specific binding of RNA to DNA
E)
To prevent the binding of the polymerase to the promoter
14.
In the pea seed shape character, the round seed trait is dominant to that of the wrinkled seed trait. If a round seeded plant is crossed with a plant with wrinkled seeds, the progeny will have:
A)
round seeds only
B)
wrinkled seeds only
C)
round seeds and wrinkled seeds in a 3:1 ratio
D)
round seeds and wrinkled seeds in a 1:1 ratio
E)
A and D are each possible
15.
Which answer correctly describes the ordered steps of PCR?
A)
Primers hybridise to the DNA, the DNA separates, DNA polymerase elongates the new sequence by incorporating nucleotides, and the process begins again
B)
Following primer binding, the process begins again with DNA strand separation and elongation of the new sequence by polymerase
C)
The polymerase binds to the DNA, allowing the primers to incorporate nucleotides to
elongate the new DNA sequence, followed by separation of the double-stranded
DNA and the re-initiation of the process
D)
The process begins with double-stranded DNA separating, followed by primer
binding, with DNA polymerase completing the cycle by incorporating nucleotides to
synthesise a new DNA strand
E)
Primers bind to the DNA, the DNA polymerase elongates the new sequence
by incorporating nucleotides, and the DNA strands separate
16.
Which is true of archaea and bacteria?
A)
They are classified in the same domain.
B)
Neither bacteria nor archaea are related to eukaryotes.
C)
They are equally related to eukaryotes.
D)
They are classified in two separate domains.
E)
Only archaea are related to eukaryotes.
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 6 of 19
17.
Which of the following statements about translation is/are UNTRUE.
A)
AUG is the start codon, so cannot exist within an open reading frame.
B)
Stop codons may exist upstream of an open reading frame in the 5’ untranslated region of the mRNA.
C)
Introns disrupt open reading frames of eukaryotic genes.
D)
If two open reading frames are fused with the AUG of the second open reading frame replacing the stop codon of the first open reading frame, protein synthesis will continue past the end of the first open reading frame, resulting in a single protein that is a fusion of the two original proteins.
E)
Two of the above are untrue.
18.
Why do RNA viruses need to supply some of their own enzymes for replication?
A)
Viruses need the enzymes to enter the cell
B)
Host cells degrade their own enzymes when viruses enter the cell
C)
Host cells may lack the polymerase the viruses need to replicate their genomes
D)
Viruses lack the lipids they need to make envelopes
E)
Viruses need the enzymes in order to metabolize host cell products
19.
If the coding strand of DNA has the sequence 5’-CGAGACTTCTGA-3’, what will the sequence of the transcribed RNA be?
A) 5’-CGUGUCTTCTGU-3’
B) 5’-CGAGACUUCUGA-3’
C) 3’-GCTCTGAAGACT-5’
D) 3’-GCUCUGAAGACU-5’
E) 5’-CGAGACTTCTGA-3’
20.
How is DNA arranged in a eukaryotic cell during the G1 phase of interphase?
A)
in pairs of sister chromatids
B)
in plasmids
C)
by microtubule length
D)
in chromatin fibers
E)
in condensed chromosomes
21.
Sex is inherited as a Mendelian character in mammals. Which of the following sex ratio do you predict:
A)
1:2 ratio
B)
1:3 ratio
C)
2:3 ratio
D)
1:1 ratio
E)
1:6 ratio
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BIOL1020
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22.
Remember that mammals follow an XY sex chromosome system where females are XX and males are XY. In a hypothetical sheep population, colour is an X-linked trait whereby Brown is dominant over White, and Brown is recessive over Black. A White female is crossed to a Brown male. Which of the following is the correct observation about their offspring?
A)
They are all black
B)
Females are black and males are brown
C)
Females are black and males are white
D)
Females are brown and males are white
E)
All of the above options are possible
23.
Which of the following statements about recombination mapping is correct?
A)
It is used to detect loci that contribute to certain phenotypes
B) Genomic technologies are helpful for efficient recombination mapping
C)
Recombination rates are important for the number of marker loci needed for mapping
D)
It is used for breeding
E)
All of the other above are correct
24.
Variation in most phenotypic traits results from the combined actions of many loci and is also influenced by the environmental context, referred to as polygenic traits. Which of the following traits is NOT polygenic?
A)
Human height
B)
Human skin pigmentation
C)
Grain crop yield
D)
Human sickle cell
E) Pancreatic cancer
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 8 of 19
25.
During meiosis both recombinant and parental type chromatids are created. Which of the outcomes below best represents a pool of gametes from a single chromosome.
Select from the following.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26.
The Mc1r gene would be a logical place to start looking if your aim was to identify genes responsible for pigmentation in your vertebrate animal of interest. From an evolutionary perspective, this is because:
A)
The developmental role of the Mc1r gene seems to vary across diverse vertebrate taxa
B)
The Mc1r gene was first discovered in a model organism
C)
The conserved sequence of the Mcr1 gene across diverse vertebrate taxa indicates homology
D)
Lateral transfer of the Mc1r gene has resulted in its presence across diverse taxa
E)
The Mc1r is a good target for genetic engineering.
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 9 of 19
27.
Where would you normally look to find a prokaryotic genome?
A)
Within a protein coat
B)
In the mitochondria
C)
In the cytoplasm
D)
In the cell nucleus
E)
In the extracellular matrix
28.
Consider a situation where F1 is backcrossed with one of its parental lineage obtained following F2 genotype progeny in the table below where A and H represent different loci on a chromosome and 1 & 2 are different alleles at those loci. What is the recombination (genetic) distance between the two loci in centimorgan?
AxH F2 genotypes
# progeny
A
1
H
1
/A
2
H
2
380
A
2
H
1
/ A
2
H
2
107
A
1
H
2
/ A
2
H
2
103
A
2
H
2
/ A
2
H
2
410
A)
8.9
B)
21.0
C)
22.5
D)
39.5
E)
5.4
29.
How would you tell whether two genes are linked based on the phenotypic results of offspring from a dihybrid cross?
A)
If the two genes are on different chromosomes, all the offspring will look like the parents
B)
If the genes are linked, certain combinations of phenotypes will not be observed as often among the offspring of a dihybrid cross
C)
Linked genes will result in mutations being expressed only in male offspring
D)
If the genes are not linked, you may calculate offspring ratios using Punnett squares
E)
If the genes are linked, only one version of each trait is inherited
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30.
When the human genome was sequenced, scientists found that protein coding exons only made up a small part of the genome. What type of DNA made up most of the genome?
A) Unique non-coding DNA
B)
Introns
C) Repetitive DNA not made up of non-transposable elements
D) Repetitive DNA made up of transposable elements
E) Regulatory sequences
End of Part A.
Part B Continues on Page 11.
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 11 of 19
Section B - Short answer Questions – answer questions on the exam paper in the spaces provided. This section is worth a total of 70 marks.
1.
Describe TWO reasons why mammals are unable to digest cellulose as quickly as starch.
(3 marks)
2.
In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, why was it important to grow bacteria in nutrient
medium containing 15
N first, before growing the same bacteria in nutrient media
containing 14
N? What problem does this experimental strategy solve and how did it
help identify the correct model of DNA replication?
(4 marks)
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 12 of 19
3.
In DNA replication, lagging strand synthesis is discontinuous, whereas leading strand synthesis is continuous. What needs to change for lagging strand synthesis to be
continuous as well?
Use the following terms in your response: DNA polymerase, 5’ to 3’, 3’ to 5’
(3 marks)
4.
What are the main differences between cellular respiration and photosynthesis. List at least three aspects where the two processes differ.
(4 marks)
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5.
Name four (4) features where the processes of cellular respiration and photosynthesis
are similar.
(4 marks)
6.
What are main features of cell division in a eukaryotic cell. List at least three (3) aspects.
(4 marks)
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 14 of 19
7.
Explain the relationship between a mutation, a protein, a trait, dominance and recessivity of an allele. You may use the example of the taster gene that you examined in your practical if you wish.
(5 marks)
8.
In which type of chromatin would you expect to find a higher density of nucleosomes (density=number of nucleosomes per length of DNA) and what is the transcriptional consequence of it?
(4 marks)
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 15 of 19
9.
a.
What is the function of operons in bacterial gene regulation?
(2 marks)
b.
Provide schematic diagrams of a bacterial operon regulated by repressible proteins (such as the tryptophan operon), in both the “on” and “off” states of the operon. Key elements of your diagram should include: Co-repressor,
Genes, mRNA, Operator, Operon, Promoter, Repressor, RNA polymerase
(4 marks)
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10.
Concentrations
a.
You have just made 350 mL of a 0.15 M solution of Ca(OH)
2
. What volume of 2 M stock solution of Ca(OH)
2 did you need to use to make this?
(2 marks)
b.
The molecular weight (MW) of Ca(OH)
2 is 74.1 g. What mass of Ca(OH)
2 is present in
your 350 mL of solution?
(1 mark)
c.
How many 1.5 mL aliquots can be made from the 5 mL stock solution?
(1 mark)
11.
Given the following sequence of the coding strand of a gene, what is the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein? Use the genetic code chart below.
(3 marks)
5’-ACTGATAGCTAATGATGCAATGGGAGCCCTCCGTTCATAAGTAGCCA-3’
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 17 of 19
12.
If a colour-blind female carrier mates with a colour-blind male.
a.
What is the probability of a child being colour blind?
(1 mark)
b.
What is the probability of a child being a carrier?
(1 mark)
13.
Often many loci or genes are involved in a trait and trying to identify these loci or genes can be achieved using two approaches. One approach is Quantitative Trait Loci (QTL) mapping and the second is by using Genome Wide Association Studies (GWAS). Briefly outline the basic principle for both approaches.
(6 marks)
Semester One Examinations, 2023
BIOL1020
Page 18 of 19
14.
Why are x-linked recessive traits more common in males? Provide a three- generation pedigree, in which the mother is a carrier and the father is normal, to demonstrate your answer.
(3 marks)
15.
The Hardy Weinberg theorem or model of p
2
+2pq = q
2
= 1 suggests that genotype
frequencies in a population will remain constant through generations in the absence of other evolutionary influences. Explain how this model was derived using a single locus with alleles ‘A’ and ‘a’ and a simple Punnett square (3 marks). What are the major assumptions for this theorem and provide four instances that would void any of these assumptions (2 marks).
(5 marks)
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16.
The allele of the gene responsible for cystic fibrosis rose to prominence in Europe in the 1800s. Cystic fibrosis disease results from thick mucus accumulating in the lungs,
which occurs in individuals who are homozygous for the CF allele. A pleiotropic effect is that heterozygous individuals are less likely to suffer from diarrhea. During the European cholera epidemics of the 1800s, resistance against diarrhea conferred a survival advantage. In this hypothetical study, approximately one in every 600 people in some European populations have cystic fibrosis.
Fill in the table below with the genotype and allele frequencies for this 1 in 600 occurrence. (Assume that individuals with the cystic fibrosis trait (CF) reproduce normally and that good sanitation means that there is currently no fitness advantage to
diarrhea resistance.)
(6 marks)
phenotype
CF
DR
normal
(totals)
Genotype
cc
Cc
CC
Number of individuals
1
(600)
Genotype frequencies
Allele
c
0.095
C
(1.0)
Allele frequency
(1.0)
17.
What factors need to be met for a particular trait to evolve by natural selection?
(4 marks)
END OF EXAMINATION
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